-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes presents at annual review.
Despite optimisation of his oral hypoglycaemic therapy he has gained approximately 4 kg in weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated.
He is also treated with lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol, but his blood pressure remains difficult to control with a recording of 170/100 mmHg.
On examination, he has developed abdominal striae, thin skin is noticeable with bruising and he also has a proximal weakness. A diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is suspected.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: 24 hour urine free cortisol concentration
Correct Answer: 9 am ACTH concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Appropriate screening tests for Cushing’s syndrome include the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine collection measuring free cortisol in the urine. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is preferred as it has higher sensitivity than urinary collection. This test involves administering 1 mg dexamethasone at 11 pm and measuring cortisol levels at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal. An elevated cortisol level (usually above 250 nmol/day) in a 24-hour urine collection suggests Cushing’s syndrome.
Random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests provide no diagnostic information for Cushing’s syndrome. Chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful in investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment of Cushing’s syndrome can prevent serious complications. Therefore, individuals with symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome should consult a healthcare professional for proper screening and diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a calcium and vitamin D supplement. He expresses concern about potential side effects. What adverse effect has been associated with the use of calcium supplementation?
Your Answer: Increased risk of myocardial infarction
Explanation:An association has been found between calcium supplementation and a higher likelihood of experiencing a heart attack.
Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis: Potential Risks and Recommendations
Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects postmenopausal women, and calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to prevent fractures. However, the 2008 NICE guidelines recommend that clinicians ensure patients have adequate calcium intake and vitamin D levels before prescribing supplements. While it may seem logical to prescribe a combined calcium and vitamin D supplement, recent studies have raised concerns about the potential risks of calcium supplements.
A meta-analysis published in the BMJ in 2010 suggested that calcium supplements may increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease. Although this study was criticized for not considering vitamin D co-prescription, subsequent analyses of this study and two others have confirmed the association. A study published in Heart in 2012 found that patients taking calcium supplements had a significantly increased risk of myocardial infarction compared to those with high calcium intake through dietary means.
Despite these findings, major guideline bodies have not yet provided clear recommendations on how to proceed. For now, it is recommended to encourage patients to aim for a dietary calcium intake of around 1,000mg/day and prescribe a standalone vitamin D supplement (usually 10mcg/day). This approach may help prevent fractures while minimizing potential risks associated with calcium supplementation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes his scrotum looks abnormal and is worried that he has an undescended testicle.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method of diagnosis?Your Answer: Physical examination
Explanation:An undescended testis occurs when a testis is not present in the scrotum. This can be due to various reasons such as testicular maldescent, retractile testes, ascending testis syndrome, or testicular agenesis. To diagnose this condition, physical examination is recommended, and the testes can be categorized as palpable or non-palpable. Magnetic resonance imaging is not necessary as physical examination is cheaper, faster, and more accessible. Parental history may raise concern, but physical examination is still necessary for confirmation. Diagnostic laparoscopy can be used to investigate the underlying cause of undescended testes, but it is not used for diagnosis. Ultrasound scanning is not recommended for routine evaluation as it is not accurate enough to reliably detect or confirm the absence of an impalpable testis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She mentions experiencing blurred vision and that her headaches intensify when she bends forward. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) as her only medication. During fundi examination, papilloedema is suspected. Her prolactin level is mildly elevated at 800 mU/l (normal range: < 400 mU/l). She is also obese. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
IIH is a condition that primarily affects obese young women. It is characterized by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may worsen the condition. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated cerebrospinal fluid pressure, but there is no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. If left untreated, IIH can lead to irreversible optic neuropathy. Treatment options include serial lumbar punctures, prednisolone, thiazide diuretics, acetazolamide, weight loss, and surgical decompression or shunting.Microprolactinoma and Macroprolactinoma
Microprolactinoma is a pituitary tumor that is less than 10 mm in size. It can cause amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and galactorrhea, accompanied by high prolactin levels. Macroprolactinoma, on the other hand, is larger than 10 mm and can cause headaches and visual field defects. Persistent high prolactin levels may indicate a pathological cause and require further investigation.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure. It mainly affects the elderly and is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia. It may be caused by meningitis, head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or a tumor. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia.Superior Sagittal Sinus Thrombosis
Thrombosis of the cerebral veins or venous sinuses can cause cerebral infarction or hemorrhage. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can cause headache, seizures, paralysis, visual disturbances, and neck stiffness. Symptoms are related to the area of thrombosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A rare disease occurs quite randomly in 1 in 10000 of the population. A test has been developed for this disease that has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 99%. A patient who is 50 years old has the test and the result is positive.
