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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The mother's wishes are paramount

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his job six months ago and has been living on savings. He lives with his two sons who are both in school. He divorced six years ago and neither he nor his children have seen his ex-wife since. He says that he has been ignoring bills and is now running out of money, relying on food banks to feed his family. His landlord has issued an ultimatum after failing to pay rent.

      He says that his sister is in receipt of Universal Credit (UC), but he doesn't know anything about it. You have advised him to contact the Benefits Agency, but in the meantime, what can you say about Universal Credit in this man's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He will receive extra allowance if he has a health condition which prevents him from working

      Explanation:

      Understanding Universal Credit

      Universal Credit (UC) is a monthly payment that replaces six income-related benefits, including Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Income Support, Child Tax Credit, Working Tax Credit, and Housing Benefit. It is available to people in and out of work. If someone is currently receiving any of these six benefits, they do not need to take any action unless there is a change in their circumstances or the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) contacts them about moving to Universal Credit.

      A person’s monthly Universal Credit payment consists of a standard allowance and any additional amounts that apply to them, such as having children, a disability or health condition that prevents them from working, or needing help paying their rent. If a patient claims UC on health grounds, they may ask for a fit note. In cases where a patient is working but has restricted ability to work, they may request medical evidence of their health condition.

      The patient will be referred to CHDA for a Work Capability Assessment, similar to ESA. Medical evidence, such as fit notes, is required until the DWP makes a decision on their claim. No further fit notes are necessary unless the patient wishes to appeal the decision. If the patient’s appeal is unsuccessful and it is determined that they are fit for work, further fit notes should only be issued if their condition significantly worsens or they develop a new condition.

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  • Question 3 - You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's...

    Incorrect

    • You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's family. This year, you receive a deluxe collection from an expensive retailer from the family and you are astonished to see that it costs £110.

      What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts

      Explanation:

      Registering Gifts as a GP

      As a GP, it is important to register any gifts received from patients or their relatives that are worth £100 or more, unless the gift is unrelated to the provision of services. This applies to all GPs, including locums, and equivalent regulations operate throughout the UK. The register should include the name of the donor, nature of the gift, and its estimated value. CCGs may request to see these registers. GPs may also need to seek tax advice for declaring large gifts. It is recommended to contact your trade union or indemnity provider if unsure about any gift policy. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it is worth asking about this when joining a new practice.

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  • Question 4 - Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on...

    Incorrect

    • Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on the doctor-patient relationship, in which he coined a number of phrases.

      Which one of the following can be attributed to him and was written in his book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Sickness, when he was in his thirties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Drug Doctor

      Explanation:

      Balint’s Contributions to the Sociological Model of Consultation

      Balint, a Hungarian psychologist who worked at the Tavistock clinic in London, made significant contributions to the sociological model of consultation. In his book, he introduced the term drug doctor to describe the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, which is essentially effective reassurance.

      The sociological model of consultation includes three key elements: Charismatic Authority, Sapiential Authority, and Values and Norms. Charismatic Authority refers to the doctor’s ability to inspire trust and confidence in their patients. Sapiential Authority, on the other hand, is the doctor’s knowledge and expertise in their field. Lastly, Values and Norms pertain to the shared beliefs and expectations between the doctor and patient.

      Balint’s work highlights the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process. By recognizing the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, doctors can better understand their role in the consultation and provide more effective reassurance to their patients.

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  • Question 5 - A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the receptionists. Who is accountable for arranging a different primary healthcare provider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The local clinical commissioning group

      Explanation:

      The responsibility of arranging alternative care falls on the local clinical commissioning group. To cater to aggressive or violent patients, several clinical commissioning groups may arrange primary care services that are tailored to their needs.

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

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  • Question 6 - What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the transactional analysis approach to consultation, and which one of these states is included?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Humanist

      Explanation:

      Transactional Approach to Doctor-Patient Relations

      The transactional approach to doctor-patient relations involves three ego states: parent, adult, and child. During a consultation, each person assumes one of these positions, and problems can arise when these positions cross. This model emphasizes the importance of clear communication and understanding between the doctor and patient. By recognizing and addressing these ego states, doctors can better understand their patients’ needs and provide effective care.

