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  • Question 1 - An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a...

    Incorrect

    • An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a seizure six months ago. On further enquiry, you discover that the seizure was in response to a medication change, which also took place six months ago and since being put back on their original medication, they have been seizure-free.
      What advice is appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: She will have to wait another six months before she will be eligible to drive, allowing for 12 months following the seizure

      Correct Answer: She can apply to the DVLA to reinstate her licence now

      Explanation:

      Clarifying Misconceptions about Driving Eligibility for Patients with Epilepsy

      There are several misconceptions about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy. One common misconception is that a patient must wait another six months before being eligible to drive after a medication-induced seizure. However, according to DVLA guidance, if the patient has been seizure-free for six months on their working medication, they can apply to reinstate their licence.

      Another misconception is that the patient must trial the new medication again to determine if they can drive. This is not true, as reverting back to the previous medication that did not work would not be helpful.

      Additionally, some believe that the patient must wait another 12 months due to the medication change resulting in the seizure. However, the time a patient must be seizure-free is not increased because the seizure was medication-induced.

      It is important to note that if a patient with epilepsy has been seizure-free for a certain period of time, depending on certain circumstances, they will be eligible to drive again in most cases. It is crucial for patients and healthcare professionals to have accurate information about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man in-patient on the gastroenterology ward is noted by the consultant...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man in-patient on the gastroenterology ward is noted by the consultant on the ward round to have features which raise suspicion of Parkinson’s disease. The consultant proceeds to examine the patient and finds that he exhibits all three symptoms that are commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease.
      What are the three symptoms that are most commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

      Your Answer: Bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinson’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement. Its classic triad of symptoms includes bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity. Unlike other causes of Parkinsonism, Parkinson’s disease is characterized by asymmetrical distribution of signs, progressive nature, and a good response to levodopa therapy. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, drugs such as levodopa and dopamine agonists can improve symptoms. A thorough history and complete examination are essential for diagnosis, as there is no specific test for Parkinson’s disease. Other features that may be present include shuffling gait, stooped posture, and reduced arm swing, but these are not part of the classic triad. Understanding the symptoms and diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.6
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  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe tumour

      Explanation:

      Homonymous Superior Quadrantanopia

      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a condition that affects the upper, outer half of one side of the visual field in both eyes. This deficit is typically caused by the interruption of Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. It can be an early indication of temporal lobe disease or a residual effect of a temporal lobectomy. To remember the different types of quandrantanopias, the mnemonic PITS can be used, which stands for Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      88.5
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic tension headache

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      66.3
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
      Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI of the brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.

      Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.

      Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.

      Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.

      Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      67.7
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  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
      What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: E3V2M4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing forgetfulness. He used to be able to manage his own medications, but now forgets to take them regularly. He has also been misplacing items around the house and forgetting important appointments. When his daughter tries to remind him of these things, he becomes defensive and irritable.
      His lab results show normal levels of vitamin B12, folate, thyroid hormones, and electrolytes. He does not screen positive for depression. His MMSE score is 20/30, and his brain MRI reveals general brain atrophy.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      First-Line Management for Alzheimer’s Disease: Medications to Consider

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a common form of dementia that primarily affects older adults. A patient’s clinical presentation, laboratory markers, MMSE results, and neuroimaging can help diagnose AD. Once diagnosed, the first-line management for AD typically involves cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications can provide modest symptomatic relief for some patients with AD. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy for patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage psychotic manifestations of AD, but it is not indicated in this scenario. Tacrine, a centrally-acting anticholinesterase medication, is rarely used due to its potent side-effect profile. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, can be used as adjunctive treatment for insomnia in patients with AD but is not indicated as monotherapy. Overall, the first-line management for AD involves cholinesterase inhibitors, with memantine as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.4
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  • Question 8 - What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Receptors Based on Downstream Signalling Mechanisms

      Receptors are classified based on their mechanism for downstream signalling. There are two main types of receptors: inotropic and metabotropic. Inotropic receptors, such as glutamate receptors, are ion channel receptors that bind to neurotransmitters and cause a direct change in ion flow. On the other hand, metabotropic receptors, such as adrenoreceptors, are coupled to G proteins or enzymes and cause a cascade of intracellular events.

