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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting with you for 6 weeks due to feelings of low mood. She denies having any thoughts of self-harm and there are no concerns about the safety of her children.
She has undergone a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, but her symptoms have not improved, and she now has a PHQ-9 depression questionnaire score of 12, indicating moderate depression. She is interested in trying an antidepressant and has no allergies or medical conditions that would prevent her from taking medication.
What is the recommended first-line medication for her?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:When it comes to treating less severe depression, the recommended first-line antidepressant is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are no longer considered the first choice due to their increased risk of overdose. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) like isocarboxazid are rarely prescribed due to their potential for serious side effects. Noradrenaline and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs) like mirtazapine may be an alternative for those who cannot take SSRIs, but they may cause more drowsiness.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old lady presents for diabetic follow-up. She has been using paracetamol to manage her painful diabetic neuropathy, but her symptoms persist. She requests a stronger medication. None of the following treatments have any contraindications. Based on guidelines, what is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Neuropathic Pain in Diabetic Patients
According to the NICE guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain (CG173), patients with painful diabetic neuropathy should be offered duloxetine, amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin as first-line treatment. If these medications are contraindicated or not tolerated, capsaicin cream topically may be used for very localized neuropathic pain. Patients should be reviewed early for their symptoms, and treatment should be continued or gradually reduced if symptoms allow. If all the above fail, referral to secondary care is recommended, and adding tramadol while the patient is waiting is worth a try.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see you for follow up some six weeks later. She has recovered well from the operation but reports problems with muscle cramps; these have been so severe on two occasions that she has suffered from cramping and spasm in her hands.
On examination she is a little hypotensive at 105/60, and her pulse is 45. Her reflexes seem quite brisk, but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on blood testing?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Post-Surgical Hypoparathyroidism
Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is a condition that may occur weeks or even months after thyroid surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as muscle cramps, lethargy, bradycardia, and hypotension that are not responsive to pressors, and carpopedal spasm due to hypocalcaemia. If a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to investigate further through serum electrolytes, LFTs, and PTH assay. These investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried about his well-being as he lives alone and has been isolating himself for some time. He rarely goes out and has no interests other than using his computer. He is generally distant when his family visits and speaks very little. He has not been in a relationship for many years. He appears disheveled and avoids making eye contact during the appointment. His sister is concerned that he may have Schizophrenia as their father exhibited similar behavior before his diagnosis.
The patient denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and doesn't express any delusional beliefs.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The absence of delusion or hallucination symptoms rules out schizophrenia, schizotypal personality disorder, and delusional beliefs. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a greater concern for being accepted and social status anxiety. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the most probable diagnosis.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Explanation:Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:
1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.
2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.
3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.
4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.
5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.
Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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An 85-year-old frail woman has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. What is the appropriate daily supplemental dose of vitamin D for her vitamin D insufficiency?
Your Answer: 20 micrograms (800 units)
Explanation:Vitamin D Supplementation: Recommendations and Dosages
The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence advises that all adults living in the UK should take a daily supplement containing 400 international units (IU) of vitamin D throughout the year, including in the winter months. This is especially important for those at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency. A recent survey in the United Kingdom showed that more than 50% of the adult population have insufficient levels of vitamin D.
For pregnant and breastfeeding mothers, Healthy Start vitamin tablets containing 400 IU of vitamin D, 400 micrograms of folic acid, and 70 mg of vitamin C are suitable. Other people can purchase multivitamin preparations containing 400 IU of vitamin D from pharmacies.
Elderly people who are housebound or living in a nursing home are likely to have vitamin D insufficiency. NICE recommends that people with vitamin D insufficiency should receive maintenance treatment of about 800 IU a day. This is especially important for those with osteoporosis who are likely to be on an antiresorptive drug.
For the treatment of nutritional vitamin D deficiency rickets in children 12-18 years, the dosage is 10,000 units. Vitamin D deficiency caused by intestinal malabsorption or chronic liver disease usually requires vitamin D in doses up to 1 mg (40,000 units) daily. The hypocalcaemia of hypoparathyroidism often requires doses of up to 2.5mg (100,000 units) daily in order to achieve normal levels of calcium.
