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  • Question 1 - For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?

      Your Answer: Intelligence

      Correct Answer: Suggestibility

      Explanation:

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Among the given defence mechanisms, which one falls under the category of neurotic?...

    Incorrect

    • Among the given defence mechanisms, which one falls under the category of neurotic?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Semorinemab is a potential treatment for dementia that works by targeting the N-terminal region of the tau protein. By binding to tau, it aims to reduce its spread within neurons and slow down the progression of the disease.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer: Situation specific amnesia is seen in cases of child sexual abuse

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a disruption of personal identity, which is not observed in transient global amnesia. In individuals with psychogenic amnesia, there is typically a loss of past memories (retrograde amnesia) while the ability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia) is relatively preserved.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

      Your Answer: Golgi apparatus

      Correct Answer: tRNA

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit...

    Correct

    • At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit egocentric behavior?

      Your Answer: Preoperational stage

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development highlights that Preoperational children are egocentric, meaning they view the world solely from their own perspective and cannot comprehend that others may have different viewpoints. Piaget believed that cognitive development is a result of the interplay between innate abilities and environmental factors, and progresses through four distinct stages: the sensorimotor stage, Preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and formal operational stage. While Piaget’s theory has greatly contributed to our understanding of cognitive development, it has also faced criticism over time. Other notable theories in this field include Vygotsky’s theory, Bruner’s theory, and the information-processing approach. Vygotsky’s theory, for instance, examines human development across three levels: cultural, interpersonal, and individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is a true statement about thiamine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about thiamine?

      Your Answer: It is required for carbohydrate catabolism

      Explanation:

      A lack of vitamin C is commonly linked to gum inflammation and bleeding.

      Thiamine Deficiency and Alcohol-Related Brain Disease

      Thiamine deficiency is a well-known cause of a neurological disorder called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. Thiamine is required for the proper functioning of enzymes involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, the synthesis of neurotransmitters, nucleic acids, fatty acids, and complex sugar molecules, and the body’s defense against oxidative stress.

      Three enzymes that require thiamine as a cofactor are transketolase, pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH), and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (KGDH), all of which participate in the breakdown of carbohydrates. Thiamine deficiency leads to suboptimal levels of functional enzymes in the cell, which can cause cell damage in the central nervous system through cell necrosis, cellular apoptosis, and oxidative stress.

      Alcoholism can contribute to thiamine deficiency through inadequate nutritional intake, decreased absorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and impaired utilization of thiamine in the cells. Giving thiamine to patients with WKS can reverse many of the acute symptoms of the disease, highlighting the importance of this nutrient in the prevention and treatment of alcohol-related brain disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following is a cognitive condition affecting the content of one's...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a cognitive condition affecting the content of one's thoughts?

      Your Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      A delusional perception is when a normal percept is interpreted in a delusional way, rather than simply fitting into an existing delusional belief system. This is different from disorders of form of thought, such as circumstantiality (slow thinking with inclusion of trivial details), thought block (sudden interruption of thought), derailment (breakdown of association between thoughts), and flight of ideas (increase in flow of thinking with frequent changes in goal and tangents).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which structure does the spinal cord pass through to enter the cranial cavity?...

    Correct

    • Which structure does the spinal cord pass through to enter the cranial cavity?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      Cranial Fossae and Foramina

      The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.

      There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:

      – Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
      – Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
      – Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
      – Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
      – Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.

      Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not an anticipated side effect of methylphenidate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an anticipated side effect of methylphenidate?

      Your Answer: Tinnitus

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the estimated rate of adherence to prescribed medications across all age...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated rate of adherence to prescribed medications across all age groups and medication types?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Across all medical specialties, it is typical for patients to take less than half of their prescribed doses of self-administered medications, indicating low adherence rates that have been shown to be around 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During examination, he repeatedly taps his foot on the ground for a few minutes at a time and then stops. He repeats this movement several times over the next hour.
      What type of motor disorder is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Stereotypy

      Explanation:

      Stereotypy is a repetitive and purposeless movement pattern that is often distractible and is a feature of catatonia in schizophrenia. Ambitendency involves alternating between cooperation and opposition, resulting in unpredictable behavior. Mannerisms are voluntary and odd movements that typically have some functional significance, unlike stereotyped movements. Schnauzkrampf, a facial expression where the nose and lips are drawn together in a pout, is one of the abnormal movement disorders seen in schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      29.8
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not an example of glial cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an example of glial cells?

      Your Answer: Purkinje cells

      Explanation:

      The initial exam question erroneously included neurons as a potential answer instead of Purkinje cells. However, this was deemed too simplistic and was subsequently revised. It is important to note that glial cells serve as support cells for neurons, whereas Purkinje cells are a specific type of neuron and therefore cannot be classified as glial cells.

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.7
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  • Question 14 - What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?...

    Correct

    • What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?

      Your Answer: 44

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What neuropathological evidence would provide the strongest support for a diagnosis of chronic...

    Correct

    • What neuropathological evidence would provide the strongest support for a diagnosis of chronic traumatic encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Tau accumulations, predominantly around small intracortical blood vessels

      Explanation:

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.5
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  • Question 16 - What EEG alterations are observed in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What EEG alterations are observed in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

      Your Answer: Symmetrical predominance of slow waves over the temporal and parietal regions

      Correct Answer: Periodic sharp wave complexes

      Explanation:

      The typical EEG pattern for CJD includes periodic sharp wave complexes, which is a diagnostic criterion. Lewy body dementia may show generalized slow wave activity, but if it is more prominent in the temporal and parietal regions, it may indicate Alzheimer’s disease. Toxic encephalopathies, such as lithium toxicity, may show periodic triphasic waves on EEG. For more information, see Smith SJ’s article EEG in neurological conditions other than epilepsy: when does it help, what does it add? (2005).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 17 - You have a female patient in her 30s who is experiencing depression and...

