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Question 1
Incorrect
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In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?
Your Answer: Research ethics
Correct Answer: Informed consent
Explanation:Professionalism and UK Regulation
Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.
In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 2
Correct
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How can the inheritance pattern of fragile X syndrome be described?
Your Answer: X-linked dominant
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.
The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.
The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about sigma waves in relation to EEG?
Your Answer: They are occur during focussed mental activity
Correct Answer: They are absent in familial fatal insomnia
Explanation:Sigma waves are typically observed during stage 2 sleep and are considered a normal occurrence during sleep. They usually follow muscle twitches and are believed to help maintain a peaceful state during sleep. These waves are produced in the reticular nucleus of the thalamus and arise from the interplay between the thalamus and the cortex. However, in familial fatal insomnia (a prion disease), the absence of sigma waves is a characteristic feature.
Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her academic performance and her atypical physical characteristics. She is observed to be shorter than her peers and have a neck with excess skin folds. Upon further examination, she displays a wide chest and signs of hypothyroidism. What condition do you suspect?
Your Answer: Down's syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.
The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A junior colleague calls you about a patient on one of the pediatric wards. They have fallen over and sustained a head injury. They tell you that the patient is orientated in time, place, and person, is opening their eyes when spoken to, and obeys commands such as put you finger to your nose. What is the patients Glasgow Coma Scale score?
Your Answer: 12
Correct Answer: 14
Explanation:The total score of E3 V5 M6 is 14.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Incorrect
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If a drug is given intravenously at a dose of 1000mg and its concentration is measured to be 50 mg/L, what is the volume of distribution of the drug?
Your Answer: 0.5L
Correct Answer: 20L
Explanation:The plasma concentration is 50 and the total amount in the body is 1000, therefore the volume of distribution is 20.
Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which individual brought clozapine into clinical use?
Your Answer: Kuhn
Correct Answer: Kane
Explanation:Imipramine antidepressant effects were discovered by Kuhn. Kane introduced clozapine into clinical practice after conducting a successful double-blind multicenter trial comparing it with chlorpromazine in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Charpentier synthesized chlorpromazine, while Klein discovered the use of iproniazid. Cade discovered the beneficial effect of lithium in treating mania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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You encounter a 30-year-old patient in the Emergency department who reports experiencing intense visual hallucinations while listening to music. How would you characterize this symptom?
Your Answer: Reflex hallucinations
Explanation:Types of Hallucinations
Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality leads to hallucinations in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is the experience of seeing one’s own body projected into external space, typically in front of oneself. Extracampine hallucinations are those that occur outside of an individual’s sensory fields. Écho de la pensée refers to the experience of hearing voices that repeat one’s thoughts immediately after thinking them. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus triggers hallucinations that are experienced simultaneously and in the same modality as the initial stimulus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which SSRI medications have a higher likelihood of causing QTc interval prolongation?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:While the majority of SSRIs are believed to have minimal impact on the QTc interval, studies have demonstrated that citalopram and escitalopram can lead to QTc prolongation.
Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which diagnosis is consistent with a Malaysian man exhibiting sudden aggression and violence, followed by a deep stupor and subsequent inability to recall the events?
Your Answer: Amok
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of tumor that is caused by human herpesvirus 8. When it is associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions tend to occur on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also be found in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs in more advanced cases. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and are more likely to have HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical framework would guide the decision-making process?
Your Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:While quality adjusted life years (QALY) are a utilitarian measure, it would be extreme to suggest that individuals with illnesses that require expensive treatments should not be treated solely based on the cost-benefit analysis. The general population does not strictly adhere to utilitarian principles, and therefore, The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) considers other factors such as justice and the availability of alternative treatments for a particular condition in addition to the cost per QALY when making recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of these options is not a principle of Gestalt psychology?
Your Answer: Closure
Correct Answer: Approximation
Explanation:Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral hemispheres?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Correct Answer: Pineal gland
Explanation:Neuroanatomical Structures
The pineal gland is a unique structure in the brain that is not present bilaterally. It is a small endocrine gland responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone derived from serotonin. Along with the pituitary gland and circumventricular organs, the pineal gland is one of the few unpaired structures in the brain.
In contrast, the caudate nucleus is a paired structure located within the basal ganglia. It is present bilaterally and plays a crucial role in motor control and learning.
The midbrain contains the Mammillary body, which is also a paired structure involved in long-term memory formation. These structures work together to help us remember and recall past experiences.
Finally, the supraoptic nucleus is duplicated in each cerebral hemisphere. This structure is involved in regulating water balance and plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Before the enactment of the 2012 law, what was the criterion that prevented an individual from becoming a member of Parliament?
Your Answer: Prolonged incapacity due to physical illness
Correct Answer: Detention under mental health legislation
Explanation:Before the Mental Health (Discrimination) Bill was passed in 2012, MPs who were detained under the Mental Health Act for over six months would lose their seat. However, this changed with the passing of the Bill, which also addressed discrimination against mental health in regards to being a company director, school governor, and serving on a jury. It is important to note that prolonged incapacity due to physical illness has never been a hindrance to serving as an MP, and taking psychiatric medication does not disqualify someone from being an MP, although it does disqualify them from serving on a jury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In a normal, healthy person during stage III sleep, what EEG patterns would be most expected to be observed?
