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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain that has been bothering him for the past 10 months. The pain worsens with activity and walking, causing bilateral pain and weakness in his calves. However, sitting or leaning forward provides relief. Despite a thorough examination, no neurological findings are present. The patient has no significant medical history, smokes socially, and drinks a glass of wine with dinner each night. He works as a builder and is worried that his back pain will affect his ability to work. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - Samantha is a 65-year-old with a history of type 2 diabetes who has...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old with a history of type 2 diabetes who has reported experiencing occasional tingling in her right 4th and 5th fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, leading to numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is typically caused by entrapment of the nerve at the elbow and is more common in individuals with diabetes. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist and affects the first three fingers and part of the 4th finger. While it is possible for multiple sclerosis to cause similar symptoms, it is less likely. Alcohol abuse and… (sentence incomplete)

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old Vietnamese man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old Vietnamese man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 weeks. He denies experiencing any urinary symptoms and has already taken nitrofurantoin prescribed by his GP, but it did not alleviate his pain. During the physical examination, he has a fever of 38.4 °C, and his pain worsens when his left hip is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iliopsoas abscess

      Explanation:

      The combination of fever, back pain, and pain when extending the hip suggests the presence of an iliopsoas abscess. The patient may also exhibit a limp while walking. Iliopsoas abscesses can be caused by primary or secondary factors. While Pott’s disease, a form of tuberculosis affecting the vertebrae, could explain the back pain and fever, the examination findings are more indicative of an iliopsoas abscess. Mechanical back pain would not typically produce constitutional symptoms like fever. Pyelonephritis is a potential differential diagnosis, but the examination findings are more consistent with an iliopsoas abscess. It may be helpful to rule out pyelonephritis with a urine dip and ultrasound. Although kidney stones can cause severe pain and fever if infected, the duration of the patient’s symptoms makes this possibility less likely.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the potential risk associated with his treatment that he may develop?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy can lead to a higher risk of gout due to the increased production of uric acid from the breakdown of cells. However, it is not associated with an increased risk of pseudogout or rheumatoid arthritis, which are caused by different factors such as calcium pyrophosphate crystals and genetics, respectively.

      Understanding the Predisposing Factors of Gout

      Gout is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when monosodium urate monohydrate is deposited in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels that exceed 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.

      One of the primary causes of decreased uric acid excretion is the use of diuretics. Chronic kidney disease and lead toxicity can also lead to decreased excretion of uric acid. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be caused by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis. Additionally, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is an x-linked recessive disorder that is only seen in boys, can also lead to increased production of uric acid.

      It is important to note that aspirin in low doses is not thought to have a significant effect on plasma urate levels. Therefore, it is recommended that it should be continued if required for cardiovascular prophylaxis. Understanding the predisposing factors of gout can help individuals take preventative measures to reduce their risk of developing this painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision....

    Correct

    • An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left knee. During a lower limb examination, you observe that the tibia moves backward when a force is applied. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man is brought in following a fall from scaffolding resulting in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is brought in following a fall from scaffolding resulting in an open tibial fracture and a 15 cm wound. Fortunately, he has no neurovascular damage. What is the most appropriate initial step to take?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics, photography and application of saline soaked gauze with impermeable dressing

      Explanation:

      When dealing with open fractures, it is important to start with giving the patient intravenous antibiotics, taking photographs of the wound, and applying a sterile soaked gauze and impermeable film. It is crucial to avoid handling the wound except for removing any visible contamination. After this initial step, the patient will likely need further treatment for skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction.

      Understanding Open Fractures

      Open fractures occur when there is a break in the bone and the skin is also damaged. Any wound in the same limb as a fracture should be considered an open fracture. The main issue with open fractures is the damage to the surrounding soft tissues, including muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and periosteum. The severity of the injury and outcome depend on the extent of this damage. The Gustilo and Anderson system grades open fractures based on the size of the wound and soft tissue damage. Type IIIc injuries, which involve arterial injury, may require primary amputation.

      Initial management of open fractures involves examining the patient for associated injuries, controlling bleeding, and assessing the extent of the injury. Imaging and establishing distal neurovascular status are also important. Antibiotics should be administered, and the wound should be covered with a dressing. Early debridement, which involves removing foreign material and devitalized tissue, is crucial. The wound is often left open and irrigated with saline. Stabilizing the fracture is also important, and an external fixator is often used initially.

