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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old primiparous woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primiparous woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes in for a consultation after her foetal anomaly scan revealed polyhydramnios and a midline sac containing bowel. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. She had planned for a home birth and is now concerned about how this condition will affect her delivery.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Plan for delivery on the ward

      Correct Answer: Schedule an elective caesarean section

      Explanation:

      If a foetus is diagnosed with exomphalos before birth, it is recommended to schedule and perform a caesarean section at term to reduce the risk of sac rupture, infection, and atresia. While a ward delivery provides access to theatres, specific surgical planning is necessary to minimize complications. Instrumental delivery in theatre does not decrease the risk of sac rupture. It is important to explain to the mother why hospital delivery is necessary and the risks associated with a home birth. Induction of labour at 37 weeks is not advisable as it increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12
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  • Question 2 - Which statement accurately describes Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA)?

      Your Answer: The carer genuinely believes the child to be ill

      Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death

      Explanation:

      Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another: A Dangerous Parenting Disorder

      Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA) is a serious parenting disorder that involves a parent, usually the mother, fabricating symptoms in their child. This leads to unnecessary medical tests and surgical procedures that can harm the child. In some extreme cases, the parent may even inflict injury or cause the death of their child.

      FDIA is a form of child abuse that can have devastating consequences for the child and their family. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the signs and symptoms of FDIA and to report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities. Early intervention and treatment can help protect the child and prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.9
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  • Question 3 - A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, multiple blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Congenital syndromes associated with acute myeloblastic leukemia

      Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) can be associated with various congenital syndromes, including severe congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome), Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, and Li Fraumeni syndrome. However, Gardner syndrome, or familial colorectal polyposis, is not linked to AML. Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality that has a poor prognosis but is not typically associated with AML. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, may increase the risk of breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but the evidence for an association with AML is inconclusive. Haemophilia, a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in clotting factors, does not predispose to AML or mucosal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.5
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery during an asthma attack. According to...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery during an asthma attack. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, what finding would classify the asthma attack as life-threatening instead of just severe?

      Your Answer: Use of accessory neck muscles

      Correct Answer: Peak flow 30% of best

      Explanation:

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - Johnny, a 5-year-old boy, has been brought to the doctor due to delayed...

    Incorrect

    • Johnny, a 5-year-old boy, has been brought to the doctor due to delayed speech development. What factors could increase his likelihood of developing autistic spectrum disorder?

      Your Answer: Alcohol Consumption during pregnancy

      Correct Answer: A trinucleotide repeat disorder of the X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Autistic spectrum disorder and learning difficulties have been linked to fragile X syndrome, especially in males, which is a trinucleotide repeat disorder. However, recent guidance has shown that there is no connection between the MMR vaccine and autistic spectrum disorder, contrary to what the media may suggest. Additionally, a higher risk of autistic spectrum disorder has been associated with low birth weight, not high birth weight, and there is no evidence to support a link between childhood obesity and autistic spectrum disorder. It is important to note that males have a significantly higher risk of developing autistic spectrum disorder compared to females, with a male to female ratio of approximately 4:1.

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits over the past 2 weeks. She has an inspiratory whoop and noisy breathing, but no signs of cyanosis or other abnormalities during the physical exam. The doctor diagnoses her with whooping cough. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient has developed a cough within the last 21 days and does not require hospitalization, macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin should be prescribed for children over 1 month old and non-pregnant adults. In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for hospitalization due to their age, breathing difficulties, or complications. Along with antibiotics, patients should be advised to rest, stay hydrated, and use pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptom relief.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports that he is a typical boy, but he has been experiencing difficulty walking and falls frequently. He started walking at 15 months old, and she has observed that he requires assistance getting up from a seated position. Apart from that, he is comparable to his classmates in school and has progressed normally. During the examination, he displays proximal weakness, but his distal muscle strength is intact.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy from Other Neuromuscular Disorders

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects boys and is characterized by progressive muscle weakness. It is important to differentiate DMD from other neuromuscular disorders to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) and progressive muscular atrophy are two conditions that affect the lower motor neurons but are not characterized by proximal weakness, which is a hallmark of DMD. Global developmental delay, on the other hand, is characterized by intellectual and communication limitations, delayed milestones, and motor skill delays, but not proximal weakness.

      Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is another neuromuscular disorder that can be confused with DMD. However, SMA has four types, each with distinct clinical presentations. The scenario described in the prompt does not fit with any of the four types of SMA.

      In summary, understanding the unique clinical features of DMD and differentiating it from other neuromuscular disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old girl with a sprained ankle. During your examination, you observe some bruises on her arms. When you ask her about it, she becomes quiet and avoids eye contact. Her father quickly intervenes and explains that she fell off her bike. However, you have a gut feeling that something is not right. What steps do you take next?

