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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is having a right hemicolectomy and the ileo-colic artery is being ligated. What vessel does this artery originate from?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The right colon and terminal ileum are supplied by the ileocolic artery, which is a branch of the SMA. Meanwhile, the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. During cancer resections, it is common practice to perform high ligation as veins and lymphatics also run alongside the arteries in the mesentery. The ileocolic artery originates from the SMA close to the duodenum.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She is provided with a pregnancy test, which indicates a positive result. From which part of her body would the beta-hCG, detected on the pregnancy test, have been secreted?
Your Answer: The corpus luteum
Correct Answer: The placenta
Explanation:During pregnancy, the placenta produces beta-hCG, which helps to sustain the corpus luteum. This, in turn, continues to secrete progesterone and estrogen throughout the pregnancy to maintain the endometrial lining. Eventually, after 6 weeks of gestation, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone.
Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.
Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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After an oesophagogastrectomy, the surgeons will connect the remaining oesophagus to the stomach. Which layer is not included in the composition of the oesophageal wall?
Your Answer: Adventitia
Correct Answer: Serosa
Explanation:Due to the absence of a serosa layer, the oesophageal wall may not provide a strong grip for sutures.
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhoea after consuming undercooked meat at a family gathering. She has no significant medical history and is typically healthy.
Her ABG results are as follows:
Reference Range
pH 7.48 7.35-7.45
pCO2 6.1kPa 4.5-6.0kPa
pO2 10.2kPa 10-13kPa
Cl 100mmol/L 95-105mmol/L
Na 142mmol/L 135-145mmol/L
K 3.2mmol/L 3.5-5 mmol/L
HCO3 30mEq/L 22-26mEq/L
What is the probable cause of her ABG findings?Your Answer: Acute kidney injury
Correct Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:The correct answer is vomiting, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis through the loss of stomach acids. This is supported by the ABG showing an alkalosis with high HCO3 and low potassium, likely due to bacterial gastroenteritis from undercooked meat. Acute kidney injury, diarrhoea, and laxative abuse are incorrect as they would cause metabolic acidosis, and the ABG shows an alkalosis.
Understanding Metabolic Alkalosis and Its Causes
Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate in the body. This condition is mainly caused by problems in the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Some of the common causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretics, liquorice, carbenoxolone, primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome, and Bartter’s syndrome.
The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis is primarily due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system. This system is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for hydrogen ions in the distal convoluted tubule. When there is a loss of sodium and chloride ions due to vomiting or diuretics, the RAA system is activated, leading to an increase in aldosterone levels.
In cases of hypokalaemia, where there is a shift of potassium ions from cells to the extracellular fluid, alkalosis occurs due to the shift of hydrogen ions into cells to maintain neutrality. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematous eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral numbness in his hands and feet, along with a feeling of muscle weakness that has been progressively worsening for the past 15 months. The man admits to avoiding hospitals and his GP, and has not reported these symptoms to anyone else. Upon examination, reduced bicep reflexes are noted bilaterally. Nerve conduction studies reveal evidence of peripheral nerve demyelination. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Explanation:Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a condition where the inflammation and infiltration of the endoneurium with inflammatory T cells are thought to be caused by antibodies. This results in the demyelination of peripheral nerves in a segmental manner.
CIDP is characterized by generalized symptoms and chronicity, and nerve conduction tests can reveal demyelination of the nerves. Guillain Barré syndrome (GBS) is an incorrect answer as it is more acute and often triggered by prior infection, particularly Campylobacter gastrointestinal infection. Diabetic neuropathy is also an incorrect answer as it typically presents as a focal peripheral neuropathy with sensory impairment. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is another incorrect answer as it involves the central nervous system and can present with additional signs/symptoms such as visual impairment and muscle stiffness. MS is diagnosed using an MRI scan and checking for oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Understanding Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by antibody-mediated inflammation resulting in segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves. This condition is more common in males than females and shares similar features with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS), with motor symptoms being predominant. However, CIDP has a more insidious onset, occurring over weeks to months, and is often considered the chronic version of GBS.
