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Question 1
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A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite and nausea secondary to his treatment. He is finding it difficult to cope with his illness and has become depressed.
Which of the following may be the most suitable appetite stimulant for him?Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Medications for Appetite Stimulation and Mood Improvement in a Patient with Anorexia
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that can also stimulate appetite, making it a suitable option for a patient with anorexia who needs both mood improvement and increased food intake. Dexamethasone can also be used to boost appetite in the short term. However, metoclopramide is not effective for mood improvement and would require dual therapy with another medication. Megestrol, a progestin, is indicated for anorexia, cachexia, or significant weight loss, but it does not address mood issues. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant but may not be the first choice for a patient with anorexia as it can cause weight loss and anorexia as side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on day 5 of climbing Mount Kilimanjaro in her adventure trip. A doctor accompanying the group examines her and finds her to be tachycardic with a raised temperature. They diagnose high-altitude cerebral oedema.
What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen
Correct Answer: Descent
Explanation:Treatment of High-Altitude Cerebral Oedema: The Importance of Rapid Descent
High-altitude cerebral oedema is a serious medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly. It is caused by swelling of the brain at high altitudes and requires immediate action. The most important management for this condition is rapid descent to lower altitudes. In severe cases, patients may need to be air-lifted or carried down as their symptoms prevent them from doing so themselves. While oxygen and steroids like dexamethasone can help improve symptoms, they are secondary to descent.
Acetazolamide is a medication that can be used to prevent acute mountain sickness, but it is not effective in treating high-altitude cerebral oedema. Oxygen can also help reduce symptoms, but it is not a substitute for rapid descent.
Rest is important in preventing acute mountain sickness, but it is not appropriate for a patient with high-altitude cerebral oedema. Adequate time for acclimatisation and following the principles of climb high, sleep low can reduce the risk of developing symptoms.
In summary, rapid descent is the most important treatment for high-altitude cerebral oedema. Other interventions like oxygen and steroids can be helpful, but they are not a substitute for immediate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a gradual blurring of vision in his right eye. He underwent cataract surgery on the same eye five years ago. Despite wearing reading glasses, he noticed no improvement. During the examination, his left eye had a visual acuity of 6/18, while his right eye had a visual acuity of 6/9. What possible diagnosis could explain his symptoms in the right eye?
Your Answer: Myopia
Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Refraction
Posterior Capsule Opacification
Posterior capsule opacification is a common complication after cataract surgery. It can cause blurring of vision, but is harmless and can be treated with a laser procedure called YAG laser capsulotomy.Anterior Capsule Opacification
Anterior capsule opacification does not occur after cataract surgery as most of the anterior capsule would have been removed during the procedure.Hypermetropia and Myopia
Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, and myopia, also known as short-sightedness, can cause blurring of vision if spectacles of the correct refraction were not prescribed. Hypermetropia requires a convex spectacle lens, while myopia requires a concave spectacle lens.Presbyopia
Presbyopia is the normal loss of near focusing ability that occurs with age. However, if wearing reading glasses does not improve blurring of vision, presbyopia may not be the correct diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As an FY1 doctor, you are summoned to attend an unconscious 64-year-old woman lying on the floor of a ward. Upon assessing her airway, you notice that it appears clear, but you can hear snoring. However, the snoring ceases when you perform a head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust. Upon auscultation, her chest is clear with good bilateral airflow, and her trachea is central. Her peripheral capillary refill takes more than 2 seconds. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on 4L of oxygen, her pulse is weak and regular at 105/min, her respiratory rate is 16/min, her blood pressure is 98/54 mmHg, and her temperature is 36.6 ºC.
What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?Your Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal tube
Correct Answer: Insert an oropharyngeal tube
Explanation:Three basic techniques, namely head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust, can effectively alleviate airway blockage caused by weak pharyngeal muscles.
Airway Management Devices and Techniques
Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.
The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.
It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities
Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He has noticed difficulty in trying to get up out of a chair. There is a past history of obstructive airways disease and a 35-pack-year cigarette history. On examination, you notice that he has marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle and decreased tendon reflexes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
You suspect that he may have an underlying malignancy with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes: Neurological Manifestations in Different Types of Cancer
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neurological manifestation that affects around 6% of cancer patients, particularly those with bronchial and ovarian tumors. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, impotence, and peripheral neuropathy. The cause of Lambert-Eaton is unknown, but it may be due to anti-tumor antibodies that cross-react with calcium channels involved in neuromuscular function. Resection of the primary tumor or use of immunosuppressive agents may lead to an improvement in symptoms for some patients.
In contrast, neurological manifestations are rare in colorectal carcinoma, with only a few case reports of patients presenting with neurological symptoms as a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to colorectal carcinoma. Bronchial carcinoid is more likely to cause endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Cushing’s syndrome. Renal cell carcinoma is also more likely to cause an endocrine picture rather than neurological manifestations. Similarly, pancreatic tumors are more commonly associated with endocrinological manifestations than neurological presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no sexual activity. This is his fourth presentation for balanitis in the last year, and he has tested negative for sexually transmitted infections and bacterial infections on each occasion. He has been successfully managed with saline baths and topical clotrimazole. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.
After treating this acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Prophylactic oral fluconazole
Correct Answer: Refer for circumcision
Explanation:Circumcision is recommended for patients with recurrent balanitis.
Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, and opportunistic fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes is likely the underlying cause of the fungal infection. Acute infections are typically treated with saline baths and addressing the root cause. Topical treatments are also recommended, depending on the cause of the infection. However, for patients with recurrent balanitis, circumcision is the most appropriate course of action to prevent future occurrences.
Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.
Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia
Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.
Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.
On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of testicular pain. He reports experiencing pain in his right testicle, accompanied by swelling that has developed throughout the day. He also mentions feeling unwell and slightly nauseous.
During the examination, the right testicle is observed to be swollen and red. It is sensitive to touch, especially on the top of the testicle, but the pain subsides when the testicle is lifted.
What is the most suitable course of action to take at this point?Your Answer: Urgent referral to urology for surgical intervention
Correct Answer: Single dose ceftriaxone and 10-14 days of doxycycline
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis with an unknown organism is a single dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and a 10-14 day course of oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with epididymo-orchitis, which is usually caused by sexually transmitted infections in younger individuals and urinary tract infections in older individuals. The positive Prehn’s sign and localisation of pain to the top of the testicle suggest epididymo-orchitis rather than an alternative diagnosis. Swabs may be taken later to determine the causative organism and adjust treatment accordingly.
A 10-day course of oral levofloxacin is not appropriate for epididymo-orchitis of an unknown organism, as it is not the correct antibiotic for sexually transmitted pathogens. Referral for an ultrasound scan (2 week wait) is also not necessary, as testicular cancer usually presents as a painless lump and would not present acutely. A single dose of doxycycline and 10-14 days of ceftriaxone is also incorrect, as the correct treatment is a single dose of ceftriaxone and a 10-14 day course of doxycycline.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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