Given this positive test, which of the following is the approximate likelihood of this patient having the disease?Your Answer: 0.01
Explanation:Understanding Positive Predictive Value in Disease Testing
Positive predictive value (PPV) is the likelihood that a person who tests positive for a disease truly has the disease. PPV depends on the prevalence of the disease in the population. For rare diseases, like the one in question, the PPV is low. For example, if 1 million people were tested, only about 100 would have the disease and 99 of those would be correctly diagnosed (99% sensitivity). However, about 9999 of the 999,900 people without the disease would falsely test positive (99% specificity). Therefore, the PPV would be approximately 0.0098 or <1%. The likelihood of a randomly selected person having the disease before testing is 0.0001, as the prevalence is 1 in 10,000. Sensitivity and specificity do not determine PPV. A higher prevalence of the disease in the population would result in a higher PPV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Down syndrome
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Intra-articular steroid injection
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally
Explanation:Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain
Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.
Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home and never worked. Over the past few weeks she has become increasingly anxious and begs her mother not to leave her on her own at home. Her mother reveals that her daughter has always needed a lot of reassurance and has never liked being left alone.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:Common Personality and Mental Health Disorders
Dependent Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a person’s inability to make decisions on their own and a constant need for reassurance and support from others.
Borderline Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience intense mood swings, unstable relationships, and may engage in self-harm or have suicidal tendencies.
Conversion Disorder: This disorder involves physical symptoms that mimic a medical condition, but have no underlying medical cause.
Depression: A mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities.
Histrionic Personality Disorder: People with this disorder have a strong desire for attention and may engage in dramatic or seductive behavior to gain approval from others.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to see you to discuss his father’s recent diagnosis of Huntington’s disease. He is particularly concerned about the possibility that he could develop the disease himself, and that he could pass it on to his children.
Select the single correct statement concerning Huntington's disease.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition is an autosomal dominant trait, giving a 50% risk of passing the disease on to children
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: A Progressive Neurodegenerative Disorder
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a gene on chromosome 4. It can present at any age from 20 years to old age and is associated with cell loss in the basal ganglia and cortex. The disease is characterized by a distinct phenotype, including chorea and dystonia, incoordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral problems, ultimately leading to death.
There is often a prodromal phase of mild psychotic and behavioral symptoms that can last up to 10 years before the development of chorea. Unfortunately, drug therapy has no effect on the progression of disability, and while hyperkinesia and psychiatric symptoms may respond to pharmacotherapy, neuropsychological deficits and dementia remain untreatable.
Management of Huntington’s disease is supportive, and a predictive diagnosis is possible in offspring of affected individuals if they wish it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.
A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.
Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.
Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.
Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.
In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.
Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.
While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.
The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.
The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She underwent a private DEXA scan after her sister was diagnosed with osteoporosis and the results showed a T-score of -1.9 for the femoral neck. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings. What would be the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do a FRAX assessment
Explanation:To accurately evaluate the fracture risk of this woman, the FRAX assessment is necessary, which includes the crucial element of measuring bone mineral density.
Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.
NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.
Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. She appears to be in good health and there are no noticeable abnormalities during otoscopy. Tuning fork tests are conducted, revealing a negative Rinne test on the right side (bone conduction is better than air conduction) and a positive Rinne test on the left side. The Weber test shows lateralisation to the right ear. How should these tuning fork test results be interpreted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right-sided conductive hearing loss
Explanation:Tuning Fork Tests for Hearing Loss
Tuning fork tests are commonly used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. Two tests are usually performed: the Rinne test and the Weber test. The Rinne test compares air conduction to bone conduction by placing the tuning fork against the mastoid and adjacent to the ear canal on both sides. Normally, sound is heard better by air conduction than bone conduction, resulting in a Rinne-positive outcome. However, conductive hearing loss can reverse this result, causing a Rinne-negative pattern where bone conduction is better than air conduction. On the other hand, sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing both result in a Rinne-positive outcome, requiring the Weber test for further information.
The Weber test involves placing the tuning fork on the forehead and checking if sound waves are transmitted equally to both ears. If the sound is heard equally in both ears, the result is normal. However, conductive hearing loss in one ear causes the sound to be heard on the same side as the conductive loss. In contrast, sensorineural hearing loss causes sound to be heard on the opposite side.
