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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His headaches are now occurring about once a week. He describes unilateral, throbbing headaches that may last over 24 hours. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Other than a history of asthma, he is fit and well. What is the most suitable therapy to reduce the frequency of migraine attacks?
Your Answer: Zolmitriptan
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:It should be noted that as a general rule 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis. NICE produced guidelines in 2012 on the management of headache, including migraines. Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing 2 or more attacks per month. Modern treatment is effective in about 60% of patients. NICE advises either topiramate or propranolol ‘according to the person’s preference, comorbidities and risk of adverse events’. Propranolol should be used in preference to topiramate in women of child bearing age as it may be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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What kind of receptor is the nitric oxide receptor?
Your Answer: Guanylate cyclase receptor
Explanation:Soluble guanylyl cyclase (GC-1) is the primary receptor of nitric oxide (NO) in smooth muscle cells and maintains vascular function by inducing vasorelaxation in nearby blood vessels. GC-1 converts guanosine 5′-triphosphate (GTP) into cyclic guanosine 3′,5′-monophosphate (cGMP), which acts as a second messenger to improve blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?
Your Answer: An inducible form of NOS is present in macrophages
Correct Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation
Explanation:Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?
Your Answer: CA 15-3
Explanation:Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?
Your Answer: Hypermetropia
Explanation:Acute angle closure glaucoma is associated with hypermetropia, whereas primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with myopia. Glaucoma is a group of eye disorders characterised by optic neuropathy due, in the majority of patients, to raised intraocular pressure (IOP). It is now recognised that a minority of patients with raised IOP do not have glaucoma and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?
Your Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with sensory loss?
Your Answer: Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies
Correct Answer: Uraemia
Explanation:Diseases that cause predominantly sensory loss include diabetes, uraemia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.
Those that cause predominantly motor loss include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, and diphtheria. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psittacosis
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.
People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.
A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking which settled after resting. On examination there were orange colour deposits in the her palmar creases. Her fasting lipid profile showed a total cholesterol of 9.2 mmol/l (<5) and triglycerides of 7.0 mmol/l (<2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type III hyperlipidaemia
Explanation:Palmar xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia. Her total cholesterol level and triglyceride level support the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non healing lesion over the right ear. It is about 1cm in size and bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma like other skin cancers mostly arise on photo exposed sites. A patient usually presents with a history of a non healing lesion or wound. Confirmatory diagnosis requires a skin biopsy and histopathological screening. It is rarely metastatic and treatment of choice is surgical excision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 22-year-old gentleman presents to A&E for the third time with recurrent urinary stones. There appear to be no predisposing factors, and he is otherwise well; urine culture is unremarkable. The urine stones turn out to be cystine stones. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Cystinuria
Explanation:Cystinuria is strongly suspected because of the recurrent passing of cystine stones and otherwise non-remarkable medical history of this young adult patient. Like Cystinuria, all the conditions listed are also inherited disorders, however, the other differentials usually present in the early years of childhood, usually with failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer: Experimental event rate
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?
Your Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.
Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).
Common side-effects:
Drowsiness
Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Constipation
Urinary retentionLow-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 77 year old mail carrier presents to the emergency department with severe flinging movements of his left arm. Where would the causative lesion be located?
Your Answer: Right caudate nucleus
Correct Answer: Right subthalamic nucleus
Explanation:Hemiballismus is a hyperkinetic involuntary movement disorder characterized by intermittent, sudden, violent, involuntary, flinging, or ballistic high amplitude movements involving the ipsilateral arm and leg caused by dysfunction in the central nervous system of the contralateral side.Global incidence and prevalence are largely unknown, given the wide variety of etiologies but estimated to be 1-2/1,000,000, classifying it as a rare disorder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?
Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).
For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome. Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer: Occupational history of working in sewers
Correct Answer: Peripheral visual impairment
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.
It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.
CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
Presentation:
The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:The hallucinations are always outside the body.
The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Mediastinal involvement
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
Stage
I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)
III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)
IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites
Suffix
A: No B symptomsB: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?
Your Answer: All staff in contact with the patient
Correct Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.
Explanation:Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes. His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L, Plts: 212 x 10^9/L, Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 4.7 mmol/L, Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L, Urea: 7.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 104 mmol/L, Albumin: 38 g/L, IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0), IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0), IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5). Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Explanation:Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)—also known as benign paraproteinemia and monoclonal gammopathy—is a pre-malignant condition not necessarily leading to its malignant form—multiple myeloma. MGUS causes increase of a serum monoclonal protein (M protein). It is not associated with ostealgia or increased risk of infections. It is often mistaken for multiple myeloma, differing from the latter in, no immunosuppression, anaemia, hypercalcaemia, lytic bone lesions, or renal failure; normal levels of beta-2 microglobulin; and stable lower levels of paraproteinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy
Explanation:Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics. His full blood count done (FBC) today shows: Hb: 9.1 g/dL, Plts: 250 x 10^9/L, WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L, Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L. However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score. Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?
Your Answer: Leukemoid reaction
Explanation:Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.
Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.
LAP score is high in:
1. Leukemoid reaction
2. Infections
3. Myelofibrosis
4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pillLAP score is low in:
1. CML
2. Pernicious anaemia
3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
4. Infectious mononucleosis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
– Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
– Weight gain
– Decreased appetite
– Cold intolerance
– Dry skin
– Hair loss
– Sleepiness
– Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
– Depression
– Emotional lability, mental impairment
– Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
– Decreased perspiration
– Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
– Blurred vision
– Decreased hearing
– Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
– Weight gain
– Slowed speech and movements
– Dry skin
– Jaundice
– Pallor
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
– Dull facial expression
– Coarse facial features
– Periorbital puffiness
– Macroglossia
– Goitre (simple or nodular)
– Hoarseness
– Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
– Bradycardia
– Pericardial effusion
– Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
– Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
– Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
– Pitting oedema of lower extremities
– Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer: Myelofibrosis + chronic myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:5–15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?
Your Answer: Clonazepam
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?
Your Answer: Subvalvular aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Explanation:Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?
Your Answer: Is due to a defect on chromosome 16
Correct Answer: May be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound
Explanation:Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is less common than ADPKD (dominant form) but can already present with symptoms and be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman is admitted with a productive cough and pyrexia. Chest x-ray shows a pneumonia and she is commenced on intravenous ceftriaxone. Following admission a stool sample is sent because of diarrhoea. This confirms the suspected diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea and a 10-day course of oral metronidazole is started. After 10 days her diarrhoea is ongoing but she remains clinically stable. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Oral vancomycin for 14 days
Explanation:When a patient fails treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl) treatment, the next course of action is to change to oral vancomycin, which is shown to be effective in the treatment of c diff colitis. Oral rifampicin is not a treatment for c diff. Oral metronidazole is not resolving her symptoms so is not the correct answer. clindamycin is a cause of c diff colitis, not a treatment. IV Vanc is not active in the gut so is not the treatment; oral is active in the gut.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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