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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred to the rheumatology team. Following investigations, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Despite initial treatments with naproxen and etoricoxib, his symptoms persist. After discussion at a multidisciplinary team meeting, a trial of golimumab is recommended. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: CD20 antagonist

      Correct Answer: Tumour necrosis factor alpha antagonist

      Explanation:

      Golimumab is classified as a TNF alpha antagonist, which inhibits the action of tumour necrosis factor. It is prescribed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis and is administered subcutaneously every four weeks. Rituximab is an example of a CD20 antagonist, used for the management of rheumatoid arthritis and certain types of blood cancer. CD38 antagonists, such as daratumumab, are being studied in clinical trials and are currently used for the treatment of multiple myeloma. Anakinra is an interleukin-1 inhibitor used for rheumatoid arthritis, while secukinumab is an interleukin-17A inhibitor licensed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis under specialist use.

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      22.3
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past 3 months. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy at home.

      During the examination, the patient's face appears plethoric, but there is no evidence of dyspnea at rest.

      The patient's FEV1/FVC ratio remains unchanged at 0.4, and her peak flow is 50% of the predicted value. However, her transfer factor is unexpectedly elevated.

      What could be the possible cause of this unexpected finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      The transfer factor is typically low in most conditions that impair alveolar diffusion, except for polycythaemia, asthma, haemorrhage, and left-to-right shunts, which can cause an increased transfer of carbon monoxide. In this case, the patient’s plethoric facies suggest polycythaemia as the cause of their increased transfer factor. It’s important to note that exacerbations of COPD, pneumonia, and pulmonary fibrosis typically result in a low transfer factor, not an increased one.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 3 - What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding the H1N1 influenzae Pandemic

      The H1N1 influenzae pandemic, also known as swine flu, emerged in Mexico in early 2009 and was declared a global pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) in June of the same year. This outbreak was caused by a new strain of the H1N1 virus, which is a subtype of the influenzae A virus and the most common cause of flu in humans. The pandemic posed a significant threat to certain groups, including patients with chronic illnesses, those on immunosuppressants, pregnant women, and young children under 5 years old.

      The symptoms of H1N1 influenzae are similar to those of a typical flu-like illness, including fever, myalgia, lethargy, headache, rhinitis, sore throat, cough, and diarrhea and vomiting. However, a minority of patients may develop acute respiratory distress syndrome, which can be life-threatening and require ventilatory support.

      Currently, there are two main treatments available for H1N1 influenzae: oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza). Oseltamivir is an oral medication that works as a neuraminidase inhibitor, preventing new viral particles from being released by infected cells. Common side effects of oseltamivir include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headaches. Zanamivir, on the other hand, is an inhaled medication that also works as a neuraminidase inhibitor. However, it may induce bronchospasm in asthmatics. Intravenous preparations of zanamivir are available for patients who are acutely unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 4 - Jill, a 24-year-old female, falls on an outstretched hand and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • Jill, a 24-year-old female, falls on an outstretched hand and is diagnosed with a scaphoid fracture. During examination, she exhibits tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox. What structures form the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and the ABductor pollicis longus tendons

      Explanation:

      The lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus, not the muscles.

      To remember the borders, use the phrase Brevis sandwich which stands for the abductor pollicis longus tendons, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus.

      The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, indigestion, and weight...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, indigestion, and weight loss that has been going on for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor notices jaundice in the conjunctival sclera and mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant upon palpation. After conducting scans and biopsy, the results suggest gallbladder cancer.

      What is the most likely lymph node to be the first site of metastasis for the cancer cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lund's node (cystic lymph node)

      Explanation:

      Lund’s node serves as the first lymph node to be affected by cancer cells draining from the gallbladder, making it the sentinel lymph node for this organ. This suggests that Lund’s node is the primary target for metastasis in gallbladder cancer.

      Cloquet’s node is classified as one of the deep inguinal nodes, while Virchow’s node is a sentinel lymph node located on the left supraclavicular region. Virchow’s node is associated with certain abdominal cancers, such as gastric cancer.

      Peyer’s patches are clusters of lymphoid follicles that can be found throughout the ileum.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they have recently been seen by an ophthalmologist. On ocular examination, they have been noted to have myopia (nearsightedness), with no other obvious pathological change. The specialist recommends spectacles for the treatment of this condition. Your patient mentioned that they do not fully understand why they require glasses. You draw them a diagram to explain the cause of their short-sightedness.