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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man has asthma and depression. He is dissatisfied with the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has asthma and depression. He is dissatisfied with the treatment he has received for his asthma and files a complaint. He requests to view his medical records. Upon reviewing the records, you notice that another healthcare provider has written insufficient personality in the notes. You believe that if the patient were to read this, it would be devastating.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients cannot see results of investigations

      Explanation:

      Restricting Access to Patient Medical Records

      You have the ability to limit access to certain parts of a patient’s medical record if you believe that it could cause harm to the patient or another person. Additionally, you can restrict access to any references to named third parties, such as a spouse’s recent treatment. However, it is important to note that there is no requirement to limit access to paper records, results, or x-rays. It is not acceptable to completely obstruct access to all of a patient’s records without a valid reason. By carefully considering the potential consequences and taking appropriate action, you can ensure that patient privacy is protected while still providing necessary medical care.

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  • Question 8 - You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several different locations. Mum says that the child fell down stairs a week ago.

      What age are bruises that are purple in colour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 12 hours old

      Explanation:

      Inaccurate Estimation of Bruise Age

      The age of a bruise cannot be determined accurately through clinical assessment or photographs. Relying on the color of a bruise to estimate its age is an unreliable practice that should be avoided in child protection proceedings. It is important to note that there is no definitive way to determine the age of a bruise, and relying on visual cues can lead to inaccurate conclusions. Therefore, it is crucial to approach any suspected cases of child abuse with caution and rely on a thorough investigation to determine the cause of the injury.

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  • Question 9 - You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for...

    Incorrect

    • You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for a haulage company. A few weeks ago, he was involved in an accident that caused a severe eye injury, and he has now been informed that he will never regain any vision in his left eye. He is curious about his eligibility to hold a Group 2 drivers licence. What is the DVLA's advice on holding a Group 2 licence after experiencing permanent vision loss in one eye?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He cannot hold a Group 2 licence

      Explanation:

      Group 2 Licence Requirements for Vision

      Applicants for a Group 2 licence must meet certain vision requirements. Specifically, they must have at least corrected acuity of 3/60 in both eyes and no complete loss of vision in either eye. If an applicant has a complete loss of vision in one eye or corrected acuity of less than 3/60 in one eye, they are legally barred from holding a Group 2 licence. It is important for applicants to understand these requirements before applying for a Group 2 licence to ensure they meet the necessary criteria.

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  • Question 10 - You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your...

    Incorrect

    • You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your slides. The presentation will be for students in your class and you also plan to share it with students in another class via video-conference.
      Under what circumstances is it necessary to obtain patient consent before displaying images related to patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT images

      Explanation:

      Patient Consent for Showing Images of Rare Skin Lesions

      It is important to obtain patient consent before displaying images of rare skin lesions. The General Medical Council (GMC) recommends seeking consent in such cases. However, in other circumstances, consent may not be necessary.

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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently experienced acute mechanical lower back pain after twisting his back while working in the garden two weeks ago. He self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note and then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last one week.

      Upon reviewing the notes, you notice that your colleague marked the fit note as you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice and has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked, I will not need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.

      He works in a factory and some of his duties involve heavy lifting, but he is still able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. He informs you that his back has fully recovered, but his employer has requested a fit note stating that he is fit to resume his full work activities.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note - he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note: What You Need to Know

      When you’re on sick leave, your employer may ask you to sign a return to work note. However, you should know that you are not obligated to sign it. Employers may ask for this note to protect themselves or for insurance purposes, but you have the right to return to work at any time, even before the end of your sick note.

      It’s important to inform your employer that you can return to work without seeing your doctor again, even if the doctor has indicated that they need to assess you again. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) has provided guidance for employers and managers, which states that as long as a suitable risk assessment has taken place, returning to work early will not breach your Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance.

      In summary, if you’re asked to sign a return to work note, remember that you have the right to return to work at any time and that you don’t need to sign the note. Refer your employer to the DWP guidance for employers and managers to ensure that they understand their obligations and your rights.

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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period

      Explanation:

      Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women

      The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.

      Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.

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  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures

      This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.

      According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.