One of the distinguishing features of CIDP is the high protein content found in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment for CIDP may involve the use of steroids and immunosuppressants, which is different from GBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are examining the findings of a study on a new arthritis medication that evaluates the participants' joint pain levels before and 8 weeks after starting the treatment. The objective is to determine which group had the highest number of participants with reduced joint pain levels by comparing the results to a placebo. There were 80 participants taking the new medication, and 30 of them experienced a decrease in joint pain levels. In the placebo group, there were 120 participants, and 25 of them had a reduction in joint pain levels.
What is the odds ratio for this arthritis study?Your Answer: 1.66
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his doctor and requests a change in medication due to coughing caused by his ACE-inhibitor for hypertension. He is switched to losartan, an angiotensin-II receptor blocker. Losartan's pharmacological activity is mainly due to an active metabolite that binds to an allosteric site on the AT1 receptor, causing a conformational change that reduces the ability of angiotensin-II to bind and activate it.
What is the type of antagonism exhibited by losartan?Your Answer: Competitive antagonism
Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonism
Explanation:A non-competitive antagonist functions by binding to an allosteric site on the receptor, which induces a change in the active binding site where an agonist would typically bind. In contrast, a competitive antagonist binds to the same site as the endogenous ligand, but does not activate the receptor. An uncompetitive antagonist is similar to a non-competitive antagonist, but requires receptor activation before binding to the allosteric site. A partial agonist binds to the active site of a receptor, but produces a weaker effect than the endogenous ligand. Finally, an inverse agonist binds to the same site as an agonist, but produces the opposite pharmacological effect.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is undergoing evaluation for persistent proteinuria. He has a medical history of relapsed multiple myeloma. A renal biopsy is performed, and the Congo red stain with light microscopy shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillary components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures is situated between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve that runs in its groove between the two heads is the radial nerve. The ulnar nerve is positioned anterior to the medial head, while the axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space located above the lateral head of the triceps muscle. As a result, the lateral border of the quadrangular space is the humerus.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of heart failure presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. During the history-taking process, it is revealed that she takes ramipril and paracetamol regularly, but her cardiologist prescribed a new medication a week ago. She is unsure of the name of the medication but describes it as a 'water pill'. An electrocardiogram is performed, which shows abnormal tall T waves. What is the name of the 'water pill' that was recently prescribed?
Your Answer: Mannitol (osmotic diuretic)
Correct Answer: Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic)
Explanation:Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man visits a GUM clinic due to painful swelling of lymph nodes in his groin. He has no medical history and is not taking any medications. He admits to having unprotected sex with a casual partner. The diagnosis is LGV. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1-3
Explanation:Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3. It presents with three stages, starting with a painless pustule and progressing to painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, and later, proctocolitis may develop. The causative organism is not Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D-K, Treponema pallidum, or Herpes simplex virus.
Understanding Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. This infection is commonly found in men who have sex with men and those who have HIV. While historically it was more prevalent in tropical regions, it is now seen in developed countries as well.
The infection typically progresses through three stages. The first stage involves a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. In the second stage, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy occurs, which may occasionally form fistulating buboes. The third stage involves proctocolitis.
LGV is treated using doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are a senior doctor working on the geriatric ward. One afternoon, you are notified that the radiology department has implemented a new imaging technology for detecting bone fractures. This technology has enhanced accuracy, but the precision remains unchanged from the previous method.
What implications does this have for future reports of bone fractures on imaging scans?Your Answer: The results will now be subject to less variability
Correct Answer: The results are now more likely to be close to the true value
Explanation:In statistics, reliability refers to the consistency of a measure, while validity measures the accuracy of reported results in relation to the true value. Validity ensures that reported results are more likely to be close to the correct answer, reducing the likelihood of skewed data. However, validity does not affect a test’s level of bias. Reliability, on the other hand, measures the consistency of measurements produced by a test, ensuring that they are all within a small range of each other when measuring the same sample multiple times.
Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics
Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.