In this particular case, the Rinne test resulted in a negative outcome on the right side, indicating right-sided conductive hearing loss. The Weber test confirmed this by lateralizing to the affected side. Tuning fork tests are a quick and non-invasive way to determine the type and location of hearing loss, allowing for appropriate treatment to be initiated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
What is the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties
Explanation:Return to Work Note in UK Practice
When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with macular degeneration seeks guidance on antioxidant dietary supplements. Is there any reason why such supplements should not be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current smoker
Explanation:Antioxidant dietary supplements are not recommended for smokers due to the increased risk of lung cancer associated with beta-carotene.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life
As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.
What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic
Explanation:Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.
For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started experiencing diarrhoea, especially at night. He has also noticed that he feels dizzy when he stands up; he collapsed while standing at a bus stop a few days ago. On further questioning, he admits to having erectile problems for several years. He has chronic polyneuropathy.
On examination, his blood pressure is 160/88 mmHg when lying down and 136/60 mmHg when standing. He demonstrates signs of reduced knee jerks, absent ankle jerks and reduced pinprick and vibration sense to the knees. These are unchanged from his last examination six months ago.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The patient is experiencing symptoms of autonomic neuropathy, such as bowel issues, postural hypotension, and erectile dysfunction. The most common cause of this condition is diabetes mellitus, which can also lead to other types of neuropathy. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy, but it is less likely in this case. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an inherited peripheral neuropathy that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. Paraneoplastic neuropathy is a rare syndrome that accompanies malignant disease and would be an unusual pattern of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy and should be checked in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy presents with a temperature of 39oC. He attends a morning surgery. The mother reports improvement with paracetamol, but this has worn off and he is miserable again. He looks flushed, but there are no focal symptoms or signs. He is not dehydrated, and there are no other worrying features.
What is the most appropriate management option at this time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs and review at the evening surgery
Explanation:Antipyretic Drugs and Safety-Netting for Fever in Children: A Review at the Evening Surgery
Fever in children can be a cause for concern, and it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting to parents or carers. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that a temperature of 39°C or more in a child aged 3–6 months is an amber (intermediate) risk sign, and in a child aged 0–3 months, 38°C or more is red (high risk). If any ‘amber’ features are present and no diagnosis has been reached, it is important to provide a safety net or refer the child to specialist paediatric care for further assessment.
Reviewing the child later in the day is appropriate safety-netting and is preferred to immediate admission. The cause of the fever may be viral and self-limiting, and antipyretic drugs such as paracetamol and ibuprofen may be the only treatment needed. It is also important to provide advice on the most likely course of the illness and symptoms to look out for if the child’s condition worsens.
However, admitting the child to the hospital is only necessary if there is any suggestion of an immediately life-threatening illness or if the child had any ‘red flag’ features. Intramuscular penicillin and admission to the hospital are not indicated unless there are symptoms or signs to suggest meningococcal disease in the patient.
Prescribing amoxicillin is also not necessary unless a bacterial cause for the infection has been found on examination. Instead, it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting and review the child in a timely manner to ensure their well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches before but developed this one about a week ago.
He describes a vague headache on the left side of his head, starting above his left eye and extending to the parietal area. The headache has been fairly constant, and he has taken paracetamol and ibuprofen, which have only provided slight relief and have not significantly reduced the pain.
There is no history of vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness, seizures, postural related headache, or tinnitus. There are no mental or cognitive changes.
On clinical examination, all cranial nerves are normal, and there is no focal limb neurological deficit or cerebellar signs. ENT examination is normal, and there is no scalp or temporal tenderness. There is no neck stiffness or restriction of neck movements. Observations, including blood pressure and temperature, are normal, and there is no anxiety, depression, or psychological upset.
Despite the lack of a clear cause for this new headache, which of the following statements is true regarding papilloedema?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The absence of papilloedema rules out the presence of a brain tumour
Explanation:Importance of Fundal Examination in Headache Assessment
Fundal examination is a crucial part of headache assessment, particularly in cases of new and unexplained headaches. It helps to check for papilloedema, which may indicate raised intracranial pressure and requires urgent action, even in the absence of other symptoms or normal examination results. However, the absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of a brain tumor, and papilloedema is not always a sign of a brain tumor.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, the predictive value of symptoms is more important than clinical signs in referring patients for suspected cancer. However, they recommend an urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function. This is to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer and to speed up the diagnostic process for patients with a tumor.