      Overall, understanding open fractures is important for proper management and treatment. Early intervention and careful attention to soft tissue damage can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who was referred due to a family history of femoral fracture. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He is a former smoker, quit 10 years ago, drinks 5 units of alcohol per week and follows a vegetarian diet. His T-score is -2.5. Blood results are shown below.

      Hb 140g/L 120-160g/L

      WCC 7.0x109/l 4.0-11x109/l

      Na+ 138 mmol/L 135-145 mmol/L

      K+ 4.2mmol/L 3.5-5.0mmol/L

      Ca2+ 2.3mmol/L 2.2-2.6mmol/L (adjusted)

      Vitamin D 60 nmol/L >50 nmol/L

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Alendronate + calcium + vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      The recommended prescription for this patient with osteoporosis is bisphosphonate therapy, specifically alendronate or risedronate. Before starting treatment, it is important to ensure that calcium and vitamin D levels are replete, but supplementation should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate or if there is a risk of vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for older postmenopausal women with osteoporosis, as the risk vs benefit ratio is unfavourable.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the ED complaining of instability and pain in...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the ED complaining of instability and pain in her right hip. She reports that the pain extends to her knee and is exacerbated by weight-bearing, but she is still able to walk and bear weight. She underwent a total hip replacement 19 months ago for an intracapsular femoral neck fracture. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aseptic loosening of the hip replacement

      Explanation:

      The most common reason for revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, which can cause pain in the hip or groin area that may radiate down to the knee. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is not a possible complication in this case as the patient has already undergone a total hip replacement. IT band syndrome is unlikely as the patient’s history does not suggest regular strenuous physical activity. Infection of the replacement is an acute complication that would not typically present 18 months after surgery. A periprosthetic fracture would result in reduced range of motion and inability to bear weight, which is not the case for this patient.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.

      If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.

      Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic girdle. She reports feeling weak and struggling with her daily activities. The pain and stiffness are most severe in the morning and gradually improve throughout the day, lasting up to 5 hours after waking.

      During the examination, there is no apparent weakness in any of her limbs, but there is stiffness and pain in her proximal muscles. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and depression and is currently taking atorvastatin and sertraline. What investigation findings are expected, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP ↑, CK normal

      Correct Answer: ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP normal, CK normal

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that creatine kinase levels are normal in polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by morning stiffness and pain in the proximal muscles, which is caused by inflammation in the joint linings. As a result, ESR and CRP levels are elevated, but there are no autoantibodies associated with PMR, hence anti-CCP levels are normal. Since there is no muscle damage or weakness, CK levels remain normal. These are typical findings for a patient with PMR.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left hand for several months, particularly when exposed to cold weather. She describes the pain as spasming and accompanied by numbness and a change in color in her hand. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, and there are no visible signs or symptoms. However, a non-specific rash resembling eczema is present in the flexure creases. Blood tests are conducted, and the patient is referred for further specialized testing. What factors would suggest a primary disease rather than a secondary one?

      Your Answer: Onset under 40 years

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease, specifically primary Raynaud’s, is likely in a young woman experiencing bilateral symptoms. The spasming of hand vessels causing color changes, especially in cold weather, strongly suggests Raynaud’s. Onset under 40 years of age is a key feature of primary Raynaud’s, while onset over 40 years points more towards secondary Raynaud’s, which may be associated with a connective tissue disorder. Specialist testing, such as nail fold capillary microscopy, may be performed to rule out secondary Raynaud’s. Autoantibodies would indicate the possibility of a systemic disorder causing secondary Raynaud’s. The presence of a non-specific rash may also suggest secondary Raynaud’s, as many systemic conditions associated with Raynaud’s are also linked to rashes.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old gardener comes to the clinic with rough red papules on his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old gardener comes to the clinic with rough red papules on his knuckles. The rash has been developing gradually over the past few weeks, and he is unsure of the cause. He reports that the rash is both itchy and painful. Additionally, he has been experiencing difficulty with heavy lifting and climbing stairs. What is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is characterized by roughened red papules, known as Gottron’s papules, mainly over the knuckles. Psoriasis typically presents with scaly plaques on extensor surfaces and may be accompanied by arthritis. Eczema primarily affects the face and trunk of infants and the flexor surfaces of older children, but it is not associated with muscle weakness. Skin involvement is not a common feature of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She is unable to stand or walk for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has a purple rash on her eyelids, red nodules on her knees and elbows, and painful cracked skin on her fingers. Which autoantibody is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear (ANA)