It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.
In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis. He has a history of recurrent chest infections since childhood and has difficulty maintaining a healthy weight. Despite using inhalers, he has not experienced any significant improvement. Genetic testing has been ordered to investigate the possibility of cystic fibrosis.
What is the typical role of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator?Your Answer: Signalling molecule
Correct Answer: Chloride channel
Explanation:The chloride channel, specifically a cyclic-AMP regulated chloride channel, is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis can be caused by various mutations, but they all affect the same gene, the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene. This gene encodes a chloride channel that, when dysfunctional, results in increased viscosity of secretions and the development of cystic fibrosis.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.
Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of swelling and heaviness in her right leg. She is concerned about the appearance of her leg and attributes the worsening of the heaviness to her job as a security officer, which requires her to stand for extended periods. The patient's height is 160 centimetres, and her weight is 85 kilograms. During the examination, the doctor observes spidery swellings on the inside of her thigh that extend to the back of her leg. Palpation reveals mild tenderness. The doctor has ordered a duplex ultrasound for further assessment and advised the patient to wear graduated compression stockings. What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Incompetency of superficial venous valves
Explanation:Varicose veins occur when the valves in the superficial veins become incompetent, leading to dilated and twisted veins. Risk factors include aging, prolonged standing, and obesity. Symptoms may include pain, itching, and cosmetic concerns, and severe cases can lead to complications such as ulcers and bleeding. Diagnosis is confirmed by duplex ultrasound, and treatment includes lifestyle modifications and compression stockings. Heart failure, deep venous valve incompetency, and leg skin infection are not causes of varicose veins.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis. She had a history of rheumatic fever during childhood.
Which of the following clinical signs is not typically reported in this condition?Your Answer: Roth spots
Correct Answer: Spider naevi
Explanation:Symptoms of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is a condition that typically manifests after a prolonged period of feeling unwell. The symptoms of this condition are varied and can include Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, petechiae, finger clubbing, and microscopic hematuria. Finger clubbing is also a symptom of other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital cardiac disease and atrial myxoma.
Janeway lesions are painless, small, red spots that appear on the palms and soles of the feet. Osler nodes are painful, red nodules that appear on the fingers and toes. Roth spots are small, white spots that appear on the retina of the eye. Splinter hemorrhages are small, red or brown lines that appear under the nails. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots that appear on the skin. Finger clubbing is a condition in which the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. Microscopic hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine that can only be detected under a microscope.
In conclusion, subacute bacterial endocarditis can present with a range of symptoms that can be easily confused with other cardiac conditions. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, especially if they persist or worsen over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman visits her doctor with a medical history of myocardial infarction that has resulted in permanent damage to the conduction system of her heart. The damage has affected the part of the conduction system with the highest velocities, causing desynchronisation of the ventricles.
What is the part of the heart that conducts the fastest?Your Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The Purkinje fibres have the highest conduction velocities in the heart’s electrical conduction system. The process starts with the SA node generating spontaneous action potentials, which are then conducted across both atria through cell to cell conduction at a speed of approximately 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node, which has a slow conduction speed of 0.05ms to allow for complete atrial contraction and ventricular filling. The action potentials are then conducted through the Bundle of His, which splits into the left and right bundle branches, with a conduction speed of approximately 2m/s. Finally, the action potential reaches the Purkinje fibres, which are specialized conducting cells that allow for a faster conduction speed of 2-4m/s. This fast conduction speed is crucial for a synchronized and efficient contraction of the ventricle, generating pressure during systole.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 76-year-old male comes for his yearly checkup with the heart failure nurses. What is the leading cause of heart failure?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:The leading cause of heart failure in the western world is ischaemic heart disease, followed by high blood pressure, cardiomyopathies, arrhythmias, and heart valve issues. While COPD can be linked to cor pulmonale, which is a type of right heart failure, it is still not as prevalent as ischaemic heart disease as a cause. This information is based on a population-based study titled Incidence and Aetiology of Heart Failure published in the European Heart Journal in 1999.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman injures her sympathetic trunk and experiences Horner's syndrome. When sympathetic pathways are damaged, Horner's syndrome can occur. Which receptors are associated with her symptoms?
