-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman on antiepileptic medication presents with nausea, diarrhoea, drowsiness, weight gain and thinning of hair.
Select the medication that is most likely to cause these symptoms.Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs
Antiepileptic drugs are commonly used to treat epilepsy, but they can also cause a range of side effects. The British National Formulary lists the most common side effects of these drugs, which include ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, pancreatitis, and weight gain.
Sodium valproate, for example, is associated with ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, and pancreatitis. Long-term use of this drug may also lead to weight gain. Phenytoin can cause gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, folate deficiency, osteomalacia, and neuropathy. Phenobarbital and carbamazepine can also cause folate deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, osteomalacia, and neuropathy.
Vigabatrin usage may cause aggression, alopecia, retinal atrophy, and reduced peripheral vision. Carbamazepine can also cause ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, thrombocytopenia, and other blood dyscrasias. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking antiepileptic drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
At what age, typically, should a child be able to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling it?
Your Answer: 3-3.5 years
Correct Answer: 2-2.5 years
Explanation:At the age of 2, a child is expected to have the ability to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling. This is based on both the MRCPCH development guidelines and commonly accepted developmental milestones. As such, it appears that the child in question is progressing normally, and the mother can be given reassurance.
Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play
Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.
In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.
When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.
Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.
A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.
What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.
For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a urethral swab taken last week. Despite being advised to attend a sexual health clinic, he is unwilling to do so and has requested that you prescribe him treatment.
He has a fear of needles and refuses intramuscular ceftriaxone.
What is the most suitable alternative oral regimen available?Your Answer: Azithromycin
Correct Answer: Cefixime and azithromycin
Explanation:When treating patients with gonorrhoea, a combination of oral cefixime and oral azithromycin is typically used if the patient refuses an intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone. However, NICE recommends that gonorrhoea should only be treated in primary care if specialist services are not available within a reasonable timeframe or if the patient chooses not to attend despite receiving appropriate information and advice.
If uncomplicated anogenital gonorrhoea needs to be treated in primary care, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1g intramuscular injection is the preferred option. However, alternative regimens may be necessary if the patient has an allergy, needle phobia, or other contraindications. In such cases, cefixime orally as a single dose plus azithromycin orally is recommended.
It’s important to note that azithromycin resistance is high, and the clinical efficacy of azithromycin doesn’t always correlate with in vitro susceptibility testing. Therefore, a single oral dose of azithromycin would not be the most appropriate option.
While doxycycline, erythromycin, and ofloxacin are all possible choices for treating chlamydia, they are not effective in treating gonorrhoea.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and stiffness throughout the day.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer: Corticosteroid injection
Correct Answer: Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. The following are some of the treatment options available for managing this condition:
Oral Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
NSAIDs are the first-line medication recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for managing ankylosing spondylitis. They help to reduce pain and stiffness in the affected joints.Corticosteroid Injection
Intra-articular steroid injections can be used to treat a flare of ankylosing spondylitis that has not responded to oral NSAIDs or other oral treatments. However, repeated injections are associated with risks such as joint infection.Oral Corticosteroids
Oral corticosteroids can be used to treat symptoms that are not responding to other oral treatments. However, their use is limited due to the multiple complications and side effects associated with long-term use.Paracetamol and Codeine
If patients have an allergy, severe asthma, or a high risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, alternative analgesia should be considered, such as paracetamol and codeine.Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF)-Alpha Inhibitor
TNF-alpha inhibitors are used to treat ankylosing spondylitis in patients whose symptoms are not controlled on other treatments. However, they must be prescribed and monitored in secondary care.Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis: Treatment Options
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 67-year-old woman visits the local radiotherapy suite, where she is undergoing radiotherapy treatment for endometrial cancer after a radical hysterectomy. She reports that both of her legs have been swollen for some weeks but that, in the last day, her right calf has become more swollen and is slightly painful on weight-bearing.
On examination, she can weight bear and there is no change in the left leg. The right calf is 36 cm when measured 10 cm distal to the tibial tuberosity, compared with 32 cm on the left. There is mild pitting oedema on the right ankle and medial calf tenderness.
