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  • Question 1 - Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:

      Your Answer: Hairy cell leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Correct

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She complained of abdominal cramps, with nausea and vomiting. Shortly after she suddenly developed weakness, blurring of vision, difficulty in swallowing and breathing. Which of the following organisms is most likely associated with fatal food poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      C. botulinum is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, spore-forming bacterium. It is an obligate anaerobe, meaning that oxygen is poisonous to the cells. Only botulinum toxin types A, B, E, and F cause disease in humans. Types A, B, and E are associated with foodborne illness. Botulism poisoning can occur due to preserved or home-canned, low-acid food that was not processed using correct preservation times and/or pressure. Signs and symptoms of foodborne botulism typically begin between 18 and 36 hours after the toxin gets into the body, but can range from a few hours to several days, depending on the amount of toxin ingested. Botulinum that is produced by Clostridium botulinum can cause respiratory and muscular paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood per vagina. On examination, she was found to have an endocervical polypoidal mass. On enquiry, she gave history of oral contraceptive usage for 3 years. What finding is expected on the histopathology report of biopsy of the mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microglandular hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocervical polyps or microglandular hyperplasia are benign growths occurring in the endocervical canal, in about 2-5% women and occur secondary to use of oral contraceptives. They are usually < 1cm in size, friable and reddish-pink. Usually asymptomatic, they can cause bleeding or become infected, leading to leucorrhoea (purulent vaginal discharge). They are usually benign but need to be differentiated from adenocarcinomas by histology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a palpable mass in his abdomen. The child has poor appetite and regularly complains of abdominal pain. The child was worked up and diagnosed with a tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Nephroblastoma is also known as Wilms’ tumour. It is a cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children. The median age of diagnose is approximately 3.5 years. With the current treatment, approximately 80-90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism in fighting infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Specific cellular mechanism → cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The immune system has certain levels of defence against pathogens. First line includes simple barriers such as skin, mucosa and stomach acid that prevent the pathogen from entering into the body. If this barrier is breached then the innate immune system is activated which includes leukocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, natural killer cells). If the pathogens invade the second layer of defence then the third layer, adaptive immunity is activated, which includes B and T lymphocytes. B cells provide a humoral response whereas cytotoxic T cells have specific cellular mechanisms. They maintain a memory of past infections and are activated faster following a recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medical femoral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in a garage fire. There is also an associated inhalational injury. Her doctors have decided to administer intravenous fluids to replace fluid loss. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be used for initial resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      The goal of fluid management in major burn injuries is to maintain the tissue perfusion in the early phase of burn shock, in which hypovolemia finally occurs due to steady fluid extravasation from the intravascular compartment.

      Burn injuries of less than 20% are associated with minimal fluid shifts and can generally be resuscitated with oral hydration, except in cases of facial, hand and genital burns, as well as burns in children and the elderly. As the total body surface area (TBSA) involved in the burn approaches 15–20%, the systemic inflammatory response syndrome is initiated and massive fluid shifts, which result in burn oedema and burn shock, can be expected.