      Where is the approximate point that light rays converge in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the vitreous body, anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Myopia is a condition where the visual axis of the eye is too long, causing the image to be focused in front of the retina. This is typically caused by an imbalance between the length of the eye and the power of the cornea and lens system.

      In a healthy eye, light is first focused by the cornea and then by the crystalline lens, resulting in a clear image on the retina. If the light converges anterior to the crystalline lens, it may indicate severe corneal disruption, which can occur in conditions such as ocular trauma and keratoconus.

      Myopia is a common refractive error where the light rays converge posterior to the crystalline lens and anterior to the retina. This occurs when the cornea and lens system are too powerful for the length of the eye. Corrective lenses can be used to refract the light before it enters the eye, with a concave lens being required to correct the refractive error in a myopic eye.

      If the light rays converge on the crystalline lens, it may also indicate severe corneal disruption. Conversely, if the light rays converge posterior to the retina, it may indicate hyperopia (hypermetropia).

      In an emmetropic eye (no refractive error), the light rays converge on the fovea, resulting in a clear image on the retina.

      A gradual decline in vision is a prevalent issue among the elderly population, leading them to seek guidance from healthcare providers. This condition can be attributed to various causes, including cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Both of these conditions can cause a gradual loss of vision over time, making it difficult for individuals to perform daily activities such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces. As a result, it is essential for individuals experiencing a decline in vision to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a...

    Incorrect

    • During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a shunt, which vessels will not experience reduced or absent flow?

      Assuming that no shunt is inserted, which vessels will not have diminished or absent flow as a result during a carotid endarterectomy where the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery gives rise to the maxillary artery.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old woman comes in for her yearly diabetic check-up. Despite being on...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes in for her yearly diabetic check-up. Despite being on metformin and gliclazide for a year, her HbA1c level remains at 57 mmol/mol. She mentions difficulty losing weight, and her BMI is recorded as 36 kg/m². The doctor decides to prescribe sitagliptin. How does this medication lower blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reducing the peripheral breakdown of incretin

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, also known as gliptins, function by decreasing the breakdown of incretins like GLP-1 in the periphery. This leads to an increase in incretin levels, which in turn lowers blood glucose levels.

      It is important to note that increasing the peripheral breakdown of incretin would have the opposite effect and worsen glycaemic control.

      Metformin, on the other hand, works by enhancing the uptake of insulin in the periphery.

      Reducing the secretion of insulin from the pancreas would not be an effective mechanism and would actually raise glucose levels in the blood.

      SGLT2 inhibitors, such as dapagliflozin, function by reducing the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 9 - A 82-year-old male is admitted to the Emergency Room with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old male is admitted to the Emergency Room with complaints of severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. Upon conducting an Electrocardiography (ECG), it is confirmed that he is suffering from ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He is then transferred for percutaneous coronary intervention but unfortunately, he suffers a cardiac arrest and passes away 12 hours after his initial presentation. What are the probable histological findings that would be observed in his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, hypercontraction of myofibrils

      Explanation:

      In the first 24 hours after a myocardial infarction (MI), histology findings show early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibers, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This stage carries a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock.

      Between 1 and 3 days post-MI, extensive coagulative necrosis and neutrophils are present, which can be associated with fibrinous pericarditis.

      From 3 to 14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue appear at the margins. This stage carries a high risk of free wall rupture, papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm.

      Between 2 weeks and several months post-MI, the contracted scar is complete. This stage is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old girl experiences vomiting, hypotension, and severe urticaria after consuming a peanut....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl experiences vomiting, hypotension, and severe urticaria after consuming a peanut. Which cell line is primarily involved in the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor

      Explanation:

      Mast cells originate from common myeloid progenitor cells.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She has been in good health lately, except for a stomach bug she had two weeks ago. Her medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, and type II diabetes mellitus. Although she used to smoke, she has quit and does not drink alcohol. She lives with her husband in a bungalow.

      During the consultation, she reveals that her cardiologist recently prescribed niacin to her. Her recent lab results show an increase in total cholesterol.

      Which of the following is responsible for the adverse effects observed in this patient?