      Explanation:

      AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility clinic by their GP due to their inability to conceive after 18 months of regular unprotected sexual intercourse. Mrs Johnson has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions, while Mr Johnson has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, schizophrenia, and hypothyroidism for which he takes sulfasalazine, ibuprofen, omeprazole, olanzapine, and levothyroxine. Mr Johnson's semen analysis reveals a count of 14 million/mL (15-200 million/mL). Which medication is the most likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss. She has been experiencing headaches,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss. She has been experiencing headaches, neck, and shoulder stiffness for the past 4 weeks, which is most severe in the morning and improves throughout the day. Her strength and sensation are normal, but she has limited range of motion in her neck and shoulders due to discomfort. The right eye is completely affected in terms of visual field, and optic disc pallor is observed during fundoscopy. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolemia and is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. What is the most probable underlying cause for her condition?

      Your Answer: Ischaemia to the retina

      Correct Answer: Ischaemia to the anterior optic nerve

      Explanation:

      Giant cell arthritis (GCA) is a condition that can result in vision loss, primarily due to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. This occurs when the immune system damages the arteries that supply the optic nerve, leading to thrombus formation and occlusion. As a result, nerve fibers at the anterior aspect of the optic nerve die, causing optic disc pallor. It is important to note that interruption of venous drainage from the retina is not the cause of GCA-related vision loss, as this would present with widespread hemorrhages on fundoscopy. Ischemia to the optic radiation is also an incorrect explanation, as it would only cause homonymous quadrantanopias, not the entire visual field loss seen in GCA. Similarly, ischaemia to the posterior optic nerve is unlikely, as it would not show optic disc pallor on fundoscopy. Instead, the presence of optic disc pallor suggests that ischaemia to the anterior optic nerve is the more likely cause of vision loss in GCA.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his recent blood tests. He had initially complained of aches and pains a week ago, specifically in his shoulders and hips, which had been progressively worsening over the past 3 months. Upon examination, bilateral pain is noted in both the shoulders and hips, which is exacerbated by movement. No signs of muscular atrophy or weakness are observed. What would be the primary investigation recommended for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-ray of shoulders and hips

      Correct Answer: ESR and CRP

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms. The pain affecting both the pelvic and shoulder girdle in a bilateral manner, without any signs of weakness or wasting, is typical of this condition. Additionally, the patient’s age and gender are also consistent with a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      The recommended first-line investigation for this condition is to check the blood inflammatory markers, specifically the ESR and CRP. These markers are often elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica and typically return to normal levels following steroid treatment. An antibody screen is not necessary as this condition is not associated with auto-antibodies.

      A full-body MRI is not appropriate as it is not a specific test for polymyalgia rheumatica and is typically reserved for more invasive investigations. Ultrasound of the affected joints is also not necessary as there are no structural abnormalities associated with this condition that would be detected by this test. Similarly, X-rays of the shoulders and hips would not aid in the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica as they do not provide visualization of the muscle.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of widespread bone...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of widespread bone pain and weakness in her lower limbs for the past year. During the examination, you observe grade 4 weakness in her proximal lower limb muscles. The following blood results were obtained: calcium levels of 2.05 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6), phosphate levels of 0.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4), PTH levels of 21.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.6-6.9), and ALP levels of 260 u/L (normal range: 30-100). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is osteomalacia, as indicated by the classic clinical features of widespread bone pain and proximal myopathy, along with laboratory results showing low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP, and raised PTH. Osteopenia and osteoporosis are not the correct diagnoses, as they are quantitative disorders of bone mineralisation that require a DEXA scan for diagnosis. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also not the correct diagnosis, as it is characterised by hypercalcemia with a raised or inappropriately normal PTH.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old male comes to his primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male comes to his primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis mainly affecting his lower limbs, accompanied by dysuria and conjunctivitis for the past 2 weeks. He is typically healthy except for experiencing a bout of diarrhea a month ago. What is the initial recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for acute reactive arthritis, provided there are no contraindications, is NSAIDs.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by an asymmetrical oligoarthritis accompanied by urethritis and conjunctivitis, which is preceded by a diarrheal illness. This condition is caused by exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, with chlamydia, salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni being the most commonly implicated bacteria. The first-line management for this patient should be NSAIDs, as there are no contraindications.