Your Answer: Theta waves
Correct Answer: Delta waves
Explanation:Sleep Stages
Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.
Sleep stage
Approx % of time spent in stage
EEG findings
CommentI
5%
Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.II
45%
Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.III
15%
Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.IV
15%
Mixed, predominantly beta
High dream activity.The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.
It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.
REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM
Characteristics of REM sleep
– Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
– Loss of muscle tone
– Dreaming
– Rapid eye movements
– Penile erectionDeafness:
(No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression?
Your Answer: Skinner
Correct Answer: Darwin
Explanation:Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the effect of naloxone?
Your Answer: It causes miosis at therapeutic doses
Correct Answer: It displaces both opioid agonists and partial antagonists
Explanation:Naloxone hydrochloride is a morphine derivative that acts as a specific opioid antagonist by competitively binding to opioid receptors. It has a strong affinity for these receptor sites and can displace both opioid agonists and partial antagonists. Despite being administered at high doses (up to 10 times the usual therapeutic dose), naloxone does not produce significant analgesia, respiratory depression, psychotomimetic effects, circulatory changes, of miosis. In the absence of opioids of other agonistic effects of opioid antagonists, naloxone has no pharmacologic activity. It is a competitive antagonist at the mu, kappa, and delta receptors, with a high affinity for the mu receptor but lacking any mu receptor efficacy.
Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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In which condition is focal slowing observed in the left temporal region on electroencephalography?
Your Answer: Normal aging
Explanation:Electroencephalography
Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.
Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.
Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.
Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.
Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.
Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns with the first four weeks of a newborn's life?
Your Answer: Autistic
Explanation:Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which allele is believed to have a protective effect against Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: APOE4
Correct Answer: APOE2
Explanation:APOE3 is considered to have a neutral effect on the risk of developing certain health conditions.
Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the ratio of individuals who possess a specific gene variant and exhibit the corresponding trait?
Your Answer: Heterogeneity
Correct Answer: Penetrance
Explanation:Heterogeneity is characterized by the existence of multiple genetic abnormalities that result in the same disorder.
Understanding Penetrance in Genetic Diseases
Penetrance refers to the likelihood of individuals with a specific genetic mutation developing clinical symptoms of a disease. It is expressed as a percentage, indicating the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit symptoms. For instance, if a mutation in a gene responsible for an autosomal dominant disorder has a penetrance of 90%, it means that 90% of individuals with the mutation will develop the disease, while the remaining 10% will not.
Penetrance is an essential concept in genetics, as it helps to predict the likelihood of a disease occurring in individuals with a specific genetic mutation. However, it is important to note that penetrance can vary depending on several factors, including age, gender, and environmental factors. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when assessing the risk of developing a genetic disease. Understanding penetrance can also aid in genetic counseling and the development of personalized treatment plans for individuals with genetic mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease?
Your Answer: Kayser-Fleischer Ring
Explanation:While other conditions may also present with the same symptoms, a Kayser-Fleischer Ring, characterized by a golden-brown corneal ring due to copper deposits at the Descemet’s membrane, is considered a definitive indicator of Wilson’s disease.
Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.
The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.
The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.
In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:Projection is classified as an underdeveloped defense mechanism, as it is considered immature. Freud proposed the idea that defenses evolve along a spectrum of personality growth. As an illustration, as time passes and the connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system continue to myelinate, the defense mechanism commonly seen in adolescence, acting out (such as impulsive and momentarily soothing outbursts), may give rise to reaction formation and potentially even altruism in the future.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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Which process breaks down dopamine?
Your Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO
Explanation:COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 26
Correct
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On which cellular structure does the process of translation occur?
Your Answer: Ribosome
Explanation:Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.
The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is prescribed semisodium valproate (Depakote) as a mood stabiliser. What is the most important adverse effect to discuss with him?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Correct Answer: Neural tube defects
Explanation:While weight gain is a known side effect of valproate, the most significant consideration when prescribing it to women of childbearing age is the significant risk of neural tube defects in the fetus if taken during pregnancy. Effective contraception should be carefully considered. Hair loss is usually transient and hypotension and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are not commonly associated with valproate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A client in their 50s taking risperidone reports an atypical feeling during ejaculation and absence of semen. Which receptor is responsible for this side effect due to the medication's antagonism?
Your Answer: Glutaminergic
Correct Answer: Adrenergic
Explanation:Antipsychotic medications change the tension of the bladder of urethral sphincter, which can result in the backward flow of semen into the bladder during ejaculation. This effect is believed to be caused by blocking the 1-adrenergic receptor.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following ocular presentations is atypical for multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Nystagmus
Correct Answer: Raised intraocular pressure
Explanation:There is no correlation between multiple sclerosis and raised intraocular pressure, which is known as glaucoma when accompanied by visual field loss.
Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview
Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.
The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man who drinks a 10-glass (70 cl) bottle of 37.5% ABV vodka every day, on a weekly basis?
Your Answer: 70
Correct Answer: 190
Explanation:To calculate the units of alcohol in a drink, multiply the volume in litres by the percentage alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a 70 cl (0.7 L) bottle of vodka with a 37.5% ABV contains 26 units. Consuming a bottle of this vodka every day for a week would result in approximately 190 units of alcohol (26 units x 7 days).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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