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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer: Faecal fat estimation

      Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is an indication for circumcision? ...

    Correct

    • What is an indication for circumcision?

      Your Answer: Pathological phimosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Paediatric Circumcision

      There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.

      Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.

      In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.

      She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.

      You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Two weeks

      Correct Answer: Six weeks

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Depression

      This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.

      According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 500 L/min. What is the indication of acute severe asthma in this patient?

      Your Answer: Heart rate 115/min

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 105/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document, as questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.

      It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, it is a marker of an acute severe attack.

      For example, a peak flow rate of 400 L/min in a patient with a personal best of 500 L/min equates to 80% of their best and would not be considered a marker of an acute severe attack. However, a pulse of 115 would be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater.

      If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that her pants are now frequently soiled with loose, smelly stools and this is why she has brought her in. She is otherwise well and has a normal development history.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer: Polyethylene glycol '3350' + electrolytes (Movicol©)

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence

      Idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of macrogols (polyethylene glycol ‘3350’ + electrolytes; Movicol©) with an escalating dose regimen, adjusting the dose according to the response. Adequate fluid and fibre are necessary but should not be used alone as the only treatment. Rectal suppositories and sodium citrate enemas are suggested as options only if oral treatment fails. If this fails, phosphate enemas in hospital are recommended. A stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the macrogols if the latter do not lead to disimpaction after two weeks. A stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative or a stool softener should be used if macrogols are not tolerated. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s condition and response to treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all previous immunisations according to the routine schedule and has no medical history. What vaccinations should he receive during this visit?

      Your Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + Men B

      Explanation:

      PCV in addition to the 6-1 vaccine (which includes protection against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B).

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test...

    Correct

    • A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively. What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?

      Your Answer: 0.235

      Explanation:
      • Sensitivity (Sens): The probability that the test is positive given that the disease is present. In this case, it is 80% or 0.80.
      • Specificity (Spec): The probability that the test is negative given that the disease is not present. In this case, it is 85% or 0.85.
      • Likelihood Ratio for a Negative Test Result (LR): The ratio of the probability of a negative test result in patients with the disease to the probability of a negative test result in patients without the disease. It is calculated as:

        LR−=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      Calculation

      Using the provided sensitivity and specificity:

      • Sensitivity = 0.80
      • Specificity = 0.85

      Substitute these values into the formula for the negative likelihood ratio:

      LR=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      LR=(1−0.80)/0.85

      LR=0.20/0.85

       

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.

      His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic renal failure. He is on dialysis and is anaemic, with a haemoglobin concentration of 85 mg/l (normal range: 130–180 mg/l). He is being considered for erythropoietin therapy.
      What is the most important consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin may experience a rise in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: The Effects of Erythropoietin on Blood Pressure, Sexual Function, Cognitive Function, Exercise Tolerance, and Quality of Life in Dialysis Patients

      Contrary to popular belief, erythropoietin doesn’t always lead to a rise in blood pressure. While up to 30% of patients may experience this side effect, it is not a universal occurrence. Additionally, erythropoietin has been shown to improve sexual function, cognitive function, and exercise tolerance in dialysis patients with renal anaemia. Furthermore, contrary to another misconception, erythropoietin has been demonstrated to improve quality-of-life scores in these patients. It is important to monitor blood pressure, haemoglobin, and reticulocyte count during treatment, but erythropoietin can have positive effects on various aspects of patients’ lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      175.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?

      Your Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Causes and Treatment of Halitosis

      Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.

      Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.

      In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      1806.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Explanation:

      Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options

      When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at...

    Correct

    • Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. As a first-time pregnant individual, she is worried about the potential impact of a surgical abortion on her future fertility. What advice should be given to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: No evidence of impact on future fertility

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that their future fertility is not impacted by the abortion and there is no association with placenta praevia, ectopic pregnancy, stillborn or miscarriage. However, they should also be made aware of the potential complications that may arise from the procedure. These include severe bleeding, uterine perforation (surgical abortion only), and cervical trauma (surgical abortion only). The risks of these complications are lower for early abortions and those performed by experienced clinicians. In the event that one of these complications occurs, further treatment such as blood transfusion, laparoscopy or laparotomy may be required. Additionally, infection may occur after medical or surgical abortion, but this risk can be reduced through prophylactic antibiotic use and bacterial screening for lower genital tract infection.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and muscle weakness for the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a healthy weight. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be consistently high at 160/95 mmHg. However, there are no other significant findings on physical examination. Her blood sugar levels are normal, but her potassium levels are low at 3.4 mmol/L. The GP suspects primary hyperaldosteronism and plans to refer the patient to secondary care. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this case?