      Substance P
      15%
      Bradykinin
      20%
      Prostaglandins
      48%
      Serotonin
      9%
      Kallikreins
      8%

      The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itching, are caused by prostaglandins.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itchiness, are caused by the release of prostaglandins. Niacin activates dermal Langerhans cells, which leads to an increase in prostaglandin release and subsequent vasodilation. To prevent these side effects, aspirin is often given 30 minutes before niacin administration. Aspirin works by altering the activity of COX-2, which reduces prostaglandin release.

      Substance P acts as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, and its neurokinin (NK) receptor 1 is found in specific areas of the brain that affect behavior and the neurochemical response to both psychological and somatic stress.

      Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation, but it is not responsible for the adverse effects seen with niacin use.

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various processes in the brain. Low levels of serotonin are often associated with anxiety, panic attacks, obesity, and insomnia. However, serotonin does not mediate the side effects observed with niacin use.

      Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a medication used to treat hyperlipidaemia. It is effective in reducing cholesterol and triglyceride levels while increasing HDL levels. However, its use is limited due to the occurrence of side-effects. One of the most common side-effects is flushing, which is caused by prostaglandins. Additionally, nicotinic acid may impair glucose tolerance and lead to myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound on the left side of his neck above the clavicle. Upon examination, there is no indication of damage to the pleura or any major blood vessels. However, a winged scapula is observed on the left side of his back, with the scapula protruding from the chest wall and the inferior angle pointing towards the midline. What nerve is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The nerve responsible for a winged scapula is the long thoracic nerve, which originates from C5-7 and travels along the thorax to reach the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve can cause the scapula to lift off the thoracic wall and limit shoulder movement. Other nerves that can cause a winged scapula include the accessory nerve and dorsal scapular nerve. The transverse cervical nerve supplies the neck, the phrenic nerve supplies the diaphragm, the greater auricular nerve supplies the mandible and ear, and the suprascapular nerve supplies the shoulder muscles and joints.

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - Sarah, a 68-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 68-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of shortness of breath and swollen ankles that have been worsening for the past four months. During the consultation, the doctor observes that Sarah is using more pillows than usual. She has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous myocardial infarction. The doctor also notices a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and suspects congestive heart failure. What would indicate a normal JVP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 cm from the vertical height above the sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The normal range for jugular venous pressure is within 3 cm of the vertical height above the sternal angle. This measurement is used to estimate central venous pressure by observing the internal jugular vein, which connects to the right atrium. To obtain this measurement, the patient is positioned at a 45º angle, the right internal jugular vein is observed between the two heads of sternocleidomastoid, and a ruler is placed horizontally from the highest pulsation point of the vein to the sternal angle, with an additional 5cm added to the measurement. A JVP measurement greater than 3 cm from the sternal angle may indicate conditions such as right-sided heart failure, cardiac tamponade, superior vena cava obstruction, or fluid overload.

      Understanding the Jugular Venous Pulse

      The jugular venous pulse is a useful tool in assessing right atrial pressure and identifying underlying valvular disease. The waveform of the jugular vein can provide valuable information, such as a non-pulsatile JVP indicating superior vena caval obstruction and Kussmaul’s sign indicating constrictive pericarditis.

      The ‘a’ wave of the jugular venous pulse represents atrial contraction and can be large in conditions such as tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, and pulmonary hypertension. However, it may be absent in atrial fibrillation. Cannon ‘a’ waves occur when atrial contractions push against a closed tricuspid valve and are seen in complete heart block, ventricular tachycardia/ectopics, nodal rhythm, and single chamber ventricular pacing.

      The ‘c’ wave represents the closure of the tricuspid valve and is not normally visible. The ‘v’ wave is due to passive filling of blood into the atrium against a closed tricuspid valve and can be giant in tricuspid regurgitation. The ‘x’ descent represents the fall in atrial pressure during ventricular systole, while the ‘y’ descent represents the opening of the tricuspid valve.

      Understanding the jugular venous pulse and its various components can aid in the diagnosis and management of cardiovascular conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old patient comes in for her routine check-up at the psychiatric outpatient...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient comes in for her routine check-up at the psychiatric outpatient clinic. She has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. During the consultation, she discloses that she hears voices in her head instructing her to harm herself. Additionally, she sees apparitions of her deceased mother and cat. However, she is not frightened by these occurrences as she recognizes that they are not real. How would you characterize her atypical perceptions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations in Personality Disorders

      Pseudohallucinations are hallucinations that patients recognize as not being real. These hallucinations can occur spontaneously and are different from true perception. Patients can stop them willingly. Patients with personality disorders, especially borderline personality disorder, may experience semi-psychotic and pseudohallucinatory episodes that are challenging to treat with medication. Psycho-social interventions and a strong therapeutic alliance are the primary therapeutic techniques, with medication as a secondary option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department following his ejection from...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department following his ejection from a car during a road accident.