A variety of vitamin D preparations of different strengths are available, many of them combined with calcium. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate dosage and type of vitamin D supplementation for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.
He has a history of heroin addiction and you suspect that he is currently experiencing withdrawal from heroin.
Which of the following symptoms would be unusual for heroin withdrawal?Your Answer: Anxiety
Correct Answer: Yawning
Explanation:Heroin Withdrawal Symptoms
People experiencing heroin withdrawal often experience insomnia instead of feeling sleepy. However, all the other symptoms are typical. Heroin withdrawal can cause a range of physical and psychological symptoms, including muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, depression, and intense drug cravings. These symptoms can be extremely uncomfortable and can last for several days or even weeks. It is important for individuals going through heroin withdrawal to seek medical attention and support to manage their symptoms and increase their chances of successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics of patients attending a hypertension clinic. She calculates that the mean age of the patients is 56 years old, and that the variance of the data is 64. She wants to calculate the standard deviation of the data set.
What is the connection between standard deviation and variance?Your Answer: Standard deviation = mean – variance
Correct Answer: Standard deviation is the square root of variance
Explanation:The square root of variance is equal to standard deviation, while variance is the squared value of standard deviation.
Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread
Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Correct
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Choose from the options below the one that is an appropriate reason for ROUTINE referral to the nearby ENT department for a patient in their 60s.
Your Answer: An intermittent feeling of ‘something stuck in the throat’
Explanation:Urgent Referral Criteria for Suspicious Symptoms
When it comes to identifying potentially serious health issues, it’s important to know which symptoms require urgent referral. In the case of the last three presentations, all of them are recognized as needing immediate attention under the 2-week-wait criteria. However, it’s worth noting that acute otitis externa can typically be managed in primary care.
In terms of the throat symptom, it’s important to conduct a flexible laryngoscopy examination of the pharynx, which means that a non-urgent referral is necessary. The intermittent nature of the symptom suggests that it may be a benign problem, such as a globus sensation.
If you’re concerned about cancer, it’s worth checking out the external links for more information on upper gastrointestinal tract cancers and head and neck cancers. By staying informed and knowing when to seek medical attention, you can help ensure that you receive the care you need when you need it most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old former soldier with a past of post-traumatic stress disorder comes in for a follow-up. Despite undergoing an unsuccessful treatment of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy, he is hesitant to attempt cognitive behavioural therapy. Which of the following medications could potentially benefit individuals in his situation?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:When CBT or EMDR therapy prove to be ineffective in treating PTSD, the initial pharmacological interventions typically involve prescribing either venlafaxine or an SSRI.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all over her body, eyebrow loss, and burns on her hands. She experiences tenderness in her thickened ulnar nerves. A skin biopsy reveals the existence of multiple acid-fast bacilli (AFBs).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Leprosy
Explanation:Understanding Leprosy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Challenges in the UK
Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, is a contagious disease that primarily affects the skin and nerves. While it is rare in the UK, it remains a significant cause of peripheral neuropathy worldwide. The disease progresses slowly, with an average incubation period of 7 years, and can range from mild to severe forms. Diagnosis requires the presence of skin patches or hypopigmented areas with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the detection of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies. However, in countries where leprosy is rare, diagnosis can be delayed due to lack of familiarity with the disease. Understanding the symptoms and challenges of diagnosing leprosy is crucial for effective management and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Treatment of Infected Dog Bites
Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of Graves’ disease presents with a 6-month history of progressive tingling and weakness of her legs. On examination of the lower limbs, there is bilateral spastic weakness, depressed deep tendon reflexes and flexor plantar responses. There is reduced joint position sense and vibration sensation in her lower limbs, but no other sensory abnormalities. General examination reveals pale conjunctivae, glossitis and oral ulceration.