Your Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors to skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors of sudomotor neurons to the sweat gland
Explanation:Acetylcholine is exclusively present in the postganglionic sympathetic fibers that lead to sweat glands.
Although muscarinic receptors can be activated by the vagus nerve to the heart, this is a component of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the salivary glands and the eye are both instances of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system.
The neuromuscular junction employs nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, but this is not a part of the sympathetic nervous system.
Acetylcholine (ACh) is a crucial neurotransmitter in the somatic nervous system and plays a significant role in the autonomic nervous system. It is the primary neurotransmitter in all pre- and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons, all preganglionic sympathetic neurons, and postganglionic sympathetic fibers, including sudomotor neurons that regulate sweat glands. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. In conditions such as myasthenia gravis, where there is a deficiency of functioning acetylcholine receptors, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used.
In the central nervous system, acetylcholine is synthesized in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with decreased levels of acetylcholine in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Therefore, acetylcholine plays a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system, and its deficiency can lead to various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient is seeking treatment for their heart failure at the cardiology outpatient clinic. The medical team has decided to prescribe a medication that will enhance their heart rate and strength.
Which adrenoceptor class should be the focus of the treatment?Your Answer: Beta 2
Correct Answer: Beta 1
Explanation:Beta 1 adrenoceptors are responsible for increasing both heart rate and force, while alpha 1 adrenoceptors cause salivary secretion and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Alpha 2 adrenoceptors are located presynaptically and work to inhibit neurotransmitter release. Beta 2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are responsible for relaxing smooth muscle in the respiratory tree, GI tract, and vasculature.
Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.
Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.
Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.
All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.
In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is 7-days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. In which part of the uterus does this typically occur?
Your Answer: Around the uterine cornu
Correct Answer: Anterior or superior walls
Explanation:For the embryo to grow and receive nutrients and oxygen from the mother, implantation is necessary. The menstrual cycle prepares the uterus for implantation by increasing its thickness, glandular activity, and vascularization during the secretory phase. Additionally, the endometrium develops a new layer called the decidual layer, which undergoes changes during pregnancy known as decidualization.
Implantation typically occurs on the anterior or superior walls of the uterus, where the blastocyst attaches and begins the rest of the pregnancy. The process of implantation can be divided into four stages: hatching, apposition, adhesion, and invasion. During hatching, the blastocyst must break out of its zona pellucida. Apposition occurs when the trophoblasts come into contact with the decidua on the endometrium, with the inner cell mass aligned. Adhesion involves molecular communication between the trophoblasts and endometrial cells. Finally, invasion occurs as the trophoblasts penetrate the endometrium.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Correct
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose veins. During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the site of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and her legs are raised to empty the veins. A constricting band is then placed below the sapheno-femoral junction, and the patient is asked to stand up to observe for varicose vein filling. What is the name of this test?
Your Answer: Tourniquet test
Explanation:Tests for Varicose Veins and Arterial Insufficiency
The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction. If the veins fill rapidly upon standing, it suggests that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence.
Buerger’s test is used to assess the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The lower the angle at which blanching occurs, the more likely there is arterial insufficiency. This test is important in diagnosing peripheral artery disease.
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is another test used to assess arterial insufficiency. Blood pressure cuffs are used to measure the systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm. The ratio of the two pressures is calculated, and a lower ratio indicates a higher degree of claudication.
Finally, Perthe’s test is used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein before varicose vein surgery. This test involves compressing the vein and observing the filling of the superficial veins. If the superficial veins fill quickly, it suggests that the deep femoral vein is patent and can be used for surgery.
In summary, these tests are important in diagnosing and evaluating varicose veins and arterial insufficiency. They help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood. He had been out drinking heavily with friends and had vomited multiple times, with the last episode containing a significant amount of blood.
