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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a long history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a long history of intermittent abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He has noticed that his symptoms are particularly linked to gluten-containing foods and brings a food diary to support this theory. On examination, he has a body mass index of 19 kg/m2 and is clinically anaemic. Coeliac disease is suspected.
      Which of the following investigations will most reliably diagnose this condition?

      Your Answer: Microscopic examination of a small bowel biopsy specimen

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder of the small bowel induced by gluten. The gold standard for diagnosis is the detection of subtotal villous atrophy on a small-bowel biopsy. However, the detection of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies is a widely used screening test with high specificity and sensitivity. Total immunoglobulin A (IgA) should also be measured in case of IgA deficiency. Antibodies become undetectable after 6-12 months of a gluten-free diet, making them useful for monitoring the disease. The xylose absorption test is not appropriate for this patient, while the detection of anti-gliadin antibodies and anti-endomysial antibodies can aid diagnosis but are not preferred methods. Serology for anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is the first-line screening test and aids referral to gastroenterology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      102.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind spot in the visual field of his left eye. The problem appeared overnight and has worsened slightly since then. He has also experienced mild pain behind his left eye, which intensifies when he moves it. He has noticed that colors, particularly red, appear washed-out. When he covers his left eye, his right eye's vision seems normal. He has been feeling generally lethargic for the past few days but is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis, characterized by visual loss, eye pain, and red desaturation, is a typical indication of multiple sclerosis (MS) and is often the first symptom. Early MS may also cause lethargy, which is a nonspecific symptom.

      It is highly unlikely for a 34-year-old to have temporal arteritis.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
      Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.

      Your Answer: Take regular daytime exercise

      Explanation:

      Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene

      Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.

      Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.

      Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      91.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During a home visit, a 75-year-old female patient complains of a chesty cough....

    Incorrect

    • During a home visit, a 75-year-old female patient complains of a chesty cough. However, she also mentions experiencing severe and progressive right-sided eye pain since this morning. She has noticed blurry vision in the same eye and has been feeling nauseous, vomiting twice. As she has blue eyes, acute angle-closure glaucoma is suspected. Unfortunately, there will be a delay admitting the patient as the ambulance is at least 45 minutes away. What is the most appropriate method of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give pilocarpine eye drops 20% in both eyes

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient to lie flat, face up with no pillow

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Palindromic rheumatism

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      59.9
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  • Question 6 - A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue that has been persisting for 10 months. She is unable to perform even minimal activities due to extreme fatigue and has been absent from work. She reports experiencing difficulty swallowing, frequent headaches, and sore throats with myalgia. She has been researching chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and believes her symptoms are consistent with this condition.
      What is the most pressing investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome: When to Consider Urgent Investigation

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, requiring the presence of unexplained chronic fatigue for more than six months, along with other symptoms such as impaired memory or concentration, sore throats, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, and post-exertion malaise. However, certain symptoms may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is a red flag symptom that may indicate an underlying oesophageal cancer and should be investigated urgently with an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) under the 2-week wait rule. Thyroid function tests should also be carried out to rule out hypothyroidism, which can present similarly to CFS, but the presence of dysphagia is atypical and prompts urgent investigation for underlying malignancy.

      Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a commonly reported symptom of CFS, but it can also be a feature of rhabdomyolysis, which would cause high creatine kinase levels. However, this is a rarer diagnosis and would usually be associated with a history of trauma or long lie causing muscle damage.

      Headache and chronic pain are recognised associations of CFS, although they are not exclusive. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is not usually indicated unless there are neurological signs or signs that may indicate raised intracranial pressure.

      Flu-like symptoms, including sore throat, tender glands, nausea, chills, or muscle aches, are often reported as a feature of CFS. However, Group A streptococcus can cause an acute sore throat rather than the recurrent symptoms described in this patient, so swabbing should be considered if there is diagnostic uncertainty or if there is a history of immunocompromise putting the patient at increased risk of complications.