      Metabotropic receptors can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors. Some neurotransmitters, like acetylcholine, can bind to both inotropic and metabotropic receptors. However, only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification.

      Examples of inotropic receptors include glutamate receptors, GABA-A receptors, 5-HT3 receptors, nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, AMPA receptors, and glycine receptors. Examples of metabotropic receptors include adrenoreceptors, GABA-B receptors, 5-HT1 receptors, muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, dopaminergic receptors, and histaminergic receptors.

      In summary, receptors are classified based on their downstream signalling mechanisms. Inotropic receptors cause a direct change in ion flow, while metabotropic receptors cause a cascade of intracellular events. Only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification, and they can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on day 5 of climbing Mount Kilimanjaro in her adventure trip. A doctor accompanying the group examines her and finds her to be tachycardic with a raised temperature. They diagnose high-altitude cerebral oedema.
      What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Descent

      Explanation:

      Treatment of High-Altitude Cerebral Oedema: The Importance of Rapid Descent

      High-altitude cerebral oedema is a serious medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly. It is caused by swelling of the brain at high altitudes and requires immediate action. The most important management for this condition is rapid descent to lower altitudes. In severe cases, patients may need to be air-lifted or carried down as their symptoms prevent them from doing so themselves. While oxygen and steroids like dexamethasone can help improve symptoms, they are secondary to descent.

      Acetazolamide is a medication that can be used to prevent acute mountain sickness, but it is not effective in treating high-altitude cerebral oedema. Oxygen can also help reduce symptoms, but it is not a substitute for rapid descent.

      Rest is important in preventing acute mountain sickness, but it is not appropriate for a patient with high-altitude cerebral oedema. Adequate time for acclimatisation and following the principles of climb high, sleep low can reduce the risk of developing symptoms.

      In summary, rapid descent is the most important treatment for high-altitude cerebral oedema. Other interventions like oxygen and steroids can be helpful, but they are not a substitute for immediate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied by lacrimation, ptosis, and miosis on the same side. The duration of each episode is less than two hours. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that affects the neurovascular system. These headaches are characterized by severe pain that is usually felt on one side of the head, specifically in the temple and periorbital region. Along with the pain, individuals may experience ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, conjunctival injection, miosis, ptosis, and lid oedema. The duration of each headache is brief, lasting only a few moments to two hours. The term cluster refers to the grouping of headaches that occur over a period of several weeks.

      In summary, cluster headaches are a debilitating type of headache that can cause significant discomfort and disruption to daily life. the symptoms and duration of these headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit, after his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit, after his parents witnessed him having a seizure. He has no history of seizures. The seizure lasted 30 seconds, and his parents described both his arms and legs shaking. There was no incontinence or tongue biting. For the last week he has had a flu-like illness, and the parents have recorded temperatures of 39.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). You suspect a diagnosis of febrile seizures.
      What advice should you give the parents about the risk of future seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child could seize again, but the risk of developing epilepsy is low

      Explanation:

      Understanding Febrile Seizures and the Risk of Epilepsy

      Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, often caused by a sudden spike in body temperature. While they are not epilepsy, parents should be aware that their child may be at a greater risk of developing epilepsy in the future. The risk for a simple febrile seizure is between 2.0-7.5%, while a complex febrile seizure increases the risk to 10-20%. Risk factors include a family history of febrile seizures or epilepsy, human herpes virus 6 infection, and deficiencies in iron or zinc. During a seizure, it is important to remove any objects that could cause harm and cushion the child’s head. If the seizure lasts for more than 5 minutes, emergency services should be contacted and medication administered. While paracetamol can help bring down the fever, it does not prevent future seizures. It is important for parents to understand the potential risks and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache and nausea. He had been feeling fine in the days leading up to this incident. He had a medical history of hypertension and took regular medication for it. He did not smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon arrival at the Emergency department, the patient had a Glasgow coma scale score of 12/15 (motor 6, vocal 3, eyes 3) and nuchal rigidity. His blood pressure was 145/85 mmHg, pulse was 90 beats per minute and regular, and temperature was 37.1°C. Heart sounds were normal and the chest appeared clear.

      During cranial nerve examination, a left dilated unreactive pupil with oculoparesis of the left medial rectus was observed. Fundoscopy showed no abnormalities. There were no obvious focal neurological signs on examining the peripheral nervous system, although both plantar responses were extensor.