      If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

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  • Question 14 - A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her condition is worsening and she now requires a walking aid to move around. She is concerned about the financial burden of her condition and asks if she is eligible for any government assistance, given that she has been a taxpayer for most of her life. She mentions that she still pays higher rate tax on her pensions and investments. Can you advise her on whether she qualifies for Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Higher rate tax payers are not eligible for PIP

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a government benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals with long-term conditions or disabilities that are expected to last for at least 12 months. PIP is divided into two components: Daily Living and Mobility, each with standard and enhanced rates. Unlike other benefits, PIP is not income-related and is not affected by earnings, savings, or taxes. It is available to anyone, regardless of their employment status.

      To qualify for PIP, an individual must have required assistance with daily living or mobility activities for at least three months and be reasonably likely to need help for the next nine months. However, individuals can submit a claim for PIP during the first three months of needing assistance. It is important to note that PIP is based on how a person’s condition affects them, not the condition itself. This means that the severity of the condition is not the only factor considered when determining eligibility for PIP.

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  • Question 15 - What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010

      In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.

      It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.

      Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.

      The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.

      Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.

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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools

      When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

      For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.

      In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

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  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

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  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She informs you that she has an upcoming appointment with the mental health team in a few weeks and requests a sick note as she believes she will be unable to work for the remainder of the year. What is the maximum duration for which you can provide a statement of fitness for work, regardless of eligibility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification

      In April 2010, the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) introduced a new statement of fitness for work to replace the old ‘sick note’. This new statement brought about several significant changes.

      Firstly, during the first six months of sickness, the statement can only be issued for a maximum of three months. Secondly, doctors are no longer required to hold a face-to-face consultation to issue a note. Instead, another doctor’s report or a telephone consultation with the patient is sufficient.

      Thirdly, doctors are not obligated to provide a statement of fitness for work during the first seven calendar days of absence due to ill health. These changes have made sickness certification a popular topic in the AKT exam. For more information, refer to the Fit note: guidance for GPs page published by the DWP.

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  • Question 19 - A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have...

    Incorrect

    • A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have evolved, particularly in terms of the types of consultation and the age groups that consult the most frequently. She conducts an audit of the number and types of consultations that occurred in the past three years and compares these findings to a previous audit conducted in 2000. It is observed that there have been some significant changes, which are consistent with similar national analyses.
      What is the most probable recent trend in GP consultations concerning age groups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent attenders consult, on average, five times more than the rest of the Practice population

      Explanation:

      Changes in General Practice Consultation Trends: A Retrospective Cohort Study

      A retrospective cohort study has revealed significant changes in General Practice (GP) consultation trends, particularly in the type of consultations offered. The COVID-19 pandemic has led to a shift away from face-to-face consultations towards other means of consulting. Frequent attenders are now consulting proportionally more over time, accounting for almost half of all GP consultations and five times more than the rest of the Practice population. This trend is evident across all consultation modalities, including face-to-face. However, the proportion of consultations with frequent attenders has dropped since 2000, despite GP consultations with frequent attenders increasing from a median of 13% to 21% over the same period. Currently, one in ten GP consultations (of any type) are with frequent attenders, and these have proportionally increased in the last 20 years. Although there has been a reduction in face-to-face consultations and a significant increase in online/telephone consultations, overall appointments have continued to increase. Face-to-face consultations have reduced in number, both for GPs and other clinical staff.

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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure. He has notified the DVLA and has stopped driving his bus. He holds a full driving licence and has never taken medication. He has undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist and, following initial investigations, is thought to have no continuing increased risk of seizures.
      Assuming he remains free of epileptic attacks, when, if at all, can he resume driving a group 2 bus or lorry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 years

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Medical Conditions for Group 2 Bus and Lorry Drivers

      According to the DVLA’s guidance on medical conditions, drivers of group 2 buses or lorries who have experienced an isolated seizure must meet certain conditions in order to continue driving. Unlike drivers with epilepsy and a history of recurrent seizures, who must be seizure-free for 10 years, drivers with an isolated seizure must meet the following criteria:

      – Hold a full ordinary driving licence
      – Have been free of epileptic attacks for the last 5 years
      – Have not taken any medication to treat epilepsy during these 5 years or had a seizure during these 5 years
      – Have undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist
      – Have no continuing increased risk of seizures

      It is important for drivers to follow these guidelines in order to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. By meeting these criteria, drivers can continue to operate group 2 buses and lorries without posing a risk to themselves or others.

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  • Question 21 - You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).

      He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.