      In summary, while CFS is a diagnosis of exclusion, certain symptoms such as dysphagia may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1268
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his face, which has been going on for 2 months. In addition, he complains of a buzzing sound in his right ear and right-sided hearing loss. Two weeks earlier he also complained of numbness in his face, but the doctor who saw him then was unable to find any abnormal signs. When you see him, he is in pain. He does appear to have hearing loss and a reduced corneal reflex on the right, but nothing else.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Trigeminal Neuralgia and Acoustic Neuroma: A Clinical Overview

      When presented with facial numbness and a diminished corneal reflex, a structural lesion is highly suspected, rather than trigeminal neuralgia. While tinnitus and hearing loss may be present in both conditions, the latter favors a structural lesion. Brainstem plaques and acoustic neuromas can mimic trigeminal neuralgia symptoms, but sensorineural hearing loss is more indicative of a structural lesion. Acoustic neuromas are typically benign and slow-growing, but can cause symptoms through mass effect and pressure on local structures. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing, recurrent pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the Vth cranial nerve. Ménière’s disease and viral labyrinthitis may also cause hearing loss, but vertigo is the most prominent symptom. While the age of presentation may slightly favor a diagnosis of acoustic neuroma over multiple sclerosis, the vast majority of cases are never diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1914.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).

      When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?

      Your Answer: 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 8 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6-month-old boy has recurrent sticky eyes and has twice had a course...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy has recurrent sticky eyes and has twice had a course of topical antibiotics. A bead of pus is visible at the medial canthus of both eyes. The eyes are not red. He is afebrile and otherwise well.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Refer for nasolacrimal duct probing

      Correct Answer: Advice about nasolacrimal duct massage

      Explanation:

      Managing Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Children: Advice on Massage and Referral

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction, also known as dacryostenosis, is a common condition in neonates, affecting up to 70% of infants. However, only a small percentage of these infants exhibit symptoms. In most cases, the condition resolves spontaneously by the age of 12 months. In the meantime, parents can help manage the condition by cleaning the lids regularly and performing nasolacrimal duct massage.

      Nasolacrimal duct massage involves applying gentle pressure with a finger over the common canaliculus, located medial to the eye, and stroking downwards firmly to raise the pressure in the lacrimal sac and encourage opening of the valve. This can help clear excess tears and promote the development of the duct.

      If the obstruction persists beyond one year of age, referral for nasolacrimal duct probing may be necessary. However, this patient is too young for this procedure.

      Systemic antibiotics may be necessary if the obstruction leads to dacryocystitis, which is characterized by fever and a red, tender swelling over the duct and around the orbit. Topical antibiotics may be used for episodes of associated conjunctivitis, but this is not currently indicated in this patient.

      In summary, nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition in infants that usually resolves spontaneously. Parents can help manage the condition by performing nasolacrimal duct massage, and referral for probing may be necessary if the obstruction persists beyond one year of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices an irregular, constricted pupil. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever and a blotchy rash. Her mother reports that the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations.

      What is the potential complication that this child may face?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia.

      Aside from pneumonia, measles can also cause other complications such as otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles usually involves rest, fluids, and pain relief.

      If a person has measles, it is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid going to school or work for at least four days after the rash appears.

      Mumps, on the other hand, can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise.

      Kawasaki disease, a different illness, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm. Symptoms of Kawasaki disease include high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands.

      It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which chromosomal disorder can result in females being affected by X-linked recessive conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which chromosomal disorder can result in females being affected by X-linked recessive conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edwards' syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding X Linked Recessive Disorders

      Females are typically not symptomatic of X linked recessive disorders, but they can be carriers. This is because they have two X chromosomes, and the healthy X chromosome can compensate for the mutated one. However, if a female has Turner’s syndrome, which is characterized by a single X chromosome, she can be affected by X linked disorders if she inherits a mutation on that chromosome.

      It is important to understand the underlying genetic problem that causes various diagnoses. Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, Edwards’ syndrome by trisomy 18, and Patau’s syndrome by trisomy 13. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by an extra X chromosome, only occurs in males and can be ruled out for females. Knowing these genetic factors can aid in understanding the inheritance and manifestation of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
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  • Question 13 - One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is one of the associations with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised uric acid levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

      Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man presents with unilateral nasal obstruction caused by soft tissue swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with unilateral nasal obstruction caused by soft tissue swelling and bleeding from the same side of the nose. What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Nasal Obstruction: Possible Causes and Management

      Unilateral nasal obstruction can be caused by various factors, including nasal polyps, infection, and neoplastic processes. If the obstruction is accompanied by soft tissue blockage and unilateral epistaxis, the possibility of a neoplastic process should be considered, and direct visualisation of the area in an ear, nose, and throat clinic is necessary. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a rare but possible cause of unilateral nasal obstruction.

      Aside from neoplastic processes, other nasal tumors that may cause unilateral nasal obstruction include inverted papilloma, sarcoma, lymphoma, olfactory neuroblastoma, and juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.

