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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy

      Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis tear

      Explanation:

      Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his right hand. He observes that his symptoms are more severe at night, frequently waking him up, and can only be alleviated by hanging his arm outside of the bed. Which nerve compression is likely responsible for this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Compression: Symptoms and Special Tests

      Nerve compression can cause a range of symptoms, from pain and weakness to numbness and tingling. Here are some key things to know about nerve compression and how it affects different nerves in the body.

      The Median Nerve: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel, and compression of this nerve can cause pain, paraesthesiae, and weakness in the distribution of the median nerve. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition that can be caused by pregnancy, diabetes, and other factors. Special tests to detect carpal tunnel syndrome include TINel’s sign, Phalen’s test, and motor assessment.

      The Radial Nerve: Hand and Arm Pain

      Compression of the radial nerve can lead to pain in the back of your hand, near your thumb, and you may not be able to straighten your arm.

      The Lateral Cutaneous Nerve: Reduced Sensation

      Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve can lead to reduced sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      The Ulnar Nerve: Numbness and Tingling

      Compression of the ulnar nerve can lead to numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and half of the fourth finger.

      The Medial Cutaneous Nerve: Elbow and Forearm Pain

      Compression of the medial cutaneous nerve can lead to pain at the elbow and forearm.

      By understanding the symptoms and special tests associated with nerve compression, you can better identify and manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing...

    Correct

    • An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis

      Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:

      Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.

      Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.

      Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.

      Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.

      Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.

      Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
      Which of the following structures is most at risk?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Brachial artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus

      Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe...

    Correct

    • How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe osteoporosis despite the fact that primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism are associated with loss of bone mass?

      Your Answer: By having a direct anabolic effect on bone

      Explanation:

      The Mechanisms of Parathyroid Hormone in Osteoporosis Treatment

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a complex role in the treatment of osteoporosis. While chronic elevation of PTH can lead to bone loss, mild elevations can help maintain trabecular bone mass. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, has been shown to increase bone mass and improve skeletal structure. However, PTH’s ability to increase bone remodelling is not beneficial in osteoporosis treatment, and chronic elevation can worsen the condition by increasing calcium resorption. PTH can activate the enzyme needed for activating vitamin D, but this is not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Additionally, PTH can decrease calcium excretion from the kidneys, but this is also not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Overall, PTH’s direct anabolic effect on bone is the most significant mechanism for its use in osteoporosis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
      This sign is most likely to be caused by:

      Your Answer: Compression of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.

      It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

      While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?

      Your Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.

      The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with a painful left hip and difficulty walking. Imaging revealed a fracture of the left femoral head and a compression fracture of the T10 vertebra. She had no significant medical history prior to this incident.
      What is the most probable underlying condition in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis: A Disease of Reduced Bone Mass

      Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by reduced bone mass, leading to increased porosity of the skeleton and a higher risk of fractures. This patient is likely suffering from osteoporosis with accelerated bone loss, which can be exacerbated by physical inactivity and decreased muscle mass. While osteoporosis can be localized to a specific bone or region, it can also affect the entire skeleton as a manifestation of a metabolic bone disease. The most common forms of osteoporosis are senile and postmenopausal osteoporosis, which are characterized by critical loss of bone mass that makes the skeleton vulnerable to fractures.

      Other conditions, such as osteogenesis imperfecta, acute osteomyelitis, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and metastatic breast carcinoma, can also affect bone health but present differently and have different underlying causes. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of osteoporosis to prevent and manage this disease effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      40.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (9/10) 90%
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