    Correct

    • You have a female patient in her 30s who is experiencing depression and you have recommended antidepressant medication. However, she expresses concern about taking any medication that may impact her sexual functioning. Which antidepressant would be the most appropriate for her in this situation?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Compared to other antidepressants, agomelatine has a lower likelihood of causing sexual dysfunction. This is because other antidepressants can cause various changes in the body, such as sedation, hormonal changes, and disruption of the cholinergic/adrenergic balance, which can lead to sexual dysfunction. Additionally, other antidepressants may inhibit nitric oxide and increase neurotransmission, which can also contribute to sexual dysfunction. However, agomelatine does not act through the serotonergic of alpha adrenergic systems and has a lower propensity for causing these changes, resulting in less sexual dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which scale can be rated by the individual themselves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which scale can be rated by the individual themselves?

      Your Answer: Positive and negative syndrome scale

      Correct Answer: Beck depression inventory

      Explanation:

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      26.4
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  • Question 19 - What is the most accurate description of how Pick's disease is inherited? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of how Pick's disease is inherited?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Genes Associated with Dementia

      Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.

      Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.

      In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      31.2
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not a known aetiological factor in the development...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known aetiological factor in the development of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Increased paternal age

      Correct Answer: Separation anxiety disorder in childhood

      Explanation:

      Childhood separation anxiety disorder is linked to a higher likelihood of developing affective and neurotic disorders in the future, but it is not considered a cause of schizophrenia. The development of schizophrenia is thought to be influenced by various factors, including a family history of the disorder, specific genes that increase the risk, complications during birth, infections experienced by the mother of child, malnutrition during pregnancy, being born in the winter, having an older father, delayed developmental milestones, and substance abuse, particularly cannabis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Aetiology
      24.2
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  • Question 21 - What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite...

    Correct

    • What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite their potential danger?

      Your Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 22 - Which drug class is most likely to result in QTc interval prolongation? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug class is most likely to result in QTc interval prolongation?

      Your Answer: Antimalarials

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 23 - Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus nerve lesion?

      Your Answer: Gag

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.5
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  • Question 24 - What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer: He proposed that each life sequence consisted of three core stages

      Correct Answer: Stages are based on age ranges rather than on developmental events

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      38.7
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  • Question 25 - A patient complains that his deceased grandfather is putting thoughts into his head....

    Correct

    • A patient complains that his deceased grandfather is putting thoughts into his head. This type of thought disorder is referred to as:

      Your Answer: Passivity

      Explanation:

      Patients may feel that they have lost control over their thoughts, which can manifest as passivity of thought. This refers to the belief that an external agency is controlling one’s thoughts. Passivity can take different forms, such as thought withdrawal, thought insertion, and thought broadcasting.

      Ego (Boundary) Disturbances

      Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.

      Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.

      Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.

      Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.

      Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The term used to describe the ability of a 25 year old man...

    Correct

    • The term used to describe the ability of a 25 year old man to smell music is:

      Your Answer: Synaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Synaesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory pathway results in experiences in another sensory pathway, such as perceiving a scent as a sound of visualizing a sound as a color.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In what category of antipsychotics does risperidone fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what category of antipsychotics does risperidone fall under?

      Your Answer: Thienobenzodiazepine

      Correct Answer: Benzisoxazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in various ways, including by chemical structure and generation. The two main generations are typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) antipsychotics. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic and belongs to the benzisoxazole class. It works as an antagonist for dopamine D2, 5-HT 2a, histamine-1 receptor, and alpha 1-adrenoceptor. Other antipsychotics belong to different structural categories, such as butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol), dibenzodiazapines (e.g. clozapine), dibenzothiazapines (e.g. quetiapine), Thienobenzodiazepine (e.g. olanzapine), phenothiazines (e.g. chlorpromazine, trifluoperazine, thioridazine), thioxanthenes (e.g. flupentixol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (e.g. pimozide), substituted benzamides (e.g. sulpiride), and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone) (e.g. aripiprazole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is considered the fundamental document of ethics in research involving human subjects?...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered the fundamental document of ethics in research involving human subjects?

      Your Answer: Geneva Convention

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Helsinki

      Explanation:

      Ethical Principles for Human Experimentation and Research

      The Declaration of Helsinki is a set of ethical principles that govern human experimentation and research. It was created by the World Medical Association and first adopted in 1964. The Declaration builds on the Nuremberg Code, which is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation that was developed after World War II. Additionally, the European Convention on Human Rights applies to human rights and freedoms in Europe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A sequence of three nucleotides is referred to as: ...

    Correct

    • A sequence of three nucleotides is referred to as:

      Your Answer: Codon

      Explanation:

      Codons and Amino Acids

      Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is a true statement about ADHD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about ADHD?

      Your Answer: Longitudinal studies show that one fifth of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood.

      Correct Answer: The heritability is similar in males and females.

      Explanation:

      ADHD and Genetics

      Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.

      Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      34.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (2/3) 67%
Classification And Assessment (2/4) 50%
Psychopharmacology (5/7) 71%
Genetics (3/5) 60%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Descriptive Psychopathology (2/2) 100%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Aetiology (0/1) 0%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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