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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with excruciating chest pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with excruciating chest pain. He has had severe vomiting and retching over the last 24 hours after he ate some off-food at a restaurant. The last four episodes of vomiting have been bloody and he states that he has vomited too many times to count. The patient has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 38.9 °C
      Blood pressure 95/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 115 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 95% (room air)
      Physical examination of the chest reveals subcutaneous emphysema over the chest wall. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is significant for sinus tachycardia without ischaemic changes and his blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 21.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 105.5 mgl 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 103 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mallory–Weiss tear

      Correct Answer: Boerhaave syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of Boerhaave syndrome, which is a serious condition where the oesophagus ruptures, often leading to severe complications and even death if not treated promptly. The patient’s history of severe retching after food poisoning is a likely cause of the rupture, which has caused gastric contents to spill into the mediastinum and cause rapid mediastinitis. Other causes of Boerhaave syndrome include iatrogenic factors, convulsions, and chest trauma. Treatment involves urgent surgical intervention, intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and avoiding oral intake.

      Acute coronary syndrome, aortic dissection, Mallory-Weiss tear, and pulmonary embolism are all unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings. ACS typically presents with chest pain and ischaemic changes on ECG, while aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain, fever and leukocytosis are not typical features. Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with repeated vomiting and retching, but not haemodynamic instability, fever, or leukocytosis. Pulmonary embolism may cause tachycardia, but not subcutaneous emphysema or fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with epigastric pain and small volume coffee-ground vomiting. He has a history of peptic ulcers, and another ulcer is suspected. What initial first-line investigation is most appropriate to check if the ulcer might have perforated?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen and pelvis

      Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      Investigating Perforated Peptic Ulcers: Imaging Modalities

      When investigating a possible perforated peptic ulcer, there are several imaging modalities available. However, not all of them are equally effective. The most appropriate first-line investigation is an erect chest X-ray, which can quickly and cost-effectively show air under the diaphragm if a perforation has occurred.

      A supine chest X-ray is not effective for this purpose, as lying down changes the direction of gravitational effect and will not show the air under the diaphragm. Similarly, an ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful for identifying a perforated ulcer, as it is better suited for visualizing soft tissue structures and blood flow.

      While a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be useful for investigating perforation, an erect chest X-ray is still the preferred first-line investigation due to its simplicity and speed. An X-ray of the abdomen may be appropriate in some cases, but if the patient has vomited coffee-ground liquid, an erect chest X-ray is necessary to investigate possible upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

      In summary, an erect chest X-ray is the most appropriate first-line investigation for a possible perforated peptic ulcer, as it is quick, cost-effective, and can show air under the diaphragm. Other imaging modalities may be useful in certain cases, but should not be relied upon as the primary investigation.

      Investigating Perforated Peptic Ulcers: Imaging Modalities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for enteral feeding. What is the primary method to verify the NG tube's secure placement before starting feeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirate 10 ml and check the pH

      Explanation:

      Methods for Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric Tubes

      Nasogastric (NG) tubes are commonly used in medical settings to administer medication, nutrition, or to remove stomach contents. However, incorrect placement of an NG tube can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important to confirm correct placement before using the tube. Here are some methods for confirming correct placement:

      1. Aspirate and check pH: Aspirate 10 ml of fluid from the NG tube and test the pH. If the pH is less than 5.5, the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.

      2. Visual inspection: Do not rely on visual inspection of the aspirate to confirm correct placement, as bronchial secretions can be similar in appearance to stomach contents.

      3. Insert air and auscultate: Injecting 10-20 ml of air can help obtain a gastric aspirate, but auscultation to confirm placement is an outdated and unreliable technique.

      4. Chest X-ray: If no aspirate can be obtained or the pH level is higher than 5.5, a chest X-ray can be used to confirm correct placement. However, this should not be the first-line investigation.

      5. Abdominal X-ray: An abdominal X-ray is not helpful in determining correct placement of an NG tube, as it does not show the lungs.