      Your Answer: Short synacthen test

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for suspected primary hyperaldosteronism is a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. A CT abdomen may be used to detect an adrenal adenoma, but it is not the first-line investigation. A dexamethasone suppression test is primarily used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome by observing cortisol level responses after dexamethasone injection. A short synacthen test is utilized to identify hypoadrenalism, such as Addison’s disease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with...

    Correct

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with diarrhoea and vomiting, along with reduced oral intake. In the past day, she has experienced increased thirst and urination. Her capillary blood glucose level is 19 mmol/L, and her blood ketones are 3.6 mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can affect both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes patients. It is identified by blood ketone levels of ≥3 mmol/L (or urine ketones of ++ or greater) in individuals with a blood glucose level of ≥11 mmol/L or a known history of diabetes. It is important to check ketones in all diabetic patients who are unwell and admit them to the hospital if their ketone levels are ≥3 mmol/L. Blood ketones are preferred over urine ketones as they provide a more accurate representation of the true blood ketone level. Patients should never discontinue their insulin treatment, even if they are unwell and eating less. During intercurrent illness, they may require higher insulin doses and should have a ‘sick day’ management plan from their diabetes team.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from...

    Correct

    • What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from his patient list if they are currently experiencing symptoms of eczema?

      Your Answer: Point prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epidemiological Measures: Point Prevalence, Incidence Rate, Cumulative Incidence, Incidence Proportion, and Period Prevalence

      Epidemiological measures are essential in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population. Among the commonly used measures are point prevalence, incidence rate, cumulative incidence, incidence proportion, and period prevalence.

      Point prevalence refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease at a specific time point. For instance, a doctor may send a questionnaire to determine the number of people suffering from a disease at a particular time, and the data collected can be used to determine the point prevalence.

      Incidence rate, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which a new event occurs over a specified period. For example, the number of new cases of a disease in a population over a year.

      Cumulative incidence is another term for incidence proportion, which refers to the number of new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Incidence proportion is similar to cumulative incidence, but it only considers new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Period prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease during a given time period.

      Understanding these epidemiological measures is crucial in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population, which can help in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However,...

    Correct

    • Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However, she is concerned about the impact it may have on her skin as she has an important event coming up soon. What is a typical skin-related adverse effect of Microgynon 30?

      Your Answer: Melasma

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pills can lead to skin-related side effects that are similar to those observed during pregnancy. The high levels of estrogen in these pills can cause hyperpigmentation, known as melasma, on areas of the skin that are exposed to the sun. This side effect is more common in women who use the pill for longer durations or at higher doses. However, melasma usually disappears after discontinuing the pill or after pregnancy.

      The oral contraceptive pill can also cause vascular effects such as spider naevi, telangiectasia, and angiomas due to high levels of estrogen. Women taking the pill may also experience genital candidiasis (thrush). The progesterone used in the pill can be androgenic, leading to acne vulgaris, hirsutism, greasy hair, and alopecia. However, some progesterones, such as drospirenone (in Yasmin) and desogestrel (in Marvelon), are less androgenic and induce acne less. For effective treatment of acne, the estrogen dose must be sufficient to counteract the androgenic nature of the progesterone used.

      There is no evidence to suggest that taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of eczema, rosacea, or dermatographia. However, the pill may cause erythema nodosum more commonly than erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain that is relieved by vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain that is relieved by vomiting and has noticed some weight loss. He denies anorexia but admits to a fear of food bringing on the pain. On examination, he is tender in the epigastrium with no palpable masses. He also reports having dark stools, but attributes it to his love for red wine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gastric Ulcers and Their Symptoms

      Gastric ulcers are a common condition that can cause a range of symptoms. One of the most typical symptoms is abdominal pain, which can be described as a burning or gnawing sensation. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite.

      It’s important to note that the symptoms of a gastric ulcer can be similar to those of other conditions, such as duodenal ulcers, gallstones, gastric carcinoma, and hiatus hernia. However, there are some key differences to look out for.