      The ideal burn resuscitation is the one that effectively restores plasma volume, with no adverse effects. Isotonic crystalloids, hypertonic solutions and colloids have been used for this purpose, but every solution has its advantages and disadvantages. None of them is ideal, and none is superior to any of the others.
      Crystalloids are readily available and cheaper than some of the other alternatives. RL solution, Hartmann solution (a solution similar to RL solution) and normal saline are commonly used. There are some adverse effects of the crystalloids: high volume administration of normal saline produces hyperchloremic acidosis, RL increases the neutrophil activation after resuscitation for haemorrhage or after infusion without haemorrhage. d-lactate in RL solution containing a racemic mixture of the d-lactate and l-lactate isomers has been found to be responsible for increased production of ROS. RL used in the majority of hospitals contains this mixture. Another adverse effect that has been demonstrated is that crystalloids have a substantial influence on coagulation. Recent studies have demonstrated that in vivo dilution with crystalloids (independent of the type of the crystalloid) resulted in a hypercoagulable state.
      Despite these adverse effects, the most commonly used fluid for burn resuscitation in the UK and Ireland is Hartmann’s solution (adult units 76%, paediatric units 75%). Another study has revealed that RL is the most popular type of fluid in burn units located in USA and Canada.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the shoulder. He has recently been unwell with glandular fever from which he is fully recovered. On examination, there is some evidence of muscle wasting and a degree of winging of the scapula. Power during active movements is impaired. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parsonage-Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (PTS), also referred to as idiopathic brachial plexopathy or neuralgic amyotrophy, is a rare disorder consisting of a complex constellation of symptoms with abrupt onset of shoulder pain, usually unilaterally, followed by progressive neurologic deficits of motor weakness, dysesthesias, and numbness. Although the aetiology of the syndrome is unclear, it is reported in various clinical situations, including postoperatively, postinfectious, posttraumatic, and postvaccination.
      The most common associated risk factor is a recent viral illness.
      The pain is not positional and usually worse at night and may be associated with awakenings from sleep. There are typically no constitutional symptoms associated with the syndrome. The duration of pain is almost always self-limiting, lasting 1 to 2 weeks, but on rare occasion persisting for longer periods.
      In the earliest stages of this condition (the first few weeks), pain management with opiates, NSAIDs, and neuroleptics is the mainstay of treatment. Acupuncture and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) can also be adjuncts to medications. Oral steroids have been recommended by some, but there is poor literature evidence to support its efficacy.
      Physical therapy plays an important role in the treatment of this condition. Modalities such as TENS can help in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker should be requested to aid in the confirmation of the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker. CEA test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain types of cancers especially cancer of the colon and rectal cancer. It may also be present in the pancreas, breast, ovary or lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 51 year old contractor is referred to the clinic with gynaecomastia. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old contractor is referred to the clinic with gynaecomastia. The following list are the medications that he has been taking. Which medication is least likely to cause gynaecomastia?Medications list: Carbimazole, Spironolactone, Chlorpromazine, Cimetidine, Methyldopa.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole was not found to cause gynaecomastia.

      Drugs frequently causing gynecomastia:
      Antiandrogens – Bicalutamide, flutamide, finasteride, dutasteride
      Antihypertensive – Spironolactone
      Antiretroviral – Protease inhibitors (saquinavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, lopinavir), reverse transcriptase inhibitors (stavudine, zidovudine, lamivudine)
      Environmental exposure – Phenothrin (antiparasitic)
      Exogenous hormones – Oestrogens, prednisone (male teenagers)
      Gastrointestinal drugs – H2 histamine receptor blockers (cimetidine)

      Mnemonic for causes of gynaecomastia: METOCLOPRAMIDE

      M etoclopramide
      E ctopic oestrogen
      T rauma skull/tumour breast, testes
      O rchitis
      C imetidine, Cushings
      L iver cirrhosis
      O besity
      P araplegia
      R A
      A cromegaly
      M ethyldopa
      I soniazid
      D igoxin
      E thionamide

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The contents of the carpal tunnel include:
      – Median nerve
      – Flexor digitorum supervicialis
      – Flexor digitorum profundus
      – Flexor policis longus
      – Flexor carpi radialis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal he has severe hyponatremia. The most likely cause is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea or vomiting

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia occurs when the sodium level in the plasma falls below 135 mmol/l. Hyponatraemia is an abnormality that can occur in isolation or, more commonly as a complication of other medical illnesses. Severe hyponatraemia may cause osmotic shift of water from the plasma into the brain cells. Typical symptoms include nausea, vomiting, headache and malaise. As the hyponatraemia worsens, confusion, diminished reflexes, convulsions, stupor or coma may occur. The cause of hyponatremia is typically classified by a person’s fluid status into low volume, normal volume, and high volume. Low volume hyponatremia can occur from diarrhoea, vomiting, diuretics, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker should be requested to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA-125

      Explanation:

      CA-125 is a protein that is used as a tumour marker. This substance is found in high concentration in patients with ovarian cancer. It is the only tumour marker recommended for clinical use in the diagnosis and management of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 26 year old female student presents with diarrhoea, bloating and crampy abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old female student presents with diarrhoea, bloating and crampy abdominal pain after returning from a student exchange trip in Nigeria. She states that she had been swimming in a public pool in the afternoons after class and she has had bowel movements four to five times per day. She notices that her stools float on top of the toilet water but there is no presence of blood. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia is a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis. Giardia (also known as Giardia intestinalis, Giardia lamblia, or Giardia duodenalis) is found on surfaces or in soil, food, or water that has been contaminated with faeces from infected humans or animals.