      During the examination, the patient responds to simple questions with incomprehensible sounds and opens his eyes in response to pain. There is also an abnormal wrist flexion when a sternal rub is applied, and a positive Battle's sign is observed.

      A CT scan of the head is ordered, which reveals a fracture of the petrous temporal bone.

      Which nerve is most likely to be affected by the patient's injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, which is correct. This nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression, parasympathetic innervation to salivary and lacrimal glands, and special sensory innervation of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue via the chorda tympani. The patient in question has a Glasgow Coma Score of 7, indicating nonspecific neurotrauma from a recent road traffic accident. It is unlikely that damage to the internal acoustic meatus would affect the glossopharyngeal or hypoglossal nerves, which pass through different structures. Damage to the oculomotor nerve, which passes through the superior orbital fissure, may cause ptosis and a dilated ‘down-and-out’ pupil.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female experiences repeated anterior dislocations of her left shoulder and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female experiences repeated anterior dislocations of her left shoulder and a CT scan shows a Bankart lesion. What is the name of the rotator cuff muscle tendon located at the front of the shoulder capsule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis tendon

      Explanation:

      The tendon of the subscapularis runs in front of the shoulder capsule, while the supraspinatus tendon runs above it. The tendons of the infraspinatus and teres minor run behind the shoulder capsule, with the infraspinatus tendon positioned above the teres minor tendon. It should be noted that the teres major muscle is not part of the rotator cuff. A Bankart lesion refers to a tear in the front part of the glenoid labrum and is commonly seen in cases of anterior shoulder dislocation.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old woman with a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia experienced sudden weakness in her right lower leg while preparing breakfast. She had a similar episode two days ago, which resolved after an hour. Her son brought her to the emergency department, where she reported her symptoms to the attending physician. The patient can speak well and fully comprehend what the doctor tells her. Upon examination, the doctor noted decreased touch sensation in her right leg. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan was unremarkable, but a repeat CT scan after 12 hours revealed an area of hypo-attenuation in a region of the brain. Which artery of the cerebral circulation is most likely to be occluded in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of stroke, likely caused by their long history of diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia, which are all risk factors for ischemic stroke. The absence of risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke, such as blood clotting disorders or warfarin use, supports this diagnosis. The CT scan performed upon admission may have been too early to detect the stroke, as ischemic strokes are typically visible on CT scans only after 6 hours. However, brain tissue swelling 12 hours later can produce an area of hypo-attenuation visible on CT scan.

      The patient’s contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with greater impact on the lower extremity than the upper, suggest an ischemic stroke affecting the anterior cerebral artery. If the posterior cerebral artery were obstructed, the patient would experience contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. An ischemic stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery would more likely affect the upper limbs and face, and could also impact language centers or cause hemineglect. An ischemic stroke affecting the basilar artery could result in severe neurological impairment, such as locked-in syndrome or quadriplegia. An occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery would cause swallowing impairment, hoarseness, and loss of the gag reflex.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find the adrenal gland situated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In its usual position

      Explanation:

      If the kidney is present, the adrenal gland will typically develop in its normal location instead of being absent.

      The adrenal cortex, which secretes steroids, is derived from the mesoderm of the posterior abdominal wall and is first detected at 6 weeks’ gestation. The fetal cortex predominates throughout fetal life, with adult-type zona glomerulosa and fasciculata detected but making up only a small proportion of the gland. The adrenal medulla, which is responsible for producing adrenaline, is of ectodermal origin and arises from neural crest cells that migrate to the medial aspect of the developing cortex. The fetal adrenal gland is relatively large, but it rapidly regresses at birth, disappearing almost completely by age 1 year. By age 4-5 years, the permanent adult-type adrenal cortex has fully developed.