      Using nasal decongestants for prolonged periods is not recommended as it may cause rebound congestion of the nasal mucosa. Antibiotics are not normally indicated for nasal blockage caused by the common cold, influenza virus, or rhinosinusitis. Topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in allergic rhinitis and some cases of vasomotor rhinitis, while corticosteroid drops are used in the medical management of nasal polyps. Oral steroids are not typically used in the management of any form of nasal obstruction.

      In summary, the management of unilateral nasal obstruction depends on the underlying cause, and direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day history of feeling generally unwell, feverish, nauseous with a loss of appetite and right upper quadrant pain.

      Upon examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 102 beats per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly.

      Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 456 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 76 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)

      Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 164 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 512 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 86 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and typically presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, fatigue, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The liver may also become enlarged and tender, and liver function tests may be abnormal. As the infection progresses, it can lead to significant liver inflammation and a cholestatic picture.

      While an amoebic abscess is a possibility given the patient’s history of travel and symptoms of fever and right upper quadrant pain, the blood tests do not fully support this diagnosis, as the white blood cell count and C-reactive protein are only mildly elevated, and the alanine transaminase (ALT) is significantly raised.

      Ascending cholangitis, which is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, is less likely in this scenario, as the liver function tests show marked hepatic inflammation with the raised ALT in proportion to the slightly raised bilirubin.

      Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, would not typically cause such a significant rise in ALT or the development of jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein surgery. She is in good health and currently using the combined hormonal contraceptive patch for birth control. What advice should be given to her regarding her contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 4 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 2 weeks after she is fully mobilising

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Major Surgery

      Major surgery, which includes surgery lasting more than 30 minutes, all lower limb surgeries, and surgeries resulting in prolonged immobilization of a lower limb, requires special consideration for patients who are using combined hormonal contraceptives. To avoid potential complications, patients should be offered alternative contraception options four weeks prior to their operation. Once the patient is fully mobilizing, typically two weeks after the surgery, they can resume their combined hormonal contraceptive.

      It is important to note that patients who are unable to stop their combined hormonal contraceptive prior to surgery should not resume use until they are fully mobilizing. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to communicate to their patients to ensure safe and effective contraception management during and after major surgery. By following these guidelines, patients can avoid potential complications and continue to receive the contraceptive care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice. His grandson has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox, with the first pox appearing yesterday while he was babysitting. The patient has never had Chickenpox and is worried about contracting it, despite being asymptomatic at present. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Due to the chemotherapy-induced immunocompromisation, this patient is susceptible to a severe varicella infection and should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.

      Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.

      What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. He suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically, but he cries a lot of the time.

      You find evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.

      The man feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. He has suffered from depression in the past which responded well to antidepressant treatment.

      Which antidepressant would you choose from the following based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline for Depression in Patients with Recent MI or Unstable Angina

      Sertraline is a medication that is both effective and well-tolerated for treating depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) or unstable angina. In addition to its antidepressant properties, sertraline has been found to inhibit platelet aggregation. This makes it a valuable treatment option for patients who are at risk for blood clots and other cardiovascular complications. With its dual benefits, sertraline can help improve both the mental and physical health of patients who have experienced a cardiac event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands and feet for the past 6 weeks. The pain is more severe in the morning and slightly relieved by ibuprofen. She used to smoke and has a smoking history of 30 pack-years. During the physical examination, the doctor noticed ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity in her hands.

      What is the most suitable medication to treat this acute flare, considering her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroids IM

      Explanation:

      Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. However, NICE guidelines recommend first-line treatment with conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (cDMARDs) such as oral methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine for adults with newly diagnosed active RA. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may be considered when starting a new cDMARD. Anakinra, codeine, and paracetamol are not recommended for the treatment of RA, while infliximab IV is not recommended as first-line treatment. NSAIDs may be used for symptom control in acute flares or early disease. Overall, the goal of treatment is to rapidly decrease inflammation and manage symptoms.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

    He has a mild early...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

      He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.

      Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.

      Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:

      Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      93% neutrophils -
      5% band forms -
      2% lymphocytes -
      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment

      When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She experiences 2 or more attacks every month. After maintaining a headache diary, no triggering factors were identified. She has previously tried topiramate and amitriptyline, but her symptoms did not improve. She has a history of severe asthma.

      Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer 10-sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response

      Explanation:

      For patients who experience frequent and severe migraines, preventive treatment should be considered if acute treatments are ineffective or not suitable, or if there is a risk of medication-overuse headaches. Propranolol is the first-line prophylactic treatment, but if it is not suitable, alternative treatments such as topiramate or amitriptyline may be considered. Gabapentin should not be used for migraine prophylaxis. Non-pharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, relaxation techniques, or cognitive behavioural therapy can also be used as an alternative or adjunct to pharmacological therapy. Daily riboflavin may also be helpful in reducing migraine frequency and intensity. It is important to advise patients to limit their use of acute medication to a maximum of 2 days per week to avoid medication-overuse headaches. Referral for same-day neurology assessment is not necessary unless there are red-flag features. If the patient doesn’t respond to acupuncture, a neurology referral may be indicated.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - You are completing an ESA113 medical report that has been requested by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are completing an ESA113 medical report that has been requested by the Department of Work and Pensions with regards a patient of yours who has applied for employment and support allowance.
      Which of the following should you omit from such a medical report?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reference to criminal convictions not directly relevant to the patient's condition or disability, whether spent or not

      Explanation:

      Accessing Medical Reports

      Information contained in medical reports can be made available to patients upon request or if they appeal against a benefit entitlement decision. The report should include any relevant medical information, including diagnoses that continue to impact the patient significantly. However, harmful information that could negatively affect the patient’s health should not be disclosed and can be legally withheld by the Department of Work and Pensions. Such information should be clearly marked and managed appropriately.

      Data protection legislation requires that information that would only embarrass the author or someone else should not be withheld. It is important to ensure that the report only includes issues that can be substantiated and that inappropriate personal remarks or suspicions of malingering without a firm basis are avoided. Additionally, letters or reports from other healthcare professionals should be included as they provide valuable information.

      It is important to observe the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, which means that the report should not contain any reference to criminal convictions, whether spent or not, unless it is directly relevant to the patient’s condition or disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 26 - A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate...

    Incorrect

    • A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate release oxybutynin tablets.

      She says she had to stop taking them because of side effects.

      What side effect is commonly found in elderly women taking oxybutynin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Oxybutynin

      Oxybutynin is a medication that belongs to the antimuscarinic class of drugs. It is commonly used to treat urinary incontinence and overactive bladder. However, it can cause several side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, dry eyes, and decreased sweating. If the immediate release formulation of oxybutynin is not well-tolerated, a sustained release formulation may be considered.

      It is important to note that a recent clinical review published in the BMJ has highlighted the potential cognitive side effects of medications with a high anticholinergic burden, including oxybutynin. This can lead to cognitive impairment, which can worsen the symptoms of dementia or even lead to false positive diagnoses. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential side effects of oxybutynin and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 28 - What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in older adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hospital anxiety and depression (HAD) scale

      Explanation:

      Clinical Tests for Distinguishing Dementia from Depression

      Clinical tests are the most reliable way to distinguish between dementia and depression. One such test involves registering three objects and recalling them after five minutes. Dementia patients typically struggle with this task. Another test involves recalling items in a category, such as a list of plants, animals, or furniture items.

      On the other hand, scales like the HAD scale do not differentiate between dementia and depression. They only assess the likelihood of depression being present. Blood tests can also be useful in ruling out underlying causes of dementia, such as thyroid function tests and B12 tests. However, liver function tests are unlikely to contribute much to the diagnosis. By using these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and differentiate between dementia and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents to the GP for a follow-up on recent test results. He follows a vegetarian diet and enjoys gardening. On examination, he has joint deformities in his fingers but is otherwise unremarkable. His DEXA scan T-score was -2.5. The table below shows his blood test results.

      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 14 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 250 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.22 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 150 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the initial treatment that should be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency. Therefore, calcium replacement is the correct choice for this patient. If dietary intake is inadequate, calcium should be prescribed when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. As this patient is vegan and hypocalcemic, it is likely that her dietary intake is insufficient, making calcium replacement necessary.

      While alendronate is a suitable first-line bisphosphonate, it cannot be initiated until the patient’s hypocalcemia is corrected.

      Dietary and lifestyle advice alone is not appropriate for this patient, as she requires correction of her hypocalcemia and osteopenia. However, such advice may be given in conjunction with pharmacological measures.

      Pamidronate is an intravenous bisphosphonate that may be used by a specialist if first-line bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 231 * 109/l
      - White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
      - Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
      - Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
      - Sodium: 142 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
      - Albumin: 36 g/l

      What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.

      Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms

      Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/3) 0%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Passmed