      Giardia is protected by an outer shell that allows it to survive outside the body for long periods of time and makes it tolerant to chlorine disinfection. While the parasite can be spread in different ways, water (drinking water and recreational water) is the most common mode of transmission.

      Signs and symptoms may vary and can last for 1 to 2 weeks or longer. In some cases, people infected with Giardia have no symptoms.

      Acute symptoms include:

      Diarrhoea
      Gas
      Greasy stools that tend to float
      Stomach or abdominal cramps
      Upset stomach or nausea/vomiting
      Dehydration (loss of fluids)
      Other, less common symptoms include itchy skin, hives, and swelling of the eye and joints. Sometimes, the symptoms of giardiasis might seem to resolve, only to come back again after several days or weeks. Giardiasis can cause weight loss and failure to absorb fat, lactose, vitamin A and vitamin B12.

      In children, severe giardiasis might delay physical and mental growth, slow development, and cause malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient had loss of consciousness, woke up momentarily when he was in the emergency room but became drowsy and comatose a few hours after. CT scan of the brain showed accumulation of blood between the dura and the cranial bone on the left side of his head. What type of haemorrhage did the patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epidural

      Explanation:

      Epidural hematoma, also known as epidural bleeding, is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in which a build-up of blood occurs between the dura mater (the tough outer membrane of the central nervous system) and the skull. The spinal cord is also covered by a layer of dura mater, so epidural bleeds may also occur in the spinal column. Often due to trauma, the condition is potentially deadly because the build-up of blood may increase pressure in the intracranial space, compressing delicate brain tissue, and causing brain shift. The condition is present in one to three percent of head injuries. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 31 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a tender...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a tender breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant and tender mass. She has a 2 month old child. Which of the following most likely caused her breast lump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      A breast abscess is a localised collection of pus in the breast tissue. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection. Breast infections, including mastitis and breast abscesses, are most often seen in women aged 15 to 45 years. Mastitis can occur as a result of breastfeeding and if left untreated it can progress to an abscess. The bacteria most commonly associated with this is staphylococcus aureus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 62 year old man presents with sudden onset of palpitations. ECG shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man presents with sudden onset of palpitations. ECG shows broad complex tachycardia at a rate of 150 beats per minute. The blood pressure is 120/82 mmHg and there is no evidence of heart failure. The doctor wants to prescribe a rate controlling medication. Which of the following should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      The use of intravenous diltiazem or verapamil is contraindicated in patients with ventricular tachycardia. The IV administration of a calcium channel blocker can precipitate cardiac arrest in such patients.
      Marked hemodynamic deterioration and ventricular fibrillation have occurred in patients with wide-complex ventricular tachycardia (QRS >= 0.12 seconds) treated with IV verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted with anti B antibodies when mixed with A +ve blood. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      Group A – has only the A antigen on red cells (and B antibody in the plasma)
      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)
      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)
      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension and aortic stenosis. On autopsy her heart weighed 550g. What is the most likely cause of this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Due to increased pressure on the heart as a result of hypertension and aortic stenosis, the myocardial fibres hypertrophied to adapt to the increased pressure and to effectively circulate blood around the body. Hyperplasia could not occur, as myocardial fibres are stable cells and cannot divide further.
      Fat does not deposit in the heart due to volume overload.
      Myocardial oedema is not characteristic of a myocardial injury.
      Metaplasia is a change in the type of epithelium.
      Atrophy would result in a decreased heart size and inability to function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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