What is the single most likely cause?Your Answer: Transverse myelitis
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Possible Causes of Spinal Cord Dysfunction: Symptoms and Characteristics
Spinal cord dysfunction can have various causes, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Here are some possible causes and their corresponding features:
Vitamin B12 deficiency: This can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the cord, which affects the dorsal columns and pyramidal tracts. Symptoms include ataxic gait, upper motor neuron signs in the lower limbs, absent reflexes, glossitis, oral ulceration, and pale conjunctivae. Pernicious anemia, which is often autoimmune in nature, is a common underlying cause.
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-1 infection: This retrovirus can cause T-cell lymphoma and a chronic demyelinating disease resembling multiple sclerosis. It is transmitted through sexual relations, breastfeeding, and blood transfusions. It is most prevalent in certain regions such as Central and West Africa, Japan, the Caribbean, and South America. Infection is rare in the UK, and the patient’s lack of risk factors and travel history makes it unlikely.
Anterior spinal artery thrombosis: This typically presents acutely with severe back pain and loss of pain and temperature sensations due to interruption of the spinothalamic tract. Proprioception and vibratory sensation remain intact due to the intact dorsal columns.
Epidural abscess: This often results from the spread of infection from a distant source through the blood. Symptoms include localised spinal pain, nerve root pain, paraesthesia, muscular weakness, sensory loss, sphincter dysfunction, and paralysis. Back or neck pain is usually present.
Transverse myelitis: This presents with a sensory level, usually in the mid-thoracic region, leg weakness with reduced tone and lower motor neuron signs, and incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A mother comes to see you about her 16-year-old daughter. She has been diagnosed with major depression and is due to see a specialist the next day.
You discuss both medical and non-medical therapies.
It is anticipated that she will need medical therapy. Which of the following drugs, if required, is most likely to be prescribed for her?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Fluoxetine as the Only Effective Medication for Treating Depression in Children and Adolescents
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), fluoxetine is the only medication that has been proven effective in clinical trials for treating depressive illness in children and adolescents. It is important to note that medication is not typically prescribed by non-specialists in this age group. However, as a healthcare provider, it is important to have a general understanding of any specialist-initiated treatments and investigations to be able to discuss them with patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis comes for his yearly check-up. What is the most suitable recommendation for his diet?
Your Answer: Normal calorie and low fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal
Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal
Explanation:Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.
Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.
Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.
In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency surgery complaining of abdominal pain that started earlier in the day and is gradually worsening. The pain is situated on his left flank and extends down to his groin. He has no history of similar pain and is generally healthy. Upon examination, the man appears flushed and sweaty, but there are no other notable findings. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg
Explanation:Management and Prevention of Renal Stones
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.
Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.
Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What type of prescribing error is the most frequently occurring?
Your Answer: Dosage error
Correct Answer: Incomplete information on the prescription
Explanation:GMC Study Reveals High Rate of Prescription Errors
A recent study conducted by the General Medical Council (GMC) has found that almost 5% of the 6,000 prescriptions assessed had some form of prescribing or monitoring error. The most common error identified was incomplete information on the prescription, accounting for a third of all errors.
This study highlights the importance of accurate and complete information when prescribing medication. Such errors can have serious consequences for patients, including adverse reactions and ineffective treatment. It is crucial that healthcare professionals take the time to ensure that all necessary information is included on prescriptions and that they are monitored appropriately. By doing so, they can help to reduce the risk of errors and improve patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the non-pharmacological non-invasive therapies is the only one approved in current guidelines for the management of persistent nonspecific knee pain?
Your Answer: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Correct Answer: Manual therapy
Explanation:Effective Manual Therapy for Low Back Pain
Manual therapy is a highly effective treatment option for low back pain. It involves spinal manipulation, spinal mobilisation, and massage. Spinal manipulation is a low-amplitude, high-velocity movement that takes a joint beyond the range of passive movement. Mobilisation, on the other hand, is joint movement within the normal range of movement. Both techniques have the approval of the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
Manual therapy can be provided by chiropractors or osteopaths, as well as doctors and physiotherapists who have had special training in spinal manipulation. It is a safe and non-invasive treatment option that can provide significant relief from low back pain.