      Your Answer: Put the child's arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection

      Explanation:

      The GMC’s good medical practice provides guidelines for safeguarding children and young people. It emphasizes the importance of considering all possible causes of an injury or signs of abuse or neglect, including rare genetic conditions. However, the clinical needs of the child must not be overlooked in the process. If concerns persist after discussing with parents, it is necessary to report to the appropriate agency. In this scenario, delaying action while the child is under your care is not acceptable. Therefore, contacting child protection would be the appropriate course of action.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. Once she is observed and tested, she is diagnosed with febrile convulsions. What advice should be given to her parents before they take her home?

      Your Answer: If the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes, they should call an ambulance

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is commonly used to treat fever and pain in children. While there is a small chance of developing epilepsy, the risk is minimal. Additionally, there is no proof that paracetamol reduces the likelihood of future seizures.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis during physical activity. He was born at term via normal vaginal delivery, without complications during pregnancy. The child has been healthy, but recently started experiencing bluish skin during physical activity.
      After examination, the child is diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy.
      What is a common association with a patient diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy?

      Your Answer: Hypoplastic right ventricle

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), Pulmonary Stenosis, Right Ventricular Outflow Tract (RVOT) Obstruction, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy, and Overriding of the VSD by the Aorta are all characteristics of Fallot’s Tetralogy, the most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease. This condition presents with cyanotic episodes, typically at 1-2 months of age. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy. Pulmonary Regurgitation is not seen in Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Pulmonary Stenosis. A Continuous Murmur throughout Systole and Diastole is a characteristic of Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). Hypoplastic Right Ventricle is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Right Ventricular Hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10
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  • Question 11 - A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her breathing. Three days ago, the girl started with a runny nose and mild fever. She seemed to be getting better for a day, but now she is coughing frequently, struggling to breathe, and refusing to eat.
      During the examination, there is evidence of nasal flaring. On chest auscultation, there are bilateral crackles and an expiratory wheeze. Her temperature is 38.1ºC (normal: 36.1-38.0ºC), oxygen saturations are 97% on air (normal: >96%), the heart rate is 128 beats per minute (normal: 115-160), and she has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute (normal: 25-45).
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Supportive measures only

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in children can be managed with supportive therapy and does not require antibiotics. The patient in this case presents with typical symptoms of bronchiolitis, including a preceding coryzal phase, cough, increased work of breathing, and crackles and wheeze on auscultation. Although the patient has a mild temperature and tachypnoea, sepsis is not suspected as the normal parameters for children of this age are different. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for bronchiolitis should focus on supportive therapy, such as humidified oxygen or fluids if necessary. Salbutamol, amoxicillin, oral dexamethasone, and erythromycin are not recommended for bronchiolitis.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward with suspected Kawasaki disease....

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward with suspected Kawasaki disease. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she had a fever lasting for 8 days, dry cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, and peeling of her fingers and toes. What additional symptom would support the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cervical lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a rare condition that typically affects children under the age of 5. The diagnosis is based on the presence of a fever lasting for at least 5 days, accompanied by at least 4 of the following symptoms: dry and cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, peeling of the skin on the fingers and toes, cervical lymphadenopathy, and a red rash over the trunk. It is crucial to be aware of the diagnostic criteria for this disease, as the vascular complications can be severe. Additionally, this topic may be tested on final exams.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - Liam, a 3-year-old boy and his father visit a paediatric neurology clinic. Liam's...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 3-year-old boy and his father visit a paediatric neurology clinic. Liam's father is worried about epilepsy, but the consultant explains that Liam has been experiencing reflex anoxic seizures. What characteristics could distinguish between epilepsy and Liam's condition?

      Your Answer: Cyanosis around lips

      Correct Answer: Quick recovery following seizure

      Explanation:

      Both epilepsy and reflex anoxic seizures can cause collapse, jerking, stiffness, and cyanosis. However, reflex anoxic seizures have a faster recovery time compared to epileptic seizures, which usually have a longer recovery period.

      Reflex Anoxic Seizures: A Brief Overview

      Reflex anoxic seizures are a type of syncope or fainting episode that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. This condition is believed to be caused by a temporary pause in the heart’s electrical activity due to overstimulation of the vagus nerve in children with sensitive reflexes. Reflex anoxic seizures are most commonly seen in young children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years.

      During a reflex anoxic seizure, the child may suddenly become very pale and fall to the ground. Secondary anoxic seizures may also occur, which are brief episodes of muscle twitching or jerking. However, the child typically recovers quickly and without any long-term effects.