      Anatomic anomalies of the adrenal gland may occur, such as agenesis of an adrenal gland being usually associated with ipsilateral agenesis of the kidney. Fused adrenal glands, whereby the two glands join across the midline posterior to the aorta, are also associated with a fused kidney. Adrenal hypoplasia can occur in two forms: hypoplasia or absence of the fetal cortex with a poorly formed medulla, or disorganized fetal cortex and medulla with no permanent cortex present. Adrenal heterotopia describes a normal adrenal gland in an abnormal location, such as within the renal or hepatic capsules. Accessory adrenal tissue, also known as adrenal rests, is most commonly located in the broad ligament or spermatic cord but can be found anywhere within the abdomen, and even intracranial adrenal rests have been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 19 - The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex...

    Incorrect

    • The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex of a newborn baby as the external genitalia appear ambiguous. The suspected condition is linked to an excess of androgen and a deficiency of mineralocorticoid. Can you explain the underlying pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described in the question is indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme 21-alphahydroxylase. This leads to an increase in androgen production, resulting in virilization of genitalia in XX females, making them appear as males at birth.

      On the other hand, a deficiency of 5-alpha reductase causes the opposite situation, where genetically XY males have external female genitalia.

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus may be associated with the presence of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase.

      A defect in the AIRE gene can lead to APECED, which is characterized by hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and candidiasis.

      Similarly, a defect in the FOXP3 gene can cause IPEX, which presents with immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness. After diagnosis, it is revealed that he has rheumatoid arthritis. What is the leading cause of mortality in this condition characterized by systemic inflammation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are believed to have a higher likelihood of developing atherosclerotic disorders, even if they are unaware of any pre-existing heart conditions or elevated cardiovascular risk. The underlying cause of this atherosclerosis is attributed to systemic inflammation, which is thought to expedite the progression of the disease.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The bleeding is controlled with silver nitrate cautery.

      Coincidentally, the doctor attending to her is also her nursing instructor. During their conversation about bleeding and clot formation, the nursing instructor explains that platelet disorders or a deficiency in thromboxane, a type of eicosanoid that aids in platelet aggregation and halts bleeding, can cause bleeding. Additionally, the nursing instructor mentions that thromboxane has another crucial role.

      What is another function of thromboxane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Thromboxane, which is produced by the action of thromboxane-A synthase on prostaglandin H2, not only promotes platelet aggregation but also acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor and hypertensive agent. By causing vasoconstriction, thromboxane reduces blood flow to the area where a clot has formed. It should be noted that thromboxane does not activate antithrombin or promote platelet degradation, contrary to the given incorrect answers.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 22 - Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas

      Explanation:

      Muscles and their Functions in Joint Movement

      The hip joint has three main flexors, namely the iliacus, psoas, and rectus femoris muscles. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. On the other hand, the gluteus maximus and medius muscles are involved in hip extension, which is the movement of bringing the thigh backward.

      Moving on to the elbow joint, the bicep femoris muscle is one of the primary flexors. This muscle is responsible for bending the elbow, which is the movement of bringing the forearm towards the upper arm. Lastly, the adductor brevis muscle is responsible for adducting the leg at the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the leg towards the midline of the body.

      In summary, muscles play a crucial role in joint movement. the functions of these muscles can help in identifying and addressing issues related to joint movement and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During palpation of the carotid pulse, the GP observes a pulse that quickly rises and falls. Upon auscultation of the heart, the GP detects a high-pitched early diastolic murmur that is decrescendo in nature. What cardiac abnormality is indicated by these examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation results in an early diastolic murmur, which is caused by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle through an incompetent aortic valve. This condition also leads to a rapid rise in the carotid pulse due to the forceful ejection of blood from an overloaded left ventricle, followed by a rapid fall due to the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. Patients with aortic regurgitation may also experience an ejection murmur, which is caused by the turbulent ejection of blood from the overloaded left ventricle. Aortic regurgitation can be caused by various factors, including aortic root dilation associated with ankylosing spondylitis, Marfan syndrome, or aortic dissection, as well as aortic valve leaflet disease resulting from calcific degeneration, congenital bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic heart disease, or infective endocarditis.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 24 - The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle...

    Incorrect

    • The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle traction, the midwife is unable to deliver the foetal shoulders after the head is delivered during a vaginal cephalic delivery. What is the most probable risk factor for this labour complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetal macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is the labour complication discussed in this case, and it is more likely to occur in cases of foetal macrosomia. This is because larger babies have a greater shoulder diameter, making it more difficult for the shoulders to pass through the pelvic outlet.