      Intra-articular glucocorticoids are not the correct treatment option, although they may be considered in cases of reactive arthritis limited to a small number of joints that do not respond to NSAID treatment. Methotrexate is not appropriate for acute reactive arthritis, but it may be considered for chronic cases that are unresponsive to both NSAIDs and glucocorticoids. Oral glucocorticoids are not the first-line treatment option, but they may be considered if NSAIDs fail to control the patient’s symptoms.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

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  • Question 18 - As an FY2 in the ED, you assess a 32-year-old woman who has...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY2 in the ED, you assess a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing right wrist pain for the past 6 weeks. The pain has been gradually increasing in intensity. She has no significant medical history, except for a previous visit to this ED 4 months ago. During that visit, she fell off her skateboard and landed awkwardly on the same wrist. However, the x-ray at the time was normal, and she was discharged home with safety netting advice and a repeat x-ray scheduled, although no image is available on the system. When asked about the follow-up, she mentions that she had no pain at the time and wanted to avoid an unnecessary trip to the hospital during the COVID-19 pandemic. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Calculate FRAX score and decide further management based on her individual risk score

      Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of a scaphoid fracture is falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH), which is the mechanism of injury reported by this patient. Although the initial x-ray of the wrist was normal, it is recommended that patients with suspected scaphoid fractures undergo a repeat x-ray (with dedicated scaphoid views) after 7-10 days, as these fractures may not appear on initial imaging.

      Avascular necrosis is a potential complication of scaphoid fractures, which can cause gradually worsening pain in the affected wrist over time. If this occurs, referral to an orthopaedics team for further investigation (such as an MRI) and possible surgical intervention is necessary.

      In this case, referral to a hand clinic for physiotherapy is not appropriate, as the patient requires further investigation and management. However, providing safety netting advice and a leaflet before discharge from the emergency department is good practice. It is important to refer the patient to the orthopaedics team before discharge.

      The FRAX score is a tool used to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture, but it is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of avascular necrosis.

      While MRI is the preferred imaging modality for avascular necrosis of the scaphoid, it is not appropriate to request an outpatient MRI with GP follow-up in one week. Instead, it is best to refer the patient directly to the orthopaedics team for specialist input and timely management, including arranging and following up on any necessary imaging and deciding on the need for surgical intervention.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 19 - A 49-year-old female without significant medical history was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female without significant medical history was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis without any known risk factors or precipitating events. The patient was successfully treated with dalteparin and subsequent thrombophilia screening revealed moderately elevated anticardiolipin antibodies on two separate occasions, twelve weeks apart. What is the most suitable long-term plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and a history of unprovoked thrombosis should receive lifelong warfarin as the preferred long-term anticoagulant. While unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin may be used for acute episodes of thrombosis, they are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this condition. Failure to provide anticoagulation therapy to these patients is inappropriate due to their high risk of recurrent thrombosis. Additionally, the MHRA has advised against the use of direct-acting oral anticoagulants like rivaroxaban for long-term therapy in antiphospholipid syndrome patients due to an increased risk of thrombotic events compared to warfarin. Therefore, rivaroxaban is not a suitable management option.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas that appeared two weeks ago. She was diagnosed with primary tuberculosis four months ago and is currently undergoing treatment with rifampicin and isoniazid. What antibodies are expected to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-histone antibodies is associated with drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely cause of the symmetrical annular papulosquamous lesions on sun-exposed areas in this patient who is currently taking isoniazid. Anti-Ro antibodies are not relevant as they are commonly associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, while anti-centromere antibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which is less likely in this patient given her age and clinical presentation.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty sleeping....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty sleeping. She also experiences weakness in her limbs, making it hard to complete household tasks. She has a history of bipolar disorder, which has been well-controlled with lithium carbonate for many years. The following blood tests were taken:

      - Hb: 113 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 201 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - WBC: 10.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium: 2.81 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.55 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Parathyroid hormone: 17.1 pmol/L (normal range: 2.0-8.5)
      - ALP: 207 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - Serum lithium: 0.67 mmol/L (normal range: 0.4 - 1.0)

      What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s elevated serum calcium, raised ALP, and raised PTH levels, along with low serum phosphate, indicate a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

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  • Question 22 - What category of hypersensitivity is characterized by immune system dysregulation in systemic lupus...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hypersensitivity is characterized by immune system dysregulation in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an inflammatory disorder affecting multiple systems?