      There is no specific treatment for reflex anoxic seizures, but it is important to identify and avoid triggers that may cause these episodes. The prognosis for children with reflex anoxic seizures is excellent, and most children outgrow this condition as they get older. By understanding the symptoms and triggers of reflex anoxic seizures, parents and caregivers can help manage this condition and ensure the safety and well-being of their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a door while playing with his older brother. He cried and screamed initially, but fell asleep about an hour later. Upon waking up, he vomited twice. During the examination, a 3 cm x 4 cm swelling is observed on his forehead. The central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS) examination are generally normal, as are his eyes. His cervical spine is also normal. While in the examination room, he vomits again. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Do a CT brain scan within 1 hour to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Observe him closely for at least 4 hours (after the injury)

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans

      Children are at a higher risk for head injuries, which can lead to contusion and intracerebral hemorrhage. However, CT scans can also cause radiation-related brain damage and increase the risk of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a detailed assessment and balance the risks and benefits before deciding on investigation and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for head injuries in children.

      Observation and CT scans are necessary for children who have had a head injury and have more than one of the following features: loss of consciousness for more than 5 minutes, abnormal drowsiness, three or more episodes of vomiting, a dangerous mechanism/high-impact injury, or amnesia for more than 5 minutes. If they have only one of these features, they should be observed for at least 4 hours.

      CT scans should be performed within 1 hour for children with risk factors such as suspicion of non-accidental injury, post-traumatic seizure, GCS less than 14, or presence of a skull fracture or basal skull fracture. A provisional written radiology report should be made available within 1 hour of the scan being performed.

      If a child has only one of the risk factors mentioned above, they should be observed for a minimum of 4 hours. If any of the risk factors occur during observation, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      It is important to note that child protection is crucial, but there are no features in the case history that suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, speaking to social services may not be necessary.

      Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment. During the consultation, the father mentions that the child recently started playing soccer and has been enjoying it. You observe that the child has a short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput and a single palmar crease.

      What should be the GP's primary concern for this 5-year-old child with short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput, and a single palmar crease who recently started playing soccer?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial instability

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome who engage in sports that have a higher risk of neck dislocation, such as gymnastics, boxing, diving, horse riding, rugby, and trampolining, should be screened for Atlantoaxial instability. This complication of Down syndrome can increase the likelihood of sudden neck dislocation, and while the child in this scenario does not exhibit any immediate concerns related to hypothyroidism, dementia, leukaemia, or seizures, it is important to prioritize screening for Atlantoaxial instability.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of vomiting and fever. He has no significant medical history. On examination, his urine dipstick is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. An abdominal ultrasound rules out a posterior urethral valve but shows retrograde flow of urine into the ureters from the bladder. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)

      Explanation:

      The preferred investigation for reflux nephropathy is micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). MCUG is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux and associated reflux nephropathy. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the patient’s bladder, and a radio-opaque dye is injected. The patient then empties their bladder, and x-rays are taken to detect any reflux of the dye into the ureters, which confirms the diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy.

      CT kidneys ureters and bladder is an inappropriate investigation for reflux nephropathy, as it cannot detect this condition. This type of scan is typically used to diagnose kidney stones, not reflux nephropathy.

      DMSA scan is not the first-line investigation for reflux nephropathy. While DMSA scans can be used to assess the extent of renal scarring caused by vesicoureteric reflux, they are not the preferred method for diagnosing this condition. DMSA scans are nuclear imaging scans, which makes them unsuitable as a first-line investigation for suspected reflux nephropathy.

      Intravenous pyelography is not used to assess reflux nephropathy. This type of investigation is typically used to evaluate haematuria or flank pain.

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the past 3 years, despite previously having regular bowel movements. All other aspects of her medical history and physical examination are unremarkable. She is not currently taking any medications.

      What would be the appropriate next course of action in managing her constipation?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Correct Answer: Osmotic laxative

      Explanation:

      Constipation at this age is most likely caused by dietary factors. Therefore, it is important to offer dietary guidance, such as increasing fiber and fluid consumption. Additionally, advising the individual to increase their activity level may be beneficial. As the constipation is getting worse, a laxative would be helpful. An osmotic laxative is recommended initially, as the stool is expected to be hard. A stimulant laxative may be necessary once the stool has softened.

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.

      What mutation is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: HOXB13 mutation

      Correct Answer: BRCA mutation

      Explanation:

      Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.

      There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.

      It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a fever, red tongue, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a fever, red tongue, and a rash that started on her torso and has now spread to the soles of her feet. The rash has a rough texture like sandpaper. The doctor prescribes oral antibiotics for ten days. The girl's mother is worried about her daughter's absence from school and asks when she can return.
      What is the appropriate time for the girl to go back to school?

