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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.

      Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)

      Explanation:

      Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A couple brings their 5 week old formula fed baby to the short...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 5 week old formula fed baby to the short stay paediatric ward due to persistent non-bilious vomiting and increasing lethargy. However, the baby's appetite remains substantial. During examination, the baby appears pale and visible peristalsis is observed in the left upper quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cows milk protein allergy

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      This presentation may indicate the possibility of pyloric stenosis, as there are signs of visible peristalsis where the stomach is attempting to move its contents past the obstruction. The vomiting is non-bilious, which suggests that the obstruction is located before the second part of the duodenum where bile enters the digestive system. This is different from malrotation and duodenal atresia.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old male presents with a week-long history of confusion. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a week-long history of confusion. He has been generally healthy but takes atenolol for hypertension and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.

      During examination, his pulse is 88 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/88 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1°C. He is disoriented in time and place, but no other abnormalities are found.

      Routine blood tests reveal:

      - FBC Normal
      - Sodium 120 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 56 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Serum TSH Normal
      - Plasma osmolality 260 mosmol/L (275-295)
      - Urine osmolality 510 mosmol/L
      - Urine sodium 48 mmol/L

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)

      The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by marked hyponatremia. To diagnose SIADH, the patient must have low serum sodium or osmolality levels, with an inappropriately high urine sodium and osmolality. Other causes such as glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, and diuretic therapy should be excluded.

      There are several causes of SIADH, including malignancy, infection, cerebral disease, and medications. Bronchial carcinoma is a common malignancy associated with SIADH, especially in patients with a history of smoking. Severe infections, particularly pneumonia, can also cause SIADH. Cerebral diseases such as subarachnoid hemorrhage and meningitis can also lead to SIADH. Certain medications, including SSRI antidepressants, carbamazepine, thiazides, and indomethacin, can also cause SIADH.

      In summary, SIADH is a condition that can lead to marked hyponatremia. It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications. the various causes of SIADH can help clinicians identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung

      Explanation:

      Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung

      Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.

      Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old patient with a history of bipolar disorder visits your GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient with a history of bipolar disorder visits your GP clinic for routine blood tests. Despite feeling completely fine, he wants to check his health status. Upon clinical examination, there are no signs of splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy.
      The following are the results:
      - Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na+ 144 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      - Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      - Lithium level 0.75 mmol/L (0.6 - 1.2)

      What advice would you give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Safety net to return if symptoms develop, arrange repeat blood tests as per usual, under the normal monitoring schedule

      Explanation:

      Lithium, a mood-stabilizing drug commonly used in bipolar disorder, can lead to various health complications such as thyroid, cardiac, renal, and neurological issues. One of the common side effects of lithium is benign leucocytosis, which is also associated with other drugs like corticosteroids and beta-blockers. In this case, it is appropriate to continue with the normal monitoring schedule and safety netting for any signs of infection or malignancy, as there are no indications of either. Antibiotics would not be necessary. Malignant leucocytosis is unlikely as there are no accompanying symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, bleeding, lymphadenopathy, or bone pain. Withholding lithium would not be advisable as it is effectively managing the patient’s condition. The psychiatric team should be consulted before making any decisions regarding the medication.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, right-sided lower abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, right-sided lower abdominal pain over the past few hours. She has associated nausea and vomiting. The pain has now reached the point of being unbearable. She denies any fever, vaginal bleeding, dysuria or altered bowel habits. She has no significant past medical history. She does not take any regular medications.

      On examination, she appears to be in significant pain, clutching at her right lower abdomen, which is tender on palpation. Normal bowel sounds are present. There is a palpable adnexal mass on pelvic examination. She is slightly tachycardic. A pregnancy test is negative and urinalysis is normal.

      What ultrasound finding would be indicative of the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Snow-storm appearance

      Correct Answer: Whirlpool sign

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound imaging may reveal a whirlpool sign in cases of ovarian torsion, which is strongly indicated by the patient’s history and examination. The beads-on-a-string sign is typically associated with chronic salpingitis, while hypoechoic masses are often indicative of fibroids. A snow-storm appearance is a characteristic finding in complete hydatidiform mole.

      Understanding Ovarian Torsion

      Ovarian torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This condition can be partial or complete and may also affect the fallopian tube, which is then referred to as adnexal torsion. Women who have an ovarian mass, are of reproductive age, pregnant, or have ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are at a higher risk of developing ovarian torsion.

      The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is colicky in nature. Patients may also experience vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Upon examination, adnexal tenderness may be detected, and an ultrasound may show free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his right hand. He observes that his symptoms are more severe at night, frequently waking him up, and can only be alleviated by hanging his arm outside of the bed. Which nerve compression is likely responsible for this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Compression: Symptoms and Special Tests

      Nerve compression can cause a range of symptoms, from pain and weakness to numbness and tingling. Here are some key things to know about nerve compression and how it affects different nerves in the body.

      The Median Nerve: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel, and compression of this nerve can cause pain, paraesthesiae, and weakness in the distribution of the median nerve. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition that can be caused by pregnancy, diabetes, and other factors. Special tests to detect carpal tunnel syndrome include TINel’s sign, Phalen’s test, and motor assessment.

      The Radial Nerve: Hand and Arm Pain

      Compression of the radial nerve can lead to pain in the back of your hand, near your thumb, and you may not be able to straighten your arm.

      The Lateral Cutaneous Nerve: Reduced Sensation

      Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve can lead to reduced sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      The Ulnar Nerve: Numbness and Tingling

      Compression of the ulnar nerve can lead to numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and half of the fourth finger.

      The Medial Cutaneous Nerve: Elbow and Forearm Pain

      Compression of the medial cutaneous nerve can lead to pain at the elbow and forearm.

      By understanding the symptoms and special tests associated with nerve compression, you can better identify and manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have been ongoing for the past 3 weeks and she describes them as severe (8/10) and throbbing in nature. She reports that the headaches worsen whenever she talks for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has been experiencing fatigue and slight blurred vision since the onset of the headaches, which is unusual for her. Based on the probable diagnosis, what investigation and treatment options would you prioritize?

      Your Answer: Aspirin and CT head

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone and vision testing

      Explanation:

      After being diagnosed with temporal arthritis, it is important to conduct vision testing as a crucial investigation. This autoimmune condition affects blood vessels and can be effectively treated with steroids, with an initial dose of 40-60 mg being recommended to alleviate symptoms and prevent further progression. If left untreated, temporal arthritis can lead to irreversible blindness due to occlusion of the ophthalmic artery, which may be preceded by transient visual problems. Unlike renal function, which is not significantly impacted by temporal arthritis, aspirin and a CT head are typically used to diagnose ischemic stroke or TIA. While co-codamol can effectively treat tension headaches, an MRI head is not a primary investigation for temporal arthritis due to its high cost. Additionally, fludrocortisone is not the first line of treatment for this condition.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period as having been 4 weeks ago. She denies pain but reports severe nausea and vomiting. She has no significant past medical history and her last check-up 6 months ago did not reveal any abnormalities. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and her uterus measures 12 weeks’ size. A serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) level is drawn and found to be in excess of 300 000 iu. An ultrasound does not identify any foetal parts. What is this patient at risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Rupture of the fallopian tube

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastasis and thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gestational Trophoblastic Disease: Differential Diagnosis

      Gestational trophoblastic disease is a rare condition that can present with symptoms similar to other pregnancy-related complications. When evaluating a patient with suspected gestational trophoblastic disease, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

      One common misdiagnosis is occlusion of the coronary vessels, as there is no association between gestational trophoblastic disease and coronary artery disease. Rupture of the fallopian tube may be a possibility if the patient had an ectopic pregnancy, but the history and examination are not suggestive of this. Septic miscarriage is also a possibility, but the symptoms and examination findings in this scenario are more typical of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      Twin or triplet pregnancy is unlikely due to the absence of foetal parts and the elevated blood pressure. Instead, gestational trophoblastic disease should be considered when a patient presents with bleeding in early pregnancy, severe hyperemesis, new-onset hypertension prior to 20 weeks’ gestation, and a uterus that is larger than expected. An extremely elevated β-HCG and a classical ultrasound appearance resembling a ‘snow storm’ are also indicative of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      It is important to note that gestational trophoblastic disease is strongly associated with thyroid dysfunction and that the lungs are among the first sites of metastatic disease. By considering the differential diagnosis and conducting appropriate testing, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat gestational trophoblastic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On examination, he appears uncomfortable, with a heart rate of 105 bpm, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, oxygen saturations on room air of 95%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a temperature of 37.4 °C. His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable, except for a previous median sternotomy scar. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness throughout the abdomen, which is significantly worse on the left with guarding. Urgent blood tests are taken, and chest and abdominal X-rays are performed. The chest X-ray is normal, except for an increased cardiothoracic ratio, but the abdominal X-ray shows thumbprinting in the left colon but an otherwise normal gas pattern.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain: A Guide

      When a patient presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide prompt and appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to consider when differentiating between potential causes:

      Ischaemic colitis: This can occur as a result of atherosclerosis in the mesenteric arteries, leading to tissue death and subsequent inflammation. It is a surgical emergency that requires urgent investigation and treatment.

      Angiodysplasia: This is a small vascular malformation that typically presents with melaena, unexplained PR bleeding, or anaemia. It is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen.

      Infectious colitis: While infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and diarrhoea, it typically does not come on as rapidly as other causes. Clostridium difficile colitis is a subtype that can be particularly severe and difficult to manage.

      Ulcerative colitis: This is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually presents with abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, and other symptoms. It is unlikely to be a first presentation in a 69-year-old patient.

      Diverticulitis: This is a common cause of left-sided abdominal pain, especially in older patients. It occurs when diverticula become infected or inflamed, but can be treated with antibiotics. Complications such as perforation or PR bleeding may require urgent intervention.

      By considering these potential causes and their associated symptoms, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      43.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Cardiothoracic (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
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