      By using these methods, healthcare professionals can ensure that NG tubes are correctly placed and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal ‘discomfort’ for the last three days. He was recently prescribed codeine phosphate for knee pain, which is secondary to osteoarthritis. He has never had this type of abdominal discomfort before. He last moved his bowels three days ago but denies nausea and vomiting. His past medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and denies any history of alcohol use. He has had no previous surgery.
      His physical examination is normal. His observations and blood test results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.3°C
      Blood pressure 145/88 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 5.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 1.5 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Total bilirubin 5.0 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      The Emergency doctor performs an abdominal ultrasound to examine for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. During this process, he also performs an ultrasound scan of the right upper quadrant, which shows several gallstones in a thin-walled gallbladder. The abdominal aorta is visualised and has a diameter of 2.3 cm. The patient’s abdominal pain is thought to be due to constipation.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s gallstones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intervention required

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Management Options for Gallstone Disease

      Gallstone disease is a common condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. The management of this condition depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. Here are some differentiating management options for gallstone disease:

      No Intervention Required:
      If a patient presents with vague abdominal pain after taking codeine phosphate, it is important to exclude the possibility of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, no intervention is required, and they can be managed expectantly.

      Elective Cholecystectomy:
      For patients with asymptomatic gallstone disease, prophylactic cholecystectomy is not indicated unless there is a high risk of life-threatening complications. However, if the patient has symptomatic gallstone disease, such as colicky right upper quadrant pain, elective cholecystectomy may be necessary.

      Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP):
      ERCP is indicated for patients with common duct bile stones or if stenting of benign or malignant strictures is required. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, ERCP is not necessary.

      Immediate Cholecystectomy:
      If a patient has acute cholecystitis (AC), immediate cholecystectomy is indicated. AC typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and elevated inflammatory markers.

      Percutaneous Cholecystectomy:
      For critically unwell patients who are poor surgical candidates, percutaneous cholecystectomy may be necessary. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen to stabilize the patient before a more controlled surgical approach can be taken in the future.

      In summary, the management of gallstone disease depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. It is important to differentiate between the different management options to provide the best possible care for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation

      Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.

      The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.

      Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.

      It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.

      Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old male construction worker has been admitted with haematemesis and is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male construction worker has been admitted with haematemesis and is scheduled for an urgent upper GI endoscopy. According to the Rockall score, which feature would classify him as being in the high-risk category for a patient presenting with GI bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Gastrointestinal Bleed Risk Stratification

      There are several scoring systems available to categorize patients with gastrointestinal bleeding into high and low-risk groups. The Rockall scoring system considers age, comorbidities such as ischaemic heart disease, presence of shock, and endoscopic abnormalities. Similarly, the Canadian Consensus Conference Statement incorporates endoscopic factors such as active bleeding, major stigmata of recent haemorrhage, ulcers greater than 2 cm in diameter, and the location of ulcers in proximity to large arteries. The Baylor bleeding score assigns a score to pre- and post-endoscopic features. On the other hand, the Blatchford score is based on clinical parameters alone, including elevated blood urea nitrogen, reduced haemoglobin, a drop in systolic blood pressure, raised pulse rate, the presence of melaena or syncope, and evidence of hepatic or cardiac disease.

      These scoring systems are useful in determining the severity of gastrointestinal bleeding and identifying patients who require urgent intervention. By stratifying patients into high and low-risk groups, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding management and treatment options. The use of these scoring systems can also aid in predicting outcomes and mortality rates, allowing for appropriate monitoring and follow-up care. Overall, the implementation of scoring systems for gastrointestinal bleed risk stratification is an important tool in improving patient outcomes and reducing morbidity and mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with green fluid vomiting and a swollen belly. The baby was doing fine after birth and was being breastfed. The parents mention that the baby has urinated but has not yet passed meconium. During the examination, the baby seems weak, pale, and breathing rapidly.

      What could be the probable reason for the baby's deteriorating condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a neonate with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium

      Hirschsprung’s disease, NEC, biliary atresia, GBS sepsis, and haemolytic disease of the newborn are among the possible causes of abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in a neonate. Hirschsprung’s disease is the most likely diagnosis in a term neonate with bilious vomiting and absence of meconium, as it results from a developmental failure of the gut’s parasympathetic plexus. Surgical intervention via colostomy is necessary to relieve obstruction and prevent enterocolitis. NEC, which involves bowel necrosis, is more common in preterm neonates and may present with similar symptoms. Biliary atresia, a cause of neonatal jaundice, is less likely in this case, as the baby is pale and has not yet passed meconium. GBS sepsis is a potential diagnosis in any unwell neonate, but the history of not passing meconium within the first 48 hours and the presence of bilious vomit and distended abdomen suggest Hirschsprung’s disease as a more likely cause. Haemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by rhesus antibodies crossing the placenta, would not present with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Accurate diagnosis and prompt management are crucial in ensuring the best outcome for the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the Surgical Admissions Unit complaining of colicky abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the Surgical Admissions Unit complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting in the right upper quadrant. The pain started while eating but is now easing. During the examination, she appears restless and sweaty, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 125/86. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones.
      What is the most frequent type of gallstone composition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Gallstones are formed in the gallbladder from bile constituents. In Europe and the Americas, they can be made of pure cholesterol, bilirubin, or a mixture of both. Mixed stones, also known as brown pigment stones, usually contain 20-80% cholesterol. Uric acid is not typically found in gallstones unless the patient has gout. Palmitate is a component of gallstones, but cholesterol is the primary constituent. Increased bilirubin production, such as in haemolysis, can cause bile pigment stones, which are most commonly seen in patients with haemolytic anaemia or sickle-cell disease. Calcium is a frequent component of gallstones, making them visible on radiographs, but cholesterol is the most common constituent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and severe upper abdominal pain. On examination, he appears unwell, with a high heart and respiratory rate, and a temperature of 38.0°C. His blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. He localises the pain to his upper abdomen, with some radiation to the back. His abdomen is generally tender, with bowel sounds present. There is no blood in his vomit. He is unable to provide further history due to the pain and nausea, but he is known to Accident and Emergency due to many previous admissions with alcohol intoxication. He has previously been normotensive, is a non-smoker and has not been treated for any other conditions.
      Based on the information provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Upper Abdominal Pain: Considerations and Exclusions

      Acute upper abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for acute pancreatitis, which is consistent with the presentation of quick-onset, severe upper abdominal pain with vomiting. Mild pyrexia is also common in acute pancreatitis. However, other conditions must be considered and excluded.

      Pulmonary embolism can cause acute pain, but it is typically pleuritic and associated with shortness of breath rather than nausea and vomiting. Aortic dissection is another potential cause of sudden-onset upper abdominal pain, but it is rare under the age of 40 and typically associated with a history of hypertension and smoking. Myocardial infarction should also be on the differential diagnosis, but the location of the pain and radiation to the back, along with the lack of a history of cardiac disease or hypertension, suggest other diagnoses. Nevertheless, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed to exclude myocardial infarction.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices can develop as a consequence of portal hypertension, which is usually due to cirrhosis. Although the patient is not known to have liver disease, his history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for cirrhosis. However, bleeding oesophageal varices would present with haematemesis, which the patient does not have.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain. In this case, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions must be considered and excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman was found to have constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome and frequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman was found to have constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome and frequently used over-the-counter laxatives. During a colonoscopy for rectal bleeding, her colon was noted to be abnormal and a biopsy was taken. What is the most probable histological result in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages containing lipofuscin in the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Colonic Pathologies: A Brief Overview

      Melanosis Coli: A Misnomer

      Prolonged laxative use can lead to melanosis coli, characterized by brown or black pigmentation of the colonic mucosa. However, the pigment is not melanin but intact lipofuscin. Macrophages ingest apoptotic cells, and lysosomes convert the debris to lipofuscin pigment. The macrophages then become loaded with lipofuscin pigment, which is best identified under electron microscopy. Hence, some authors have proposed a new name – pseudomelanosis coli. Use of anthraquinone laxatives is most commonly associated with this syndrome.

      Macrophages Containing Melanin

      Melanosis coli is a misnomer. The pigment is not melanin. See the correct answer for a full explanation.

      Non-Caseating Granuloma

      Non-caseating granulomas are characteristic of Crohn’s disease microscopic pathology, as well as transmural inflammation. However, this patient is unlikely to have Crohn’s disease, because it normally presents with diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss.

      Non-Specific Colitis

      Non-specific colitis is a general term which can be found in a variety of disorders. For example, laxative abuse can cause colonic inflammation. However, melanosis coli is a more specific answer.

      Crypt Abscesses

      Crypt abscesses are found in ulcerative colitis, as well as mucosal and submucosal inflammation. Normally, ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss. This patient’s history of constipation and a single episode of bloody diarrhoea makes ulcerative colitis unlikely.

      Understanding Colonic Pathologies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy

      The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.

      A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.

      A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.

      A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.

      A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.

      A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness of breath and pain on swallowing after a heavy drinking session the night before. He reports having vomited several times this morning, after which the pain started. He