      Your Answer: Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Children diagnosed with scarlet fever can go back to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was initially evaluated by a paediatric neurologist at the age of 5 years due to unsteady gait and toe walking. His gait unsteadiness began around the age of 4 years with frequent falls, and he had also developed hand tremors prior to this visit. Upon further examination, he was found to have pes cavus, mild scoliosis, and no cardiac murmur. What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This is the most common type of hereditary ataxia and typically presents with symptoms before the age of 25, including ataxia, cardiomyopathy, motor weakness, pes cavus foot deformity, and scoliosis. It should be noted that Friedreich’s ataxia is not inherited in an autosomal dominant or X-linked recessive manner, nor is it caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal recessive conditions are genetic disorders that occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. These conditions are often referred to as ‘metabolic’ as they affect the body’s metabolic processes. However, there are notable exceptions, such as X-linked recessive conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD, and autosomal dominant conditions like hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      Some ‘structural’ conditions, like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia, are also autosomal recessive. The following conditions are examples of autosomal recessive disorders: albinism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, cystinuria, familial Mediterranean fever, Fanconi anemia, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, lipid storage disease (Tay-Sach’s, Gaucher, Niemann-Pick), mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler’s), PKU, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, and Wilson’s disease.

      It is worth noting that Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate, and many textbooks list it as autosomal dominant. Nonetheless, understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management.

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  • Question 21 - A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is worried as he is not feeding well, his urine has a musty smell and he has very dry skin all over his trunk, which is not responding to regular emollients. On examination, the baby’s weight has dropped from the 25th to the 9th centile, he has a mild tremor and his trunk is covered in an eczema-like rash. Her older son has an inborn error of metabolism and she is concerned this baby may also be affected.
      Which of the following is a disorder of amino acid metabolism?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Symptoms

      Inherited metabolic disorders are genetic conditions that affect the body’s ability to process certain nutrients. Here are some common types and their symptoms:

      Phenylketonuria (PKU): This autosomal recessive condition affects amino acid metabolism. It causes a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which can lead to behavioural problems, seizures, and learning disability. PKU is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      G6PD deficiency: This X-linked recessive condition predisposes those affected to develop haemolysis. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless they have a haemolytic crisis triggered by an infection or certain medications.

      Lesch–Nyhan syndrome: This X-linked condition affects uric acid metabolism and causes hyperuricaemia. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Affected males have severe developmental delay, behavioural and cognitive dysfunction, and marked involuntary movements. They also develop recurrent self-mutilation habits.

      Medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD): This autosomal recessive condition affects fatty acid oxidation. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Babies with MCADD usually present with lethargy, poor feeding, and vomiting. It is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      Porphyria: This is a deficiency of enzymes that affect haem synthesis. It can lead to acute porphyria (abdominal pain, psychiatric symptoms, breathing problems) or cutaneous porphyria.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon taking her medical history, you find no developmental issues. She is currently at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. During the physical examination, you observe a short webbed neck and broad chest. After conducting a karyotype analysis, you discover an abnormality. What is the most prevalent heart condition linked to this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      The most frequently observed cardiac defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (45 XO) is a bicuspid aortic valve, which is more prevalent than coarctation of the aorta. Additionally, aortic root dilation and coarctation of the aorta are also associated with this condition.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 23 - A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The arterial oxygen saturation is 70%, and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen is 35 mmHg (normal range is 75-100 mmHg) after receiving 100% oxygen. There are no signs of respiratory distress or pulmonary edema upon examination. What is the probable reason for the infant's discoloration?

      Your Answer: Severe ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease in Newborns

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease is a condition that results in low oxygen levels in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin. There are several causes of this condition in newborns, including transposition of the great arteries (TGA), tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis, hypoplastic left heart syndrome, severe ventricular septal defect, and tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. In this condition, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are switched, which is incompatible with life without an associated mixing defect such as atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent ductus arteriosus.

      Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in cyanosis early after birth due to a severely stenotic pulmonary outflow, which maximizes the right-to-left shunt through the ventricular septal defect.

      Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a cyanotic congenital heart disease that is usually associated with pulmonary edema. This condition is caused by dysgenesis of the left ventricle, which leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood and subsequent cyanosis.

      Severe ventricular septal defect results in left-to-right shunting of blood, which typically does not result in cyanosis until progressive cardiac decompensation occurs. This makes it an unlikely cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns who present with cyanosis immediately after birth.

      Tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defects is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in right-to-left blood shunting without pulmonary edema early after birth, but it is less common than other causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease.

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  • Question 24 - You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy,...