However, it is important to note that belts or corsets for managing low back pain do not have approval. Similarly, therapeutic ultrasound is not recommended, and traction should not be offered. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is also not recommended for managing low back pain with or without sciatica.
In conclusion, manual therapy is an effective and safe treatment option for low back pain. It is important to consult with a qualified healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK schedule, specifically at 8 and 12 weeks?
Your Answer: Pneumococcal
Correct Answer: Rotavirus
Explanation:Routine Childhood Immunisation Schedule
The routine childhood immunisation schedule is a crucial aspect of healthcare for young children. It protects them from a range of diseases that can cause serious harm or even death. The schedule includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and rotavirus.
At 8 weeks, infants receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and oral rotavirus. At 12 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, and oral rotavirus. At 16 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, and meningococcal group B.
It is important to note that the hepatitis B immunisation was added to the routine schedule in 2017, but not hepatitis A. Additionally, pneumococcal immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks, while meningococcal B immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks. Understanding the routine childhood immunisation schedule is crucial for healthcare professionals and parents alike to ensure the health and safety of young children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of haloes and impaired vision when watching television, often accompanied by headaches. The examination is normal, but she is routinely referred to the local ophthalmology clinic. The following day you receive a phone call from her husband to say that she has lost vision in her right eye and has a severe headache and eye pain and is vomiting. You visit her and find that she has a fixed pupil and a hazy cornea and the eye feels very hard.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Acute angle-closure glaucoma occurs when the iris blocks the drainage of aqueous humour, leading to a rise in intraocular pressure. Symptoms include visual disturbances in low-light situations, severe eye pain, and require immediate treatment with medication and surgery.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a complication of facial or sinus infections, presenting with headache, fever, cranial nerve signs, and periorbital swelling.
Acute anterior uveitis causes unilateral eye pain, redness, photophobia, and decreased vision. It develops over hours or days and requires urgent treatment.
Chronic glaucoma leads to gradual visual field loss due to damage to the optic nerve head and can be managed with topical medication.
Subacute closed-angle glaucoma should be treated urgently to prevent vision loss. Immediate admission is necessary.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal function and hypercholesterolaemia. She suddenly experiences a hot, swollen, painful right great toe. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Medications and Gout: Understanding the Relationship
Gout is a painful condition caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. While there are various factors that can contribute to the development of gout, medications can also play a role.
Loop and thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout attacks. Other medications that can raise uric acid levels include nicotinic acid, low-dose aspirin, and ciclosporin. On the other hand, xanthine oxidase inhibitors like allopurinol and uricosuric agents like probenecid can help lower uric acid levels and prevent gout attacks.
Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor used to treat hypertension, is not known to interfere with urate metabolism and is therefore unlikely to cause gout attacks. However, it can cause electrolyte imbalances and a decline in renal function, so monitoring is necessary.
Warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist used for conditions like atrial fibrillation, is also not known to cause gout attacks.
Understanding the relationship between medications and gout can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and prevent unnecessary pain and discomfort for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. During the appointment, she inquires about the MenB vaccine and asks when it is typically administered.
Your Answer: At 4 and 12-13 months of age
Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months
Explanation:The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been incorporated into the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine replaces the MenC vaccine, which was discontinued in 2016. In addition to infants, individuals with certain health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are also recommended to receive the MenB vaccine. It is important to note that the vaccine doesn’t contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?
Your Answer: A vaccination program has been introduced for girls aged 12-13 years
Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts
Explanation:Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.
Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?Your Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:Benefits of Breastfeeding
Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.
Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.
Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are completing an ESA113 medical report that has been requested by the Department of Work and Pensions with regards a patient of yours who has applied for employment and support allowance.
Which of the following should you omit from such a medical report?Your Answer: Letters or reports from other healthcare professionals (the information provided should only be first-hand from the GP)
Correct Answer: Reference to criminal convictions not directly relevant to the patient's condition or disability, whether spent or not
Explanation:Accessing Medical Reports
Information contained in medical reports can be made available to patients upon request or if they appeal against a benefit entitlement decision. The report should include any relevant medical information, including diagnoses that continue to impact the patient significantly. However, harmful information that could negatively affect the patient’s health should not be disclosed and can be legally withheld by the Department of Work and Pensions. Such information should be clearly marked and managed appropriately.