Upon examination, the patient appeared intoxicated and had a pulse of 96 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/74 mmHg. Abdominal examination revealed no abnormalities.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alcoholic gastritis
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:Mallory Weiss Tear and Alcoholic Gastritis
Repeated episodes of vomiting due to alcohol consumption can lead to a Mallory Weiss tear, which is a mucosal tear in the esophagus. This tear can cause hematemesis, which is vomiting of blood. This is a common occurrence in habitual drinkers who suffer from alcoholic gastritis. Along with upper abdominal pain, this condition can cause a rise in esophageal pressures, leading to mucosal tears. However, most patients only lose small amounts of blood, and symptoms can often be resolved with minimal intervention. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male was diagnosed with gout six months ago. Since then, he has had two episodes. The last episode was three weeks back. He was treated with indomethacin during each episode. Today, he has no symptoms. Hypertension was diagnosed four years ago, which is well-controlled with a thiazide. He also takes pantoprazole occasionally for acid reflux.
What should be taken into consideration for this patient?Your Answer: Stop pantoprazole
Correct Answer: Stop thiazide
Explanation:Patients with gout should be evaluated for the discontinuation of precipitating drugs, such as thiazides. In cases where hypertension is also present, losartan may be a suitable alternative due to its uricosuric action. During acute management of gout, medications such as colchicine, indomethacin, and steroids may be prescribed. However, since this patient has been symptom-free for three weeks, these medications are not currently necessary. The occasional use of pantoprazole does not require cessation.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with confused speech and weakness on the right side. During the examination, you observe weakness in the right upper limb, but no sensory loss. The patient appears perplexed when answering questions, and her speech is incoherent and nonsensical. What region of the brain is responsible for receptive dysphasia?
Your Answer: Broca's area
Correct Answer: Wernicke's area
Explanation:Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye pain, a red eye, and a mid-dilated fixed pupil on the right side. The on-call ophthalmologist suspects acute angle closure glaucoma and prescribes several medications, including pilocarpine, to reduce intraocular pressure.
What is the mechanism of action of pilocarpine?Your Answer: Muscarinic antagonist
Correct Answer: Muscarinic agonist
Explanation:A muscarinic agonist, pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, which are categorized into 5 subtypes (M1-M5) and are G-protein coupled receptors.
Drugs Acting on Common Receptors
The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.
For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.
Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.
Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is undergoing investigation for small intestine cancer due to his history of Crohn's disease. An adenocarcinoma of his duodenum is detected through endoscopy and histology. The oncologist is now examining his previous abdominal CT scan to determine if there is any nodal involvement.
Which group of lymph nodes could potentially be affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric lymph nodes
Explanation:The superior mesenteric lymph nodes are responsible for draining the duodenum, which is the second section of the gastrointestinal system. This lymphatic drainage is important for staging gastrointestinal cancers, and is similar to the blood supply of the gut. While the coeliac lymph nodes drain the first part of the gastrointestinal system, the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the third part, and the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the lower part of the rectum and some of the anal canal. The para-aortic lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the gastrointestinal system, but instead drain the genito-urinary system. It is important to understand the correct lymphatic drainage patterns for accurate cancer staging.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has been prescribed amiodarone. She has been advised to take higher doses initially and then switch to a lower maintenance dose for long-term use.
What is the rationale behind this initial dosing regimen?Your Answer: Extensive hepatic P450 breakdown of amiodarone
Correct Answer: Slow metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive lipid binding
Explanation:A loading dose is necessary for amiodarone to achieve therapeutic levels quickly before transitioning to a maintenance dose. This is because a 50mg once daily maintenance dose would take a long time to reach the required 1000mg for therapeutic effect. The fast metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive protein binding, extensive hepatic P450 breakdown, and slow absorption via the enteral route are not the reasons for a loading regime.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP for a routine hypertension check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, osteoarthritis, rheumatic fever and COPD.
During the physical examination, the GP hears a mid-late diastolic murmur that intensifies during expiration. The GP suspects that the patient may have mitral stenosis.
What is the primary cause of this abnormality?Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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