Some GPs may have direct access to MRI, while others may need to coordinate with secondary care colleagues through locally arranged pathways. Regardless of the means of acquiring an MRI, the finding of papilloedema warrants urgent MRI, regardless of other factors in the history or examination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman has chronic kidney disease stage 4.
Which of the following additional vaccines are recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and Pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for CKD Patients
Patients with CKD stages 4 and 5 should receive additional vaccinations on top of the usual immunisation schedule. These include Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal vaccines. However, there is no recommendation for these patients to receive Meningococcal ACWY, Hepatitis A, or Hib vaccine. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these vaccination recommendations to ensure the best possible care for CKD patients. By following these guidelines, patients can reduce their risk of contracting preventable illnesses and improve their overall health outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
What is the most likely primary brain pathology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions
Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.
It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.
In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses
Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.
Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.
Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.
Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male with known Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus presents to your GP clinic. He complains of pain in his left eye accompanied by nausea and vomiting. During the examination, you observe that the left eye is red. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he was recently prescribed an antidepressant. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:When faced with such questions, it can be helpful to eliminate possible conditions. Stroke is unlikely to cause eye pain. Temporal arteritis may be a possibility, but it usually causes a one-sided headache over the temporal arteries and doesn’t result in fixed pupils. Chronic primary angle closure glaucoma is often symptomless and develops gradually. Acute angle closure glaucoma, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden pain, especially in dark rooms. The patient in this case is an elderly woman with Type 2 Diabetes, which puts her at high risk for acute angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the fact that she recently started taking an antidepressant is another clue that points to this diagnosis. Certain medications, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, can trigger an acute glaucoma attack.
Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and was in close proximity to her nephew who has been diagnosed with Chickenpox. The patient spent a few hours with her nephew and had physical contact such as hugging. The patient reports feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had Chickenpox before.
What is the best course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check antibody levels
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is exposed to Chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should receive varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
It is important to note that the management and organization of the blood test can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given immediately, but it may still be effective up to 10 days after exposure.
For pregnant women who develop Chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation, oral aciclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. However, if the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, it is recommended to seek specialist advice.
It is crucial to take action and not simply provide reassurance in cases where the woman is found to be non-immune to varicella, as both she and the fetus are at risk.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is brought to see you as her parents think she is very short for her age and is the smallest in her class at school. She is talkative and is of normal intelligence and intellectual development.
Physical examination reveals a lack of pubertal development and on further questioning she has not started to menstruate. You note the presence of cubitus valgus and neck webbing.
What investigation will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Karyotype
Explanation:Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterized by a missing or incomplete X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 45 XO. The clinical features of Turner’s syndrome can vary, but common signs include short stature, delayed pubertal development, and primary amenorrhea.
Other physical features that may be present include abnormal nails, neonatal lymphedema, webbing of the neck, widely spaced nipples with a shield chest, and a wide carrying angle. These features can be subtle or absent, making it important to request a karyotype in females with short stature and delayed puberty.
Early identification of Turner’s syndrome is crucial, as it allows for early treatment with growth hormone to enhance final height. Additionally, those affected are at increased risk of cardiac and renal abnormalities, particularly coarctation of the aorta. By understanding the clinical features and importance of early diagnosis, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and support for individuals with Turner’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol dependency. An alcohol history reveals he consumes 60 units of alcohol per week. He presents with feelings of unsteadiness while walking, for 2 weeks. You believe he may have developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Which of the following potential features is most suggestive of the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal vs. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Alcohol withdrawal and Wernicke’s encephalopathy can both present with various symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between the two. Ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma are all classic symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which requires urgent admission for parenteral thiamine. Excessive sweating and anxiety are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but not typically associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Headache can occur in both conditions, but a thorough history and examination are necessary to determine the cause. Tremor is also common in alcohol withdrawal, but a resting tremor is not the same as the ataxic features seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Proper recognition and diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is an indication for circumcision?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pathological phimosis
Explanation:Indications for Paediatric Circumcision
There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.
Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.
In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of the faecal immunochemical test as a screening tool for bowel cancer in individuals over the age of 50. The study involves 1000 patients, and 100 of them test positive for the test. Out of these 100 patients, 60 are diagnosed with bowel cancer through colonoscopy. On the other hand, 10 patients who tested negative for the test were later found to have bowel cancer.
What is the nearest whole number likelihood ratio for a positive test result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:The likelihood ratio for a positive test result is 20. This is calculated by dividing the sensitivity (85.7%) by 1 minus the specificity (4.3%).
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)