      In duodenal ulcers, for example, the pain is usually delayed after eating and can be relieved by food. Gallstones, on the other hand, typically cause pain in the right upper quadrant and do not usually result in melaena (dark, tarry stools).

      Gastric carcinoma should be considered in anyone with abdominal pain and weight loss, but gastric ulcer is more likely in younger patients without anorexia. Hiatus hernia, meanwhile, is often associated with heartburn and reflux.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of a gastric ulcer, it’s important to seek medical attention. Your doctor can perform tests to determine the cause of your symptoms and recommend appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.4
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.

      The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: Agree to arrange home oxygen but warn of the risk of fire or explosion

      Correct Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker

      Explanation:

      What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?

      In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.

      Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.

      As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She was born at 39/40 without any complications and is growing along the 50th centile. The mother is concerned as the baby frequently spits up small amounts of milk after being fed, which is accompanied by crying and discomfort. However, the baby settles down after a few minutes. The baby is having wet and full nappies, and the vomit is milk-colored. The baby is formula-fed approximately 4 ounces, 7 times a day.

      What is the recommended first-line advice or treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise the mum that his symptoms should settle without treatment over the next 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Reduce his feeds to 150ml/kg per day (in total) and give them more frequently and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for formula-fed infants with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is to reduce their daily milk intake to 150ml/kg and offer more frequent, smaller feeds. This should be tried for 2 weeks, and if the baby is still experiencing discomfort, milk thickeners can be offered for 1-2 weeks. If this is not successful, a trial of alginate therapy should be attempted for 1-2 weeks. If this also fails, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor antagonist can be prescribed. Breastfed infants should first try a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      88.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as they are considered outside the scope of their work?

      Your Answer: Firearms certificate

      Correct Answer: Unfit for jury form

      Explanation:

      GP Fees and Services

      Doctors offer a range of services that may come with fees. While most medical reports fall outside of a GP’s contract, the British Medical Association (BMA) provides guidance on reasonable fees for such work. However, there are certain certificates and services that GPs cannot charge for, including death certificates, stillbirth certificates, and notification of infectious diseases. Additionally, GPs cannot charge for providing evidence of bankruptcy, establishing patients unfit for jury service, and giving professional evidence in court. For more information on GP fees and services, refer to the BMA’s guidelines and the UK government’s Notification of Deaths Regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      25.2
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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine blood tests, abnormal liver function is detected, prompting a hepatitis screening. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for Anti-HBs
      - Negative for Anti-HBc
      - Positive for Anti-HCV

      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient has cleared the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients are able to clear the infection on their own. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and typically indicates acute disease lasting 1-6 months. If HBsAg is present for more than 6 months, it suggests chronic disease and infectivity. The presence of anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination, and is not present in chronic disease. Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasting for approximately 6 months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and appears as a result of the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      82.9
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  • Question 26 - What is the correct order of relative potency, from least to most potent,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct order of relative potency, from least to most potent, for these opioid analgesics, considering that diamorphine is typically administered parenterally while the others are usually given orally?

      Your Answer: Codeine, oxycodone, diamorphine, morphine

      Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potencies of Opioid Analgesics

      It is crucial to have a good understanding of the relative potencies of opioid analgesics as patients may need to switch from one opioid to another or from one route of administration to another.

      Codeine is the weakest opioid on the list and is often prescribed alone or in combination with paracetamol in co-codamol preparations.

      Oxycodone is twice as potent as oral morphine salts for the same dose. When converting between the two, the dose of oral morphine needs to be halved to provide the equivalent dose of oxycodone.

      Diamorphine is the most potent opioid listed and is typically administered subcutaneously to palliate terminal symptoms. To convert from oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oral morphine dose should be divided by 3 to give an approximate equivalent 24-hour dose of diamorphine. To convert from oral oxycodone to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oxycodone dose should be divided by 1.5. For example, oxycodone 7.5 mg equals 5 mg diamorphine.

      Understanding the potencies of opioid analgesics is essential for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective pain management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      63.5
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall. He reports that he noticed it about four weeks ago and it has grown in size so he has come to get it checked. It is not causing the patient any symptoms.