      A lumbar puncture was performed, revealing straw-colored fluid with the following results:
      - Opening pressure: 15 cmH2O (normal range: 6-18)
      - CSF white cell count: 6 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
      - CSF red cell count: 1450 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
      - CSF protein: 0.46 g/L (normal range: 0.15-0.45)
      - Cytospin: Negative for cells

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      The Oculomotor Nerve and its Effects on Eye Movement and Pupil Size

      The oculomotor nerve nucleus complex is located in the midbrain and is responsible for controlling the movement of several eye muscles. Motor neurons from this complex project to the ipsilateral medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, as well as the contralateral superior rectus. Additionally, a central nucleus innervates the levator palpebrae superioris bilaterally, so damage to this area can result in bilateral ptosis.

      If the oculomotor nerve is damaged during its course, it can result in ipsilateral ptosis and restrict movement of the eye in certain directions. The effect on the pupil can vary depending on the location of the lesion. However, compression of the nerve, such as by a tumor or aneurysm, can result in an acute total third nerve palsy with a dilated unreactive pupil. This is because the parasympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the iris are carried on the outside of the nerve bundle, causing pupillary dilation early on.

      Interestingly, third nerve lesions caused by infarction in patients over 50 years old with diabetes or hypertension often spare the pupil. This means that the pupil remains reactive despite the damage to the nerve. the effects of oculomotor nerve damage can help diagnose and treat various eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due to recent concerns with his speech. He has been experiencing difficulty verbalising his thoughts and finds this frustrating. However, there is no evidence to suggest a reduced comprehension of speech.
      He struggles to repeat sentences and well-rehearsed lists (such as months of the year and numbers from one to ten). He is also unable to name common household objects presented to him. Additionally, he constructs sentences using the incorrect tense and his grammar is poor.
      Imaging studies reveal that the issue is located in the frontotemporal region of the brain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Aphasia and Their Characteristics

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of characteristics. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA) primarily affects speech and language, causing poor fluency, repetition, grammar, and anomia. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is a fluent aphasia that causes impaired comprehension and repetition, nonsensical speech, and neologisms. Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia that affects the ability to communicate fluently, but does not affect comprehension. Semantic dementia affects semantic memory, primarily affecting naming of objects, single-word comprehension, and understanding the uses of particular objects. Finally, conductive dysphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, resulting in anomia and poor repetition but preserved comprehension and fluency of speech. Understanding the characteristics of each type of aphasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of individuals with language disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.

      For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.

      However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.

      For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.

      Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left leg that has been present for 48 h after a long flight. On examination, there is reduced sensation to light touch at the lateral aspect of her left thigh, extending from the iliac crest to the knee. There is no distal sensory loss. There is preserved motor function through all muscle groups of the affected limb. There is no weakness or sensory change in the opposite limb.
      What is the most likely anatomical source for this woman’s presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Symptoms

      Nerve injuries can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve: A mononeuropathy of this nerve causes numbness in a narrow strip of the lateral thigh. It is often associated with rapid weight gain, such as in pregnancy.

      Sciatic Nerve: A sciatic neuropathy can cause weakness in hip extension, knee flexion, ankle plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, and toe plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, as well as inversion and eversion of the foot. It is commonly caused by pelvic trauma, neoplasia, or surgery.

      Femoral Nerve: A femoral neuropathy can cause numbness in the medial thigh, medial leg, and medial aspect of the ankle, as well as weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. It is often caused by motor compression, such as in femoral fracture or childbirth.

      Obturator Nerve: An obturator neuropathy can cause weakness in internal rotation and adduction at the hip, as well as sensory disturbance over the medial thigh.

      L5 Nerve Root: Involvement of the L5 nerve root can cause weakness in ankle and toe dorsiflexion (causing a foot drop) and weakness in ankle inversion. There is also sensory disturbance along the lateral aspect of the leg (below the knee). It can be similar to an anterior tibial neuropathy, but can be distinguished by the weakness in ankle eversion instead of inversion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
      What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids

      Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.

      Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.

      Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.

      Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.

      Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.

      Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.

      In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.

      She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

      What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision, drooping eyelids, and difficulty with speaking, chewing, and swallowing. He reports feeling well in the morning without weakness, but as the day progresses, he experiences increasing fatigue and weakness. Additionally, he notes muscle weakness after exercise that improves with rest. On physical examination, there is no muscle fasciculation, atrophy, or spasticity, and all reflexes are normal. Sensation is intact, and his pupils are equal and reactive to light. What autoantibodies are responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases and Associated Antibodies

      Myasthenia gravis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Becker and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are all autoimmune diseases that involve the production of specific antibodies. Myasthenia gravis is characterised by the presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies, while SLE is associated with antibodies to double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies. Antibodies to dystrophin are linked to muscular dystrophy, and those to myelin are involved in multiple sclerosis. Finally, antibodies to the presynaptic calcium receptor are associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Understanding the specific antibodies involved in these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man presents with daily severe headaches which come on over a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with daily severe headaches which come on over a few minutes and typically last 1 hour. This has been happening for the last 2 weeks. The pain is retro-orbital. The pain is lancinating in nature and associated with lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Headaches and Their Characteristics

      Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their characteristics:

      1. Cluster Headache: These are extremely severe headaches that are typically one-sided and located behind the eye. They occur in clusters, with attacks lasting 15 minutes to 3 hours and occurring regularly over a period of approximately 2 months. They are often accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and conjunctival injection. Treatment includes high-flow oxygen and subcutaneous sumatriptan.

      2. Hemicrania Continua: This headache is characterized by a continuous, fluctuating, unilateral pain that does not shift sides of the head. Autonomic symptoms such as eye watering and nasal blocking can occur, as well as migrainous symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Treatment is with indomethacin.

      3. Migraine: This headache is typically one-sided and throbbing in nature, with associated features such as photophobia and aura.

      4. Space-Occupying Lesion: Headaches caused by a space-occupying lesion are likely to be constant and may be associated with focal neurology and signs of raised intracranial pressure such as papilledema.

      5. Tension Headache: This headache typically has a long history and is classically described as a tight band around the forehead.

      Understanding the characteristics of different types of headaches can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
      Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation

      Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.

      Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight are only mildly to moderately impaired. He also has prominent depression and a butterfly pattern in the caudate nucleus on computed tomography (CT) scan.
      Which is the most likely form of dementia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia due to Huntington’s disease

      Explanation:

      Types of Dementia and their Characteristics

      Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily activities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own unique characteristics.

      Dementia due to Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant triplet repeat disease affecting chromosome 4. It usually presents in middle-aged patients with movement disorders (chorea) and progresses to seizures, dementia and death.

      Vascular dementia occurs in a stepwise fashion, with occlusive events leading to sudden new losses of function. Patients develop frontal release and localising neurologic signs relatively early.

      Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease is characterised by loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. It also presents with bradykinesia, rigidity, cogwheeling and shuffling gait.

      Alzheimer’s disease has an insidious onset with gradual, continuous progression. Cognitive and language dysfunction occur early, with motor dysfunction and cortical release signs only appearing after diffuse cortical damage has occurred.

      Dementia due to normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by the classical triad of dementia, shuffling gait and incontinence. This condition results from blockage of the normal drainage of the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Early recognition and aggressive treatment for cardiovascular disease may slow progression of vascular dementia. Although the changes of vascular dementia are irreversible, the other types of dementia have no cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in a psychiatry ward with a few weeks of feeling unwell and stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for symptom control. Her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What is the most crucial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum creatine phosphokinase

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. The risk of NMS may increase when these medications are taken alongside lithium or anticholinergics. Symptoms of NMS include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. The latter is always elevated and reflects muscle damage caused by intense muscle contractions.

      Treatment for NMS involves discontinuing the use of the medication that caused the syndrome and reducing body temperature with antipyretics. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be beneficial. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur during antipsychotic treatment. By doing so, patients can receive prompt treatment and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - What distinguishes graded potentials from action potentials? ...

    Incorrect

    • What distinguishes graded potentials from action potentials?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graded potentials are localised, while action potentials conduct across the entire axon

      Explanation:

      Graded Potentials vs. Action Potentials

      Graded potentials are changes in the transmembrane potential that occur mainly in the dendrites and soma of a neuron. These changes do not cause significant depolarization to spread far from the area surrounding the site of stimulation. Graded potentials may or may not lead to an action potential, depending on the magnitude of depolarization. On the other hand, action potentials exhibit a refractory phase and are not subject to either temporal or spatial summation.