What is the most appropriate scoring tool to use in this case?Your Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Scoring Tools in Clinical Practice
In clinical practice, various scoring tools are used to aid in the diagnosis and management of different medical conditions. The Wells score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients with symptoms such as pain and swelling in the calf. The Ottawa ankle rules, on the other hand, are guidelines used to determine if a patient with foot or ankle pain should undergo an X-ray to diagnose a possible ankle bone fracture. The National Early Warning Score (NEWS) is a tool developed to improve the detection and response to clinical deterioration in adult patients. The CHA2DS2VASC score is used to assess the stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, while the Child-Pugh score is used to measure the severity of liver cirrhosis. These scoring tools play a crucial role in clinical decision-making and patient management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity comes in for a visit after experiencing a late period. Upon taking a urinary hCG test, it comes back positive. She is currently taking the following medications:
- Orlistat 120mg three times a day
- Simvastatin 40 mg once a day
- Aspirin 75 mg once a day
- Metformin 1g twice a day
- Paracetamol 1g four times a day
- Aqueous cream as needed
Which medication should be discontinued immediately?Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
Select the single correct statement about her management.Your Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis
Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. He mentions that he has noticed a few lesions on her foot. He adds that she is perfectly fine and that he only noticed them while giving her a bath yesterday. You diagnose viral warts. The father inquires about the treatment options.
Your Answer: Treatment not required as most will resolve spontaneously
Explanation:As the warts are not causing any issues for the patient, it is highly recommended to provide reassurance and advise against treatment. Prescribing topical antiviral treatments or steroids would not be beneficial in this case. While cryotherapy and topical salicylic acid treatment are possible options, it is best to adopt a wait-and-see approach since the warts are not causing any problems. Therefore, the answer is that treatment is unnecessary as most warts will resolve on their own.
Understanding Viral Warts: When to Seek Treatment
Viral warts are a common skin condition caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). While they are generally harmless, they can be painful and unsightly, leading some patients to seek treatment. However, in most cases, treatment is not necessary as warts will typically resolve on their own within a few months to two years. In fact, it can take up to 10 years for warts to disappear in adults.
It is important to note that while viral warts are not a serious medical concern, they can be contagious and easily spread through skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as towels or razors with others to prevent the spread of warts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man had a splenectomy after a car crash.
Which of the following should he receive as prophylaxis against pneumococcal infection?Your Answer: No antibiotic
Explanation:Management of Splenectomy Patients in Primary Care
Splenectomy patients require lifelong antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccine to prevent infections. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the recommended antibiotic for these patients. However, it is easy for these patients to be missed in primary care if their records are not properly coded. This can happen if incoming letters are not adequately summarised or coded.
To ensure that new information in clinic letters is properly coded, it is important to have a system in place. Primary care providers can audit their patients to ensure that those with splenectomies are receiving the necessary antibiotics and vaccines. By doing so, primary care providers can ensure that their patients are receiving the best possible care and are protected against infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of haloes and impaired vision when watching television, often accompanied by headaches. The examination is normal, but she is routinely referred to the local ophthalmology clinic. The following day you receive a phone call from her husband to say that she has lost vision in her right eye and has a severe headache and eye pain and is vomiting. You visit her and find that she has a fixed pupil and a hazy cornea and the eye feels very hard.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic glaucoma
Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Acute angle-closure glaucoma occurs when the iris blocks the drainage of aqueous humour, leading to a rise in intraocular pressure. Symptoms include visual disturbances in low-light situations, severe eye pain, and require immediate treatment with medication and surgery.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a complication of facial or sinus infections, presenting with headache, fever, cranial nerve signs, and periorbital swelling.
Acute anterior uveitis causes unilateral eye pain, redness, photophobia, and decreased vision. It develops over hours or days and requires urgent treatment.
Chronic glaucoma leads to gradual visual field loss due to damage to the optic nerve head and can be managed with topical medication.