    Correct

    • You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy, during the delivery there was a large amount of meconium. On observation of the baby just after the birth, what signs would indicate the need for the neonatal team to evaluate the baby?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 75/minute

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after she was woken up from sleep at night with unilateral jerking movements of the left face and upper limb lasting for 2 minutes. During the episode, she did not lose consciousness. This has only happened once before a few nights ago.

      A neurological examination is unremarkable, and her temperature is 37.5ºC and her heart rate is 90 bpm. She is slightly drowsy. Another episode occurs and an EEG is performed, which shows centrotemporal spikes.

      She has no past medical history.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms and medical history suggest that they have benign rolandic epilepsy, which is characterized by partial seizures occurring at night. This type of epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 and is confirmed by an EEG showing centrotemporal spikes. The seizures originate from the central sulcus of the brain in a region called the Rolandic fissure. Although the child is drowsy, postictal states can occur in benign rolandic epilepsy as well. The prognosis for this condition is usually excellent, with most children outgrowing it. Febrile convulsions, generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, and infantile spasms are not applicable to this case.

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.

      Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.

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  • Question 26 - A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He has a runny nose but no fever. There is no reported injury. He is able to bear weight on the affected leg.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting with safety netting advice

      Correct Answer: Urgent specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      A child under the age of 3 who presents with an acute limp requires urgent specialist assessment. This is because septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. A routine paediatric referral is not appropriate as the concern is ruling out septic arthritis, which requires urgent attention. An urgent X-ray or hip ultrasound scan is also not sufficient, as a comprehensive specialist examination is necessary to exclude serious pathology.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with her mother, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with her mother, complaining of right iliac fossa pain for the past 2 days. She has no significant medical history, except for a recent cold and sore throat. She has had a high fever for the past 2 days and has lost her appetite, but denies any other symptoms. On examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her heart rate is 130 bpm. She has palpable and slightly tender submandibular and cervical lymph nodes on both sides. Her chest is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa without guarding. A urine dipstick shows 2+ ketones and 1+ protein. Her FBC results are as follows: haemoglobin 145 g/l (normal range 135–175 g/l), WCC 14.3 × 109/l (normal range 4–11 × 109/l), and platelets 425 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retroperitoneal appendix abscess

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain, a previous and recent history of a viral upper respiratory tract infection, along with enlarged neck nodes and high temperature, may indicate mesenteric adenitis. This condition is caused by mesenteric lymphadenopathy and can cause abdominal pain. Appendicitis is another possible diagnosis, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and involuntary muscle spasms in the abdominal wall. A urinary tract infection is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick. Meckel’s diverticulitis is a rare complication of Meckel’s diverticulum and is difficult to diagnose without considering appendicitis. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is another uncommon type of infection that presents with non-specific symptoms such as fever, back pain, and abdominal pain. High temperatures may also be present, but they usually fluctuate in abscesses.

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  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who reports that he has been having difficulties at school for the past year. The patient has a medical history of recurrent otitis media. The mother mentions that her nephew and niece have both required extra assistance at school, and the latter has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The patient had a normal birth history and early childhood development. On examination, he has an elongated face and protruding ears. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her parents. On a background of high-grade fever and lethargy over the last 12 hours, the child had an episode of jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and incontinence of urine. She has failed to recover full consciousness after the episode. At presentation, she is poorly responsive to name-calling, but responsive to pain. She is however maintaining her airway and oxygen saturation is 95% on air. Limited neurological examination is unremarkable. Non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain is normal. Lumbar puncture is performed and reveals a slightly raised opening pressure, moderately increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein, CSF lymphocytosis and normal glucose.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Intubation and ventilation

      Correct Answer: IV acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The child in question is suffering from viral encephalitis, which is typically treated with IV acyclovir. The recommended dosage is 5 mg/kg every 8 hours for 5 days, or 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for at least 14 days in cases of encephalitis. Encephalitis should be suspected when a patient presents with altered behavior, decreased consciousness, focal neurology, or seizures, along with a viral prodrome of fever and lethargy. The most common cause of encephalitis is the herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), with other common causes including cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and Japanese encephalitis. Diagnostic tests should include a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, inflammatory markers, blood glucose, blood cultures, and serum for viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR). A CT scan of the brain is necessary to rule out structural brain lesions and raised intracranial pressure. Lumbar puncture is then performed. Mortality in untreated viral encephalitis is high, so IV acyclovir should be started within 30 minutes of the patient arriving. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, but in this case, acyclovir is the most appropriate treatment. While MRI may aid in diagnosis, CSF analysis is sufficient, and IV cefotaxime and IV mannitol are not the most urgent steps in management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Assisted reproduction