      Your Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type 3 hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      SLE is classified as a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is characterized by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes. The development of SLE involves the transfer of cellular remnants containing nuclear material to lymphatic tissues, where they are presented to T cells. This, in turn, stimulates B cells to produce autoantibodies. These IgG autoantibodies are specifically targeted to attack DNA and other nuclear material, leading to the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that cause damage in various parts of the body.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Epidemiology and Pathophysiology

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that is much more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. It is also more prevalent in Afro-Caribbeans and Asian communities. The onset of SLE usually occurs between the ages of 20-40 years, and the incidence has risen substantially during the past 50 years. The pathophysiology of SLE involves a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is associated with HLA B8, DR2, DR3. The disease is thought to be caused by immune system dysregulation leading to immune complex formation. These immune complexes can affect any organ, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and brain.

      It is interesting to note that the incidence of SLE in black Africans is much lower than in black Americans, although the reasons for this are unclear. The rise in incidence of SLE over the past 50 years may be due to changes in environmental factors or lifestyle habits. The dysregulation of the immune system in SLE leads to the formation of immune complexes, which can deposit in various organs and cause damage. This can result in a wide range of symptoms, including joint pain, skin rashes, and kidney problems. Understanding the epidemiology and pathophysiology of SLE is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 23 - A 78-year-old woman is admitted from her nursing home after experiencing a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is admitted from her nursing home after experiencing a fall resulting in a displaced intracapsular hip fracture. She has a history of hypertension, mild cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. Typically, she requires a zimmer frame for mobility and appears frail. What is the appropriate surgical approach for her condition?

      Your Answer: Total hip replacement

      Correct Answer: Cement hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      The patient’s decreased mobility, cognitive impairment, and general frailty make her unsuitable for a total hip replacement. Instead, a cement hemiarthroplasty is the recommended treatment for her fractured hip, with the goal of restoring her normal function. The appropriate surgical management for a hip fracture depends on both the location of the fracture and the patient’s normal function.

      For an intracapsular fracture, which involves the femoral head and insertion of the capsule into the joint, replacement arthroplasty is recommended for patients with a displaced fracture who are clinically eligible. Eligibility criteria include the ability to walk independently, no cognitive impairment, and medical fitness for both anesthesia and the procedure. If a patient does not meet these criteria, a cemented hemiarthroplasty is preferred.

      For extracapsular fractures, such as trochanteric or subtrochanteric fractures, different treatments are recommended. A sliding hip screw is appropriate for trochanteric fractures, while subtrochanteric fractures should be fixed using an intramedullary nail.

      The ultimate goal of hip replacement after a fracture is to allow the patient to return to their normal function by enabling them to fully weight bear postoperatively.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding accident. X-rays revealed a closed right tibial shaft fracture with minimal displacement. Over the past 4 hours, he has been experiencing severe pain in the leg, despite receiving hourly oral morphine in addition to regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. His urine has turned dark and a dipstick test shows the presence of blood.

      On admission, his electrolyte and renal function tests were as follows:
      Na+ 138 mmol/L
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L
      Urea 3.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L

      However, on day 3 of admission, his results have changed significantly:
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 11.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 189 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the primary factor contributing to the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dehydration resulting in renal hypo-perfusion and acute tubular necrosis

      Correct Answer: Accumulation of myoglobin in the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is commonly linked to fractures of the tibial shaft and supracondylar region. The presence of rapidly-progressing pain that is unresponsive to high doses of pain medication is indicative of compartment syndrome. This condition can cause an increase in pressure within the fascial compartment, leading to muscle breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, resulting in rhabdomyolysis. This can cause acute kidney injury, with myoglobinuria causing urine to appear dark brown and test positive for blood. Dehydration and pre-renal AKI may also occur, but urinalysis would not show blood in this case. Goodpasture’s syndrome, which involves the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, typically presents with AKI, proteinuria, and pulmonary symptoms such as haemoptysis and shortness of breath. Obstructive stones usually cause right loin pain, and a single ureter obstruction is unlikely to cause significant renal impairment. While NSAIDs can worsen renal function by inhibiting prostaglandins and causing vasoconstriction of the glomerular afferent arteriole, compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis are likely the primary causes of AKI in this case.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