Subacute closed-angle glaucoma should be treated urgently to prevent vision loss. Immediate admission is necessary.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate acne. She has attempted using benzoyl peroxide from the drugstore. She discloses that she is presently attempting to get pregnant. Which of the subsequent acne treatments would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin
Explanation:Pregnancy poses a challenge when it comes to treating acne as many treatments can be harmful to the developing foetus. It is important to consider this issue before starting any treatment, especially in women of childbearing age who may not yet know they are pregnant.
Retinoids, such as isotretinoin and adapalene, are not safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Dianette, a contraceptive pill, is not suitable for this patient who is trying to conceive. Antibiotics like oxytetracycline, tetracycline, lymecycline, and doxycycline can accumulate in growing bones and teeth, making them unsuitable for use during pregnancy. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Liam is a 2-day old boy who was born with a pale pink patch on the back of his neck. It has an irregular edge and is more visible when he cries. It was noted to blanch with pressure.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own without treatment. These birthmarks are often found in symmetrical patterns on the forehead, eyelids, or nape of the neck.
Cafe-au-lait spots are another type of birthmark that appear as brown patches on the skin. While they are common, they can sometimes be a sign of an underlying medical condition.
Cherry angiomas are small, red bumps that tend to develop later in life.
Port-wine stains are a rare type of birthmark that can darken over time and are often asymmetrical in appearance.
Strawberry naevi are raised, red lesions that typically appear within the first few weeks of life.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.
The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.
Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.
In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who delivered a baby a week ago comes in for a follow-up appointment with her spouse. The husband expresses concern about her mood as she appears to be depressed and is not bonding well with the newborn. He recalls her behavior three days ago when she was speaking rapidly and incoherently about the future. The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but mentions that she feels like her child has been born into a terrible world. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission
Explanation:The mother’s behavior suggests that she may be experiencing puerperal psychosis and requires immediate admission for psychiatric assessment.
Although not all psychotic symptoms are present, there are several indications of significant mental health issues, such as the mother’s unusual lack of interaction with her baby, incoherent speech about the future, and expressing concern that the baby has been born into a troubled world.
Therefore, it is crucial that the mother receives prompt psychiatric evaluation.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been using a topical gel containing benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin for the past 3 months but has not seen significant improvement.
Upon examination, she has inflammatory papules and closed comedones on her forehead and chin, as well as some on her upper back. She is interested in a stronger medication and asks if she should continue using the gel alongside it.
What advice should you give regarding her current topical treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to topical benzoyl peroxide alone, or topical retinoid
Explanation:To effectively treat acne, it is not recommended to use both topical and oral antibiotics together. Instead, the patient should switch to using either topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid alone. Continuing to use the current combination gel or switching to topical clindamycin or topical lymecycline alone are not recommended as they involve the use of both topical and oral antibiotics, which can lead to antibiotic resistance. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid with oral antibiotics is a more effective treatment option.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning. The symptoms have since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal Detachment: A Time-Critical Eye Emergency
Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be associated with various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies that require immediate medical attention.
Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which statements accurately describe an intention to treat analysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a study comparing the effects of treatment with placebo or active treatment and also a similar group of non-study participants
Explanation:Intention to Treat Studies
When conducting a randomised study, the principles of double-blind placebo control may apply, but the preferential fall out of patients who do not perceive a benefit from the placebo may introduce bias. Intention to treat studies argue that all patients who originally participate in the study should be committed to analysis. This approach maintains treatment groups that are similar apart from random variation, which is the reason for randomisation. Failure to perform analysis on the groups produced by the randomisation process may result in the loss of this feature. Additionally, intention to treat studies permit non-compliance and deviations from policy by clinicians. By committing all patients to analysis, intention to treat studies provide a more accurate representation of the effectiveness of a treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
Investigations have shown the following hepatitis B (HBV) serology:
Test Result
HBsAg
(Hepatitis B surface antigen)
Positive
HBeAg
(Hepatitis B e-antigen)
Positive
Anti-HBs
(Antibody to HBsAg)
Negative
Anti-HBe
(Antibody to HBeAg)
Negative
Anti-HBc IgG
(Antibody to hepatitis B core-antigen immunoglobulin G)
Positive
Which of the following most accurately reflects this patient’s HBV status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent carrier, high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Understanding the results of hepatitis B tests is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here, we will discuss the different test results and what they mean.