      Correct Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 31 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of 142 cm, which is below the 0.4th centile. Upon examination, she has an immature-appearing face and a significantly delayed bone age on wrist x-ray. Her TSH levels are normal, and she is at an appropriate Tanner stage. It is noted that her mother had her menarche at the age of 11 years. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      Growth Hormone Deficiency as a Cause of Short Stature in Pubescent Girls

      A girl who has gone through puberty but has not gained height may have growth hormone deficiency. This condition is characterized by a discrepancy between the girl’s bone age and chronological age, as well as a doll-like face that gives her an immature appearance. Growth hormone deficiency is a rare but significant cause of short stature, as it can be a symptom of an underlying disease and can be treated with replacement injections.

      In some cases, GH deficiency may be caused by intracerebral masses, particularly craniopharyngiomas in 7- to 10-year-olds. However, if a chronic illness were the cause, such as coeliac disease or Cushing syndrome, it would likely delay puberty and result in an inappropriately young Tanner stage. The girl would also be expected to exhibit features of the chronic condition.

      It is important to note that this girl is not suffering from constitutional delay, as she has already entered puberty and has appropriate Tanner staging. Constitutional delay is typically characterized by a family history and delayed menarche in the affected individual. Therefore, growth hormone deficiency should be considered as a potential cause of short stature in pubescent girls who have not gained height despite going through puberty.

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  • Question 32 - A 2-month-old baby is brought to the GP clinic by their parent for...

    Correct

    • A 2-month-old baby is brought to the GP clinic by their parent for their first round of vaccinations. What vaccinations are recommended for this visit?

      Your Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B), one dose Men B (vaccine for group B meningococcal disease) and one dose of Rotavirus vaccine

      Explanation:

      The recommended vaccination schedule includes the 6-in-1 vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B, as well as one dose each of the MMR vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella, and the Rotavirus vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of epistaxis and mucosal bleeding during tooth brushing. He has no significant medical history except for a cold he had 3 weeks ago. Upon examination, his vital signs are normal, but he has multiple bruises and petechiae on his upper and lower limbs. The following laboratory tests were ordered: Hb 140 g/L (135-180), Platelets 33 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with petechiae and no fever, ITP should be considered as a possible diagnosis. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes thrombocytopenia without any identifiable cause. It is most commonly found in children and women and often follows a viral illness. Symptoms include mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, petechiae, and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as the patient’s normal haemoglobin and white cell count do not suggest malignancy.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as there is no evidence of unregulated bleeding or thrombosis triggered by trauma, sepsis, obstetric disorders, or malignancy.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of additional symptoms and the presence of bruising and easy bleeding make ITP more likely. HSP is a form of IgA vasculitis that causes a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, and arthralgia, and is commonly triggered by a viral infection. Most cases of HSP are self-limiting or resolve with symptomatic treatment.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 34 - A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 48 hours after pre-labor spontaneous rupture of membranes. Following observation, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged. The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but over the past 24 hours, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable during feeding and frequently pulls away. The mother also reports an unusual grunting sound after the baby exhales. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal newborn variance

      Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

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  • Question 35 - A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, just as she was starting to recover. During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across her trunk, which disappear when touched. The child does not seem bothered by the rash and appears to be in good health with normal vital signs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Roseola

      Explanation:

      Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that mainly affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The illness is caused by the human herpes virus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.

      Chickenpox, hand, foot and mouth disease, measles, and rubella are all differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of their respective rashes and accompanying symptoms.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

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  • Question 36 - At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without any support?

      Your Answer: 10-11 months

      Correct Answer: 13-15 months

      Explanation:

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

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  • Question 37 - A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned,...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned, as he has had an unusually high-pitched cry and has been drawing his legs up and vomiting. His last nappy revealed some bloody, slimy stools. She has recently started to wean him.
      Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Gastrointestinal Conditions: Symptoms and Differentiation

      Intussusception: A pediatric emergency condition where a bowel segment invaginates into a neighboring part of the bowel, causing obstruction. Symptoms include vomiting, abdominal pain, passing blood and mucous per rectum, lethargy, and a palpable abdominal mass. Diagnosis is via ultrasonography, and treatment can be non-operative or operative depending on the severity.

      Food Intolerance: Occurs following ingestion of an allergen and presents with diarrhea, vomiting, wheezing, pruritus, and rash. Typically seen in children at the age of weaning.

      Colic: Excessive, high-pitched crying in infants, typically in the evenings. Can relate to a variety of causes, including gastro-oesophageal reflux, overfeeding, incomplete burping following feeds, and food allergy.

      Pyloric Stenosis: Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle leading to gastric outlet obstruction. Presents in the first weeks of life with projectile non-bilious vomiting, a palpable mass in the abdomen, and visible peristalsis.

      Cystic Fibrosis: An inherited condition associated with mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, affecting the transmembrane transport of chloride ions and leading to thick secretions in the lungs and bowel. Symptoms include meconium ileus, constipation, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, diarrhea, steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and rectal prolapse. Identified by heel-prick screening at birth or around the age of 6-8 months.

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  • Question 38 - Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing...

    Incorrect

    • Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
      What is the molecular basis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 18

      Correct Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor

      Explanation:

      There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.

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  • Question 39 - A 16-year-old boy visits the GP with his father. His father is worried...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy visits the GP with his father. His father is worried as he has noticed scars on his son's arms and after a lengthy conversation, his son has confessed to self-harming on multiple occasions. The GP has decided to refer the boy to CAMHS (Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services). What is the most appropriate approach to minimize the likelihood of future self-harm?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Self-Harm: Psychological Interventions and Care Plans

      Self-harm is a serious issue that requires appropriate treatment. While drug treatment is not recommended, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), psychodynamic therapy, and problem-solving therapy can be effective. It is important to offer sessions of a psychological intervention that are specifically structured for people who self-harm, while also tailoring the treatment plan to each individual. Family therapy is not recommended for this particular issue. Developing a care plan with agreed-upon aims for longer-term treatment is also crucial. Overall, a combination of psychological interventions and care plans can help reduce self-harm.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old woman presents at 16+4 weeks gestation for amniocentesis due to a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents at 16+4 weeks gestation for amniocentesis due to a high-risk combined screening test, which revealed trisomy 21. What is a potential late complication associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is a late complication of Down syndrome. This is due to the extra copy of chromosome 21 that people with Down syndrome are born with, which produces an excess of amyloid precursor protein (APP). The buildup of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain, caused by too much APP protein, is a major risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease. By the age of 40, most people with Down syndrome have these plaques, as well as tau tangles, which further increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.

      Chronic myeloid leukemia is not a late complication of Down syndrome, but acute lymphoblastic leukemia is. Symptoms of ALL may include frequent infections, bleeding, night sweats, bone and joint pain, and easy bruising.

      Hirschsprung disease is a birth defect that can occur in babies with Down syndrome, but it is considered an early complication. It results from missing nerve cells in parts of the large intestine, causing severe constipation and sometimes intestinal obstruction.

      Hypothyroidism is another late complication of Down syndrome, often caused by an autoimmune reaction. Hyperthyroidism is rare in people with Down syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

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  • Question 41 - A 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome, asthma, reflux, and hyperthyroidism is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome, asthma, reflux, and hyperthyroidism is brought to the GP by his mother due to concerns about his chronic snoring. What could be the potential cause of his snoring based on his medical history?

      Your Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Children who have Down’s syndrome are susceptible to snoring due to their low muscle tone in the upper airways, large tongue/adenoids, and increased risk of obesity. On the other hand, gastroesophageal reflux disease is not connected to snoring, but it can worsen at night and cause coughing. Tonsillectomy is a common treatment for snoring as it eliminates enlarged tonsils that can obstruct the upper airway. Hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, is linked to snoring.

      Snoring in Children: Possible Causes

      Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.

      In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.

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  • Question 42 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son to see the GP as his walk...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son to see the GP as his walk has changed. She explains that he started walking shortly after 13 months old. She has noticed that, over the last 3 days, his walking has been different. There is no history of trauma.

      The GP assesses him and notices an asymmetric gait. He appears well otherwise and basic observations are within normal limits. He is up-to-date with his immunisations and is developing normally.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent hip x-ray

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      It is imperative to promptly schedule an evaluation for a child under the age of three who is experiencing a sudden limp.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 43 - A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
      Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.

      Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.

      The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.

      Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.

      In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.

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  • Question 44 - Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: A third fontanelle

      Correct Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline

      Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.

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  • Question 45 - A 14-month-old boy is seen by his doctor. He has been experiencing fever...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old boy is seen by his doctor. He has been experiencing fever and cold symptoms for the past 2 days. Recently, he has developed a harsh cough and his parents are concerned. During the examination, the doctor observes that the child has a temperature of 38ºC and is experiencing inspiratory stridor, but there are no signs of intercostal recession. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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  • Question 46 - A 17 month old girl comes to your GP clinic with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 month old girl comes to your GP clinic with symptoms of a viral URTI. While examining her, you notice some developmental concerns. What would be the most worrying sign?