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  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports difficulty distinguishing between colors, central vision impairment, 'floaters', and tension-like headaches. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 20/50 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a red spot on the macula surrounded by a ring of retinal epithelial pigment loss resembling a 'bull's eye'. The patient has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis, and is obese. She is currently taking metformin, methotrexate, and hydroxychloroquine. What is the most probable cause of her visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which is characterized by reduced color differentiation, reduced central visual acuity, and floaters. The typical appearance of bull’s eye maculopathy on ophthalmoscopy is also associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, hydroxychloroquine is the correct answer in this case.

      Diabetic retinopathy is an unlikely diagnosis as it is usually detected early through the diabetic eye screening program. It presents with similar symptoms to drug-induced retinopathy, such as floaters and blurred vision, and can cause reduced central vision if the macula is affected. However, the bull’s eye maculopathy described in this case is not typical of diabetic maculopathy.

      Central retinal artery occlusion is caused by a disruption of retinal blood supply and typically results in sudden vision loss. On ophthalmoscopy, a cherry-red fovea with retinal whitening is usually observed. Bilateral involvement is uncommon.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with headaches, vomiting, retro-orbital pain, pulsatile tinnitus, and visual disturbance, most commonly peripheral visual fields. Papilloedema is usually observed on ophthalmoscopy, which is not described in this case.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that has been bothering him for 6 weeks. The pain is exacerbated by sitting. During the examination, the GP observes weakness in left hip abduction and left foot drop. However, power in the right limb is normal, and lower limb reflexes are normal in both legs. The GP suspects a prolapsed disc. Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 27 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fractured...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fractured femur. She has had multiple visits in the past few months. During the examination, her teeth are noted to be abnormal and she appears underweight. Additionally, her father expresses concern about her hearing.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Childhood is the typical time for the manifestation of osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by bone fractures and deformities, blue sclera, and hearing/visual problems.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The mildest form is type 1, which is the most common. Symptoms include fractures from minor trauma, blue sclera, hearing loss due to otosclerosis, and dental abnormalities.

      It is important to consider non-accidental injury as a possible diagnosis. Spiral humeral fractures, digital fractures in non-ambulatory children, and bilateral fractures with varying ages are indicative of this. However, this does not explain the hearing and dental issues.

      Osteopetrosis is a condition where bones become denser and harder, and it is most prevalent in young adults. It is an autosomal recessive disorder.

      McCune-Albright syndrome is a rare genetic condition that causes abnormal bone development, café au lait spots, premature puberty, and thyroid disorders.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.

      When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee pain. During the game, she experienced a popping sensation in her left knee. Upon examination, her knee is swollen, and she cannot fully extend it. Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to detecting lateral and medial meniscal tears, an MRI is the most sensitive option available. It surpasses the other choices in terms of sensitivity and should be requested for all patients who are suspected of having a meniscal injury. Ultrasound may be challenging to perform due to the patient’s probable swelling and pain. An X-ray may be necessary for patients with arthritis or a history of repeated meniscal tears.

      Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms

      Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her shoulder. The doctor conducted a thorough examination of her shoulder and observed that she was unable to abduct her shoulder while standing with her arm flat against her body. However, the doctor was able to passively abduct her shoulder during the first 20 degrees, and she was able to fully abduct it. Which muscle is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The shoulder joint is stabilized by a group of muscles known as the rotator cuffs. To remember them, you can use the following order: Subscapularis, which is located on the front of your chest and assists with internal rotation of the shoulder; Supraspinatus, which runs parallel to your deltoid on top of your shoulder and is necessary for the first 20° of shoulder abduction before the deltoid takes over; and Infraspinatus, which is located on the upper back and helps with external rotation of the shoulder.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Each muscle has a specific function that contributes to the overall movement of the shoulder.

      The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is also the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each rotator cuff muscle is important in preventing injuries and maintaining shoulder health. By strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises, individuals can improve their shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lifelong warfarin

      Correct Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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