      Maternal pre-eclampsia is a risk factor for small for gestational age (SGA) pregnancies, but it is not directly linked to shoulder dystocia.

      Obstetric cholestasis is a liver disorder that can occur during pregnancy, but it does not increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      While a previous caesarean section may increase the likelihood of placenta praevia, placenta accreta, or uterine rupture, it is not a direct risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      A previous post-term delivery may increase the likelihood of future post-term deliveries, but it does not directly increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old man undergoes a routine ECG during his employment health check. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man undergoes a routine ECG during his employment health check. The ECG reveals sinus arrhythmia with varying P-P intervals and slight changes in the ventricular rate. The P waves exhibit normal morphology, and the P-R interval remains constant. The patient has a history of asthma and has been using inhalers more frequently due to an increase in running mileage. What is the probable cause of this rhythm, and how would you reassure the patient about the ECG results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular rate changes with ventilation

      Explanation:

      Sinus arrhythmia is a natural occurrence that is commonly observed in young and healthy individuals. It is characterized by a fluctuation in heart rate during breathing, with an increase in heart rate during inhalation and a decrease during exhalation. This is due to a decrease in vagal tone during inspiration and an increase during expiration. The P-R interval remains constant, indicating no heart block, while the varying P-P intervals reflect changes in the ventricular heart rate.

      While anxiety may cause tachycardia, it cannot explain the fluctuation in P-P intervals. Similarly, salbutamol may cause a brief increase in heart rate, but this would not result in varying P-P and P-R intervals. In healthy and fit individuals, there should be no variation in the firing of the sino-atrial node.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man was discovered collapsed outside a club on Saturday evening. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man was discovered collapsed outside a club on Saturday evening. According to his companion, he had consumed 10 pints of beer and began to retch. After an hour, he began to vomit blood. What is the medical diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Mallory-Weiss tears can be caused by repeated vomiting and are diagnosed through endoscopy.
      Acute pancreatitis presents with severe upper abdominal pain and elevated serum amylase levels.
      Coeliac disease causes diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss and is diagnosed through various tests.
      Gastric carcinoma can cause non-specific symptoms in early stages and more severe symptoms in later stages.
      Ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhoea, weight loss, and rectal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset of intense crushing chest pain.
      What is the most effective cardiac enzyme to determine if this patient has experienced a recurrent heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      The Most Useful Enzyme to Measure in Diagnosing Early Re-infarction

      In diagnosing early re-infarction, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use. This is because the levels of creatine kinase return to normal relatively quickly, unlike the levels of troponins which remain elevated at this stage post MI and are therefore not useful in diagnosing early re-infarction.

      The table above shows the rise, peak, and fall of various enzymes in the body after a myocardial infarction. As seen in the table, the levels of creatine kinase rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 24 hours, and fall within 3-4 days. On the other hand, troponin levels rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 12-16 hours, and fall within 5-14 days. This indicates that measuring creatine kinase levels is more useful in diagnosing early re-infarction as it returns to normal levels faster than troponins.

      In conclusion, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use in diagnosing early re-infarction. Its levels return to normal relatively quickly, making it a more reliable indicator of re-infarction compared to troponins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 28 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Incorrect

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it does not necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.

      The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.

      The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.

      The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.

      The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.

      Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

      Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.

      Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following tissues does not have considerable levels of AST and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tissues does not have considerable levels of AST and is therefore not used as a marker of liver hepatocellular damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testes

      Explanation:

      AST and ALT as Markers of Liver Function

      AST and ALT are enzymes that are commonly used as markers of liver function. AST is found in metabolically active tissues such as muscle, heart, liver, kidney, and brain, while ALT is mainly found in the liver with very low levels elsewhere. However, because of its wide distribution, AST is not specific as a marker of liver disease. It can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, myositis, and other conditions. Therefore, many laboratories now use ALT preferentially as a more specific test for liver dysfunction.

      It is important to note that neither AST nor ALT test the true ‘function’ of the liver. They merely represent markers of hepatocyte disruption or damage. For a better measure of the synthetic function of the liver, the prothrombin time (PT) or INR is used as it produces coagulation factors. It is crucial to interpret the results of AST and ALT tests with caution and in conjunction with other liver function tests to accurately diagnose liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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