Persistent Carrier with High Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen, e-antigen, and core antibody, and negative for surface antibodies and e-antibodies, it suggests chronic carrier status. The presence of e-antigen confers high infectivity, indicating active viral replication. Core antibodies are a marker of past infection and will not be found in vaccinated individuals who have never been infected.Persistent Carrier with Low Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen and core antibody, but negative for e-antigen and e-antibodies, it suggests a moderately high viral load and elevated ALT levels. This is caused by a hepatitis B virus that has certain mutations (pre-core mutation) that allow the virus to replicate even when the e-antigen is absent.Previous Vaccination against Hepatitis B:
If a patient has surface antibodies but not core antibodies, it indicates previous vaccination against hepatitis B.Spontaneously Cleared Infection:
If a patient has lost surface antigen and developed surface antibodies, it marks seroconversion and indicates immunity. If IgM antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc IgM) are present, it indicates recent infection.In conclusion, understanding hepatitis B test results is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for interpretation of test results and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried about his significant cognitive decline over the past few months. Throughout the day, his level of consciousness fluctuates greatly, and he often sleeps for two hours or more. One of your colleagues prescribed him benzodiazepines to aid his sleep, and he reportedly drinks a glass of whisky in the evening. Additionally, there are concerns about visual hallucinations. During the examination, you observe signs of Parkinsonism.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a unique type of dementia that shares characteristics with both dementia and Parkinson’s disease. Patients with Lewy body dementia often experience fluctuating levels of consciousness, with daytime somnolence lasting more than two hours per day. They may also experience visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian movement features, delusions, and syncopal attacks more commonly than other types of dementia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to recognize the main features of Lewy body dementia and avoid prescribing traditional neuroleptics, which can significantly impact movement and even result in sudden death for patients with this disease. With an increased emphasis on the diagnosis and management of dementia in primary care, having an awareness of the different types of dementia and their respective aetiologies and risk factors is crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing these symptoms? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Common vitamin deficiencies and their associated symptoms
Thiamine deficiency, often seen in individuals with a history of alcohol abuse, can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which presents with confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, glossitis, mouth ulcers, and neurological symptoms like paraesthesia and memory disturbance. Pellagra, a vitamin B3 deficiency, is characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. Folate deficiency is commonly found in macrocytic anaemia and may present with symptoms like paraesthesia and fatigue. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteomalacia, which presents with bone and muscle pain and weakness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought in for surgery. Her mother reports that her stools have always been firm and for the past two weeks, she has been taking a combination of lactulose (10ml bd) and senna (2 tablets od) prescribed by a colleague. However, she is still only passing a hard stool every 2-3 days. The clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch the lactulose for a macrogol (Movicol Paediatric Plain)
Explanation:Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
You are asked to assess an elderly 83-year-old man who has advanced prostate cancer and is experiencing poor appetite and anorexia. Upon further inquiry, he reports that his nausea is well-managed with cyclizine as needed, and he doesn't have any difficulty swallowing. His pain is adequately controlled, and he has regular bowel movements. What would be the most beneficial approach in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nutritional supplements alongside any tolerated diet
Explanation:Addressing Lack of Appetite in Palliative Care Patients
A thorough history and clinical examination are crucial in identifying the underlying cause of anorexia and lack of appetite in palliative care patients. Pain, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia are some of the potential causes that need to be treated accordingly. However, if the primary cause is a lack of appetite, specific measures should be taken to address it.
Home care input may not be effective in improving appetite, and changing antiemetics is unnecessary if the current medication is working well. Nutritional supplements may aid in caloric intake, but addressing the lack of appetite is still the priority. Referral for PEG feeding is not appropriate if there are no physical problems preventing oral intake.
The best option to stimulate appetite and improve oral intake is a course of prednisolone or dexamethasone. These corticosteroids have been proven to increase appetite and enjoyment of food in many patients. Progestogens are also effective but are more expensive.
In conclusion, addressing the lack of appetite in palliative care patients is crucial in improving their quality of life. A thorough assessment of the underlying cause is necessary, and appropriate measures should be taken to address it. Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and dexamethasone are effective in stimulating appetite and improving oral intake.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to urology
Explanation:Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women
Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.
On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.
Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she is ‘having difficulty breathing’. A harsh inspiratory stridor is heard. You suspect that she may have tracheomalacia.
Which of the following would support this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stridor which worsens when the child is supine
Explanation:Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Condition in Young Babies
Laryngomalacia, also known as congenital laryngeal stridor, is a condition that affects many young babies. It is caused by delayed maturation of the cartilage in the larynx, which leads to collapse of the supraglottic larynx during inspiration. This results in a noisy respiration and an inspiratory stridor, which is typically more noticeable when the baby is in a supine position, feeding, crying, sleeping, or during intercurrent illness.
While there may be gastro-oesophageal reflux, the child is otherwise well and there is no associated upper respiratory discharge. However, infants with laryngomalacia may have difficulty coordinating the ‘suck-swallow-breathe’ sequence needed for feeding due to their airway obstruction.
It is important to note that respiratory distress is uncommon, and if there is tachypnoea, it is only mild and there is no reduction in oxygen saturation. Additionally, a barking cough is not a typical symptom of laryngomalacia. The classic symptom is inspiratory stridor, which may be increased when the child has an upper respiratory infection.
While symptoms may initially worsen, they typically resolve by 18-24 months without the need for treatment. However, if the stridor is worsening, other diagnoses should be considered. Overall, understanding laryngomalacia can help parents and caregivers better recognize and manage this common condition in young babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains in both feet that have been ongoing for several months. On examination, she has easily palpable pedal pulses but reduced light touch sensation in both feet up to her ankles. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 76 mmol/mol (9.1%) with normal full blood count, renal and liver function. She is currently taking metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. You discuss the importance of tighter glycemic control and potential medications that may help alleviate her symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for her burning foot pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The key points include offering a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment for all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia). If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs should be offered, with consideration for switching again if necessary. Tramadol should only be considered for acute rescue therapy, and capsaicin cream may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Nortriptyline is no longer recommended as an alternative to amitriptyline, and lamotrigine and venlafaxine are not recommended in non-specialized settings. It is important to note that there are many plausible options for medication, but the test is to select the one listed in the options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee
Explanation:Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study
This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.
It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as the on-call physician. She had an uncomplicated medical abortion 13 days ago and had unprotected sex last night. She is uncertain if she requires emergency contraception. She has no specific contraception contraindications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and the copper intrauterine device is the only treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options Post-Abortion
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends emergency contraception if unprotected sexual intercourse occurs from five days post-abortion. There are three safe options for emergency contraception: oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, ulipristal acetate 30 mg, and the copper intrauterine device. The copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000 when used for emergency contraception. However, it carries the same contraindications as when used for regular contraception. It is important to consider all options and consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for individual needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing a persistent nappy rash despite his best efforts to care for her skin. The baby seems uncomfortable but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the nappy area shows patches of red, oozing skin with a few scattered pustules. The baby doesn't have a fever.
What could be the reason for this skin reaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial infection
Explanation:Nappy rash is a common condition that affects infants who wear nappies. It is most prevalent between the ages of 9 and 12 months, but can also affect older children and adults who are incontinent.
The rash typically appears as red patches and bumps in the nappy area, with the skin folds being spared. Infants may appear uncomfortable and distressed. It is important to look out for signs of secondary infection, especially if the rash persists despite initial treatment. Secondary bacterial infections can cause marked redness, exudate, pustules, papules or blisters. If a bacterial infection is suspected or confirmed, NICE recommends a seven-day course of flucloxacillin (or clarithromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin).
Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them
Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.
To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.
It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)