      On examination there is a pigmented lesion which is 5 mm in diameter. It is two-tone with a dark brown portion and an almost black portion. The lesion has an irregular notched border and is asymmetrical.

      You are unsure of the diagnosis.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a dermatologist as a suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      The ABCDEF checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, particularly for identifying potential melanomas. The checklist includes six criteria: asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, dark or diameter greater than 6 mm, evolutionary change, and funny looking.

      Asymmetry refers to a lack of mirror image in any of the quadrants when the lesion is divided into four quadrants. Irregular border and irregular colour are self-explanatory, with irregular colour indicating at least two different colours in the lesion and lack of even pigmentation throughout the lesion being particularly suspicious. Dark or diameter greater than 6 mm refers to the size and colour of the lesion, with blue or black colour being particularly concerning. Evolutionary change refers to changes in size, colour, shape, or elevation.

      The presence of any one of these criteria should raise suspicion of melanoma and prompt urgent referral to a dermatologist. Additionally, the funny looking criterion, also known as the ugly duckling sign, should be considered. This refers to a mole that appears different from the rest, even if ABCD and E criteria are absent.

      Overall, the ABCDEF checklist is a valuable tool for identifying potentially cancerous pigmented lesions and ensuring prompt referral for specialist assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment...

    Correct

    • A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment has a success rate of 75% whilst the second treatment has a success rate of 82%. What type of significance test should be used for comparing the two results?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is appropriate for comparing percentages.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 7-year-old boy is seen with a markedly painful left leg. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen with a markedly painful left leg. He is holding it immobile and is reluctant to walk. His parents report that over the last 48 hours he has not been himself, the pain in the leg has become more prominent and the child has had a temperature.

      On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9°C and there is a slight swelling with extreme tenderness over the proximal left tibia. The area is warm to touch and any movement of the child's leg cause severe pain. The knee joint itself appears normal with no effusion; and the hip and ankle joints also appear normal.

      What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis in Children

      Osteomyelitis is a common infection in children that affects the metaphysis of long bones, particularly the proximal tibia and distal femur. The condition presents with a painful, pseudoparetic limb associated with an acute febrile illness. Swelling, extreme tenderness, and warmth to the touch can be observed at the site of the infection, with visible erythema. Movement of the affected limb causes marked pain. In infants, the onset can be more insidious.

      This 6-year-old child has a typical presentation of osteomyelitis, with no history of injury and the presence of fever and recent onset pointing towards an acute infective aetiology. Tibial fracture would be unlikely in this age group. The normal clinical examination of the knee, hip, and ankle joints rules out septic arthritis. Although juvenile idiopathic arthritis (or Juvenile chronic arthritis) can cause an acute febrile illness, it typically causes arthritis and a characteristic salmon-pink rash, which is not reported in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer has recently started taking oral opiates...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer has recently started taking oral opiates for pain relief. On the previous day, she took modified-release morphine 20 mg 12-hourly and required four 5 mg rescue doses of immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. She had been advised that she could take the rescue doses every 2-4 hours, if necessary.
      What is the most suitable analgesic regimen for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine 30 mg twice daily plus immediate-release morphine 10 mg 2-4 hourly as required

      Explanation:

      Regular review of pain management is crucial in palliative care patients, especially if rescue analgesia is needed frequently. Each patient should be assessed individually, taking into account factors such as pain relief efficacy, adverse effects, and patient preference. For opioid-naïve patients, a safe starting dose of morphine is between 20-30 mg daily, while patients switching from a regular weak opioid can start with 40-60 mg daily. The dose can be given as an immediate-release preparation every four hours or as a modified-release preparation every 12 hours, with additional rescue doses for breakthrough pain. Dose adjustments should be made based on the number of rescue doses required and the patient’s response to them, with increases not exceeding one-third to one-half of the total daily dose every 24 hours. Adjuvant analgesics can also be considered during dose titration. Oxycodone can be used as an alternative to morphine for patients who cannot tolerate it, with a conversion rate of 6.6mg orally to 10 mg of oral morphine. Subcutaneous infusion may be necessary if swallowing is an issue. The equivalent dose of morphine is about half the daily oral requirement, and for diamorphine, one third. A ceiling of morphine immediate-release 30 mg every four hours (or modified-release 100 mg every 12 hours) is usually sufficient for most patients, although higher doses may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (2/2) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed