-
Question 1
Correct
-
With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is true?
Your Answer: Anaemia will reduce oxygen delivery
Explanation:Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
1) Content of oxygen in blood
2) Cardiac outputOxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))
Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)
Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2
Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
Normally 1000ml/minOxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
Normally 250 ml/minOxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
Normally approximately 25% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation. On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are: Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic. Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min, Pulse: 120 beats/min, Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg, SPO2: 95% on air. Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases. What is the next most important step of investigation?
Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate
Explanation:Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.
Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR
PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.
Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:
Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
Heart rate: >110 beats/min
PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:
If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
Possible life threatening asthma
Possible consolidation
Unresponsive asthma
If ventilation is required.An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case
Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient's presentation.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart. How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?
Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?
Your Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus
Explanation:Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.
It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.
It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.
It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.
Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?
Your Answer: Has 10% of the antidiuretic activity of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle
Explanation:Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.
Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.
It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.
The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.
It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?
Your Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction
Explanation:The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:
A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.
C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.
X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.
V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.
Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Dial thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature
Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting. In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?
Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following facts about T cells is true?
Your Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated
Explanation:T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:
Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.
T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.
Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.
T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.
T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens
T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.
Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.
Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.
Your Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy
Explanation:T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.
TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.
T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.
L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks. Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?
Your Answer: Positive inotrope effect
Correct Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation
Explanation:Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (α1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a β1 and β2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
– Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
– Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A fast arrangements inductance is organized. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is ideally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic applied cricoid pressure of 10 N. Acceptance of anaesthesia is at that point carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy shows a review of grade 4. Three endeavours are made at putting a estimate 7 mm ID tracheal tube; two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy edge and bougie. Then one advance attempt is made employing a video laryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is starts to wear off. Oxygen immersion is 95%. Which one of the following treatment option is the another most suitable arrange of action?
Your Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Firstly, always call for an early help. This understanding is at hazard of gastro-oesophageal reflux, the reason a fast arrangement acceptance has been picked for within the first place. The patient isn’t pregnant and the critical surgery isn’t immediate.
The scheme A is to perform a fast arrangement acceptance under ideal conditions and effectively secure the respiratory tract with a tracheal tube.
Whilst no more than three attempts with coordinate laryngoscope (+ 1 endeavour with video laryngoscope) ought to be made to intubate the trachea, the reality is that the suxamethonium is wearing off ought to be borne in mind. One step is to make certain satisfactory neuromuscular blockade at this level, if oxygenation can be kept up by bag-mask ventilation, this might involve the administration of a non-depolarising relaxant. As the surgery isn’t prompt there should be a baseline to stop scheme A at intubation and resort to scheme B.
An elective procedure can be planned at that time.
The first most vital step is to report a failed intubation as this will halt you from continuing to intubate and notify your collaborator that scheme A has failed. Keeping up oxygenation and anaesthesia is additionally critical earlier to the initiation of scheme B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. If there’s collapse of oxygenation and failure to preserve satisfactory ventilation, then insert a supraglottic airway. Plan D takes after the affirmation of a CICO.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?
Your Answer: Diameter of tube
Explanation:Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:
1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
2. Few directional changes
3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminarPoiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?
Your Answer: Pearson's coefficient of linear regression would be an appropriate significance test
Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.
The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.
Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.
The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.
Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl€“ symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication. Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?
Your Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.
Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.
Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.
Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.
A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?
Your Answer: May interfere with pacemaker function
Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second
Explanation:Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).
The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.
A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.
High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).
The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.
The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.
The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
The required sample size in a trial of a new therapeutic agent varies with?
Your Answer: Level of statistical significance required
Explanation:The level of statistical significance required influences the sample size used. This is because sample size is used in the calculation of SD/SE.
Sample size does not affect
The level of acceptance
The alternative hypothesis with a general level set at p<0.05
The test to be used.Experience of the investigator and the type of patient recruited should have no bearing on the required sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)