Data protection legislation requires that information that would only embarrass the author or someone else should not be withheld. It is important to ensure that the report only includes issues that can be substantiated and that inappropriate personal remarks or suspicions of malingering without a firm basis are avoided. Additionally, letters or reports from other healthcare professionals should be included as they provide valuable information.
It is important to observe the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, which means that the report should not contain any reference to criminal convictions, whether spent or not, unless it is directly relevant to the patient’s condition or disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 26
Correct
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A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is currently on day 10 of her packet and missed the pill approximately 26 hours ago. The patient reports taking all other pills on time and has not experienced any recent vomiting or diarrhoea. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and is now seeking advice on whether she requires emergency contraception.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer: No emergency contraception required
Explanation:If a patient on the combined oral contraceptive pill misses two or more pills and has had unprotected sexual intercourse during the pill-free period or week 1 of the pill packet, emergency contraception should be considered. However, if the patient has only missed one pill, like in this case where the patient missed one pill on day 9, emergency contraception is not necessary. A pregnancy test is also not required at this point. However, if the patient had missed two pills and had a history of erratic pill-taking, a pregnancy test would be recommended before prescribing emergency contraception.
If the patient had missed two pills during days 1-7 of the pill packet and had unprotected sex during this time, emergency contraception should be offered. The choice of emergency contraception depends on various factors such as the timing of the unprotected intercourse event, other medications the patient may be taking, and their preferences. EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) can be used up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse, while Levonelle (levonorgestrel) can be used up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.
Offering to insert a copper coil to prevent pregnancy would be inappropriate in this case as emergency contraception is not required. However, if the patient is having trouble remembering to take their pill correctly and wishes to consider a long-acting contraceptive, options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection can be discussed. It is important to note that the contraceptive injection cannot be used as a form of emergency contraception.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively. What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?
Your Answer: 0.25
Correct Answer: 0.235
Explanation:- Sensitivity (Sens): The probability that the test is positive given that the disease is present. In this case, it is 80% or 0.80.
- Specificity (Spec): The probability that the test is negative given that the disease is not present. In this case, it is 85% or 0.85.
- Likelihood Ratio for a Negative Test Result (LR): The ratio of the probability of a negative test result in patients with the disease to the probability of a negative test result in patients without the disease. It is calculated as:
LR−=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity
Calculation
Using the provided sensitivity and specificity:
- Sensitivity = 0.80
- Specificity = 0.85
Substitute these values into the formula for the negative likelihood ratio:
LR=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity
LR=(1−0.80)/0.85
LR=0.20/0.85
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man admitted to the care of the elderly ward is experiencing diarrhoea and has been isolated in a side room with barrier nursing due to the isolation of Clostridium difficile in his stool samples. What medication is most likely causing his diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly associated with an increased risk of developing C. difficile infection. This is because broad spectrum antibiotics, including clindamycin, can disrupt the normal gut flora and allow for the overgrowth of C. difficile. Other antibiotics commonly used to treat C. difficile include vancomycin and metronidazole, which are administered orally to ensure high concentrations in the colon. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole are also believed to contribute to the development of C. difficile infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.
What is the follow-up test needed in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auditory brainstem response test
Explanation:If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.
It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.
Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.
Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being exposed to a child with Chickenpox, for the second time. She had received VZIG 29 days ago due to being non-immune. What is the appropriate course of action for her now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for second administration of VZIG
Explanation:In the event that a pregnant patient who is not immune is exposed to Chickenpox, it is recommended that she receive VZIG as soon as possible. VZIG can still be effective if administered within 10 days of contact, with the definition of continuous exposure being 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the initial case. If there is another exposure reported and at least 3 weeks have passed since the last dose, a second dose of VZIG may be necessary.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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