      How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs

      Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

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  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being a victim of domestic abuse by his partner.
      Which of the following choices is LEAST PROBABLE to corroborate his statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He had to strike the partner because she 'wound him up'

      Explanation:

      Understanding Domestic Violence: Identifying Victims and Perpetrators

      Domestic violence is a form of abusive and controlling behavior that gives the abuser power over the victim. It is not limited to heterosexual relationships and can occur in any kind of relationship. According to a survey conducted in 2012-2013, 7.1% of women and 4.4% of men reported experiencing domestic violence.

      It is crucial to correctly identify whether the patient is a victim or a perpetrator as incorrect identification can have severe consequences for the patient, their partner, and any children involved. Striking out at a partner is an action of a perpetrator, and no matter how annoying they find their partner, they are not legally allowed to hurt them. The other four options could be examples of abuse against the perpetrator.

      For those interested in learning more about the issues surrounding male victims of domestic violence, the Respect Toolkit for Work with Male Victims of Domestic Violence (2019) provides an excellent overview.

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  • Question 24 - A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide...

    Incorrect

    • A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide a Statement of Fitness for Work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After they have been off work for more than 7 calendar days

      Explanation:

      Patients have the ability to self-certify for a maximum of 7 consecutive days.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

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  • Question 25 - Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting...

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    • Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rules about the confidentiality of data do not legally apply to emails

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Data: Applicable to All Storage and Transmission Methods

      The confidentiality of data is a crucial aspect of information security. It is important to note that the rules regarding data confidentiality apply to all means of storage and transmission, whether it is done manually or electronically. This means that regardless of how data is stored or sent, it must be kept confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. Therefore, it is essential to implement appropriate security measures to ensure the confidentiality of data, such as encryption, access controls, and secure transmission protocols.

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  • Question 26 - You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.

      Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council

      The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.

      In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.

      Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.

      Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.

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  • Question 27 - In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas,...

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    • In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
      Why do teachers use this phrase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE

      Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.

      For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.

      As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.

      In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.

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  • Question 28 - You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to...

    Incorrect

    • You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to mold in their school. To whom should occupational asthma be reported?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be reported under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences regulations to the Health & Safety Executive

      Explanation:

      Reporting and Compensation for Occupational Asthma

      Patients who develop occupational asthma may be eligible for benefits through the Industrial Injuries Disablement Benefit. Additionally, if their employer failed to take necessary precautions to prevent harm, the patient may be entitled to make a civil claim for compensation for personal injury. It is important to report cases of occupational asthma to the appropriate authorities. RIDDOR regulations require that cases of occupational asthma be reported to the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), which can be done by the patient’s occupational health department if they were involved in the initial diagnosis. In cases of certain infectious diseases, the local authority should be notified. However, the Chief Medical Officer is not directly involved in the reporting of occupational asthma, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible for regulating medication and medical devices, not reporting cases of occupational asthma. By reporting cases of occupational asthma, appropriate action can be taken to prevent further harm and ensure that patients receive the necessary support and compensation.

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  • Question 29 - You see a 5-year-old girl with her mother. The girl has obvious burns...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 5-year-old girl with her mother. The girl has obvious burns on her feet. Her mother explains that hot water from the kettle splashed on her accidentally. A few days later you see her with her stepfather who says that she got into a bath that was too hot. The pattern of the burns is not consistent with either explanation.

      You are concerned and think about contacting the child protection team.

      You discuss with your colleagues and debate what should be the primary concern in this circumstance.

      Which one of the following should be your primary concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The wishes of the child

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Prioritizing a Child’s Best Interests

      The best interests of a child should always be the primary concern in any action taken by public or private institutions, courts, administrative authorities, or legislative bodies. It is crucial to understand that a child’s best interests and their wishes are not the same thing. While other concerns may be important, they should always be secondary to the child’s well-being.

      When answering questions related to child protection, it is essential to read the options carefully and thoroughly. It can be helpful to cover the options first and then consider which one aligns with the principle of prioritizing a child’s best interests. This approach can prevent confusion and ensure that the correct answer is chosen.

      The Child’s Best Interest Principle is a fundamental concept across all child protection jurisdictions. It emphasizes that the well-being of the child should be the primary consideration in all actions taken by institutions and authorities. By prioritizing a child’s best interests, we can ensure that they are protected and supported in the best possible way.

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  • Question 30 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

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