      Graded potentials involve chemical, mechanical, or light-gated channels that allow for an influx of sodium ions into the cytosol. In contrast, action potentials involve only voltage-gated ion channels, specifically sodium and potassium. Graded potentials typically last from a few milliseconds to even minutes, while action potential duration ranges between 0.5 – 2 milliseconds.

      In summary, graded and action potentials are two distinct phenomena. Graded potentials are subject to modulation by both temporal and spatial summation, while action potentials are not. Graded potentials involve different types of ion channels compared to action potentials. the differences between these two types of potentials is crucial in the complex processes that occur in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old girl without past medical history is brought to the General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl without past medical history is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother with 24 hours of headache and fever. She has also had two episodes of non-bloody vomiting this morning and states that ‘both legs are sore all over’. She is up to date with all of her vaccinations and has never been hospitalised in the past. No one in the child’s social circle has been unwell recently and she has no travel history. She has no drug allergies.
      On examination, discrete lesions of approximately 1–2 mm are visible, present on the trunk and legs. This rash is non-blanching. The mucous membranes are moist without lesions present. Her hands are cool to touch with a capillary refill time of three seconds. She is unable to fully flex her neck. Her observations are shown below:
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Blood pressure 100/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 107 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of Meningococcal Meningitis: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Meningococcal meningitis is a serious bacterial infection that requires urgent medical attention. In patients presenting with symptoms such as a non-blanching petechial rash, myalgia, and unstable vital signs, immediate transfer to a hospital and treatment with intramuscular benzylpenicillin is imperative. Third-generation cephalosporins can be considered in patients with a penicillin allergy. Early recognition and prompt treatment with antibiotics are associated with improved prognosis. Discharging the patient with supportive care would be inappropriate in this case.

      Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are not recommended in the acute management of meningococcal meningitis. Ciprofloxacin is indicated in close contacts of patients with meningococcal infection and should be given as early as possible following exposure. Local health authorities should also be notified.

      Although the effectiveness of steroids in preventing neurological complications following bacterial meningitis has not been conclusively proven in studies, they are often prescribed in the clinical setting. Oral prednisolone, however, is not indicated in these patients.

      Oral rifampicin is not indicated in the acute management of patients with bacterial meningitis, but it can be considered in close contacts who come into contact with the index case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity and Intraventricular Haemorrhages

      Prematurity is linked to the occurrence of intraventricular haemorrhages, which are believed to be caused by the fragility of blood vessels. However, it is important to note that intraventricular haemorrhage is not typically a symptom of haemophilia.

      Prematurity refers to a baby being born before the 37th week of pregnancy. Babies born prematurely are at a higher risk of developing intraventricular haemorrhages, which occur when there is bleeding in the brain’s ventricles. This is because the blood vessels in premature babies’ brains are not fully developed and are therefore more fragile. Intraventricular haemorrhages can lead to serious complications, such as brain damage and developmental delays.

      On the other hand, haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot. While haemophilia can cause bleeding in various parts of the body, it is not typically associated with intraventricular haemorrhages. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and upward eye movement. What could be the probable reason for his abrupt onset?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Oculogyric Crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is a common ocular dystonic reaction that often occurs as a side effect of neuroleptic drug treatment. This condition is characterized by a sustained upward deviation of the eyes, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The onset of a crisis may be paroxysmal or stuttering over several hours, and the eyes may also converge, deviate upward and laterally, or deviate downward.

      In addition to the ocular symptoms, oculogyric crisis may also be associated with other findings such as backwards and lateral flexion of the neck, widely opened mouth, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. The causes or triggering factors of this condition include various medications such as neuroleptics, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics, as well as medical conditions like postencephalitic Parkinson’s, Tourette’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis, neurosyphilis, and head trauma.

      It is important to recognize and manage oculogyric crisis promptly to prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes. Healthcare providers should be aware of the medications and medical conditions that may trigger this condition and monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of oculogyric crisis. Treatment options may include discontinuing the offending medication, administering anticholinergic or antihistaminic agents, or using benzodiazepines or other sedatives to manage symptoms. With proper management, most patients with oculogyric crisis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy

      His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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