      Your Answer: Started to walk independently at 17 months

      Correct Answer: Unable to say 6 individual words with meaning

      Explanation:

      1. At 23-24 months, children typically have a vocabulary of 20-50 words and can form 2-word phrases with meaning.
      2. Toilet training usually occurs at or after 3 years of age.
      3. By 3 years of age, most children can stand briefly on one leg and hop by age 4.
      4. Walking is typically achieved by 18 months, although most children will walk before 17 months.
      5. It is common for 23-month-old children to engage in solitary play.

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

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  • Question 47 - A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to her pediatrician's office by her mother...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to her pediatrician's office by her mother who is worried about her poor feeding over the past 24 hours. The mother has noticed that the baby feels warm but has not observed any signs of cough or cold. The baby is scheduled to receive her vaccinations next week. She has had a wet and dirty diaper today and her urine has a strong odor.

      During the examination, the baby has a fever of 38.9ºC and is fussy, but her chest and abdomen appear normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this infant?

      Your Answer: Admit same day to the paediatrics ward for assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under 3 months old is suspected to have a UTI, it is important to refer them to specialist paediatrics services. In the case of a baby with a persistent fever and no clear source of infection, a urine sample should be collected to check for a UTI. It is important to note that a raised temperature alone is considered a red sign according to NICE guidance for assessing fever in children, and the child should be referred for urgent paediatric assessment. It would be inappropriate to reassure the mother that this is just a virus and can be managed at home, and using paracetamol to manage the fever would not be acceptable in this case. While antibiotics may treat the infection, waiting a week for a review could be dangerous for an unwell child who may deteriorate rapidly. Referring the child for a routine review with paediatrics would also not be appropriate, as urgent attention is required. While a health visitor may be helpful for feeding issues, the short history of poor feeding and fever suggests that the baby is struggling to feed due to illness, and this would not address the current presentation.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

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  • Question 48 - A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small...

    Correct

    • A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 49 - A 16-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of bilateral knee pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of bilateral knee pain that has been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly in the mornings. She has also been feeling generally fatigued, but denies experiencing any fevers, weight loss, or rashes. Her mother has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but otherwise, her family history is unremarkable. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are within normal limits. There is mild oedema in both knees and ankles, and passive movement of the knee joints elicits tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Explanation:

      The most common presentation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is oligoarticular (or pauciarticular) JIA, which typically affects up to four joints and is mild. The affected joints are usually larger ones like the knee, ankle, or elbow, and common symptoms include pain, stiffness, and fatigue. Other symptoms may include rash, fever, or dry/gritty eyes. Having a family history of autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, increases the risk of developing JIA.

      Ewing sarcoma is a primary bone cancer that usually affects long bones and causes localized pain and swelling. It is unlikely to present symmetrically and typically affects only one side of the body.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is an inflammation of the growth plate at the tibial tubercle, which is caused by traction from the quadriceps. It usually occurs in adolescents who are involved in sports/athletics and can affect both tibias, although it typically presents on only one side. The pain is worse during exercise and is not associated with knee effusions.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic disorder that affects multiple systems and often includes arthritis or arthralgia. However, in this case, the absence of other systemic symptoms or rash suggests that the primary issue is arthritis, despite the family history.

      Understanding Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that affects children under the age of 16 and lasts for more than six weeks. It is characterized by joint pain and swelling, typically in medium-sized joints such as the knees, ankles, and elbows. This type of JIA is called pauciarticular because it affects four or fewer joints. It is the most common type of JIA, accounting for approximately 60% of cases.

      In addition to joint pain and swelling, children with pauciarticular JIA may experience a limp. It is also possible for the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test to be positive in cases of JIA, which is associated with anterior uveitis. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of pauciarticular JIA and seek medical attention if they suspect their child may be affected. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent long-term joint damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 50 - A 2-year-old child is brought in for a routine check-up, with concerns from...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child is brought in for a routine check-up, with concerns from the parents that the child is smaller than expected for their age. The parents mention that the child has difficulty with eating and mainly consumes milk and soft foods. The child appears healthy upon examination, but is found to be on the 3rd percentile for weight. During a cardiac examination, a systolic murmur is detected in the pulmonary area and a fixed splitting to the second heart sound is heard. All pulses are palpable and within normal range. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Most children with atrial septal defects (ASDs) do not show any symptoms. However, if these heart defects are not detected before birth, children with severe ASD may experience shortness of breath, fatigue, poor appetite and growth, and increased susceptibility to respiratory infections. During a physical examination, a doctor may detect an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.

      Other congenital heart defects can be identified by the following murmurs:
      – Ventricular septal defect: A pansystolic murmur in the lower left sternal border
      – Coarctation of the aorta: A crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border
      – Patent ductus arteriosus: A diastolic machinery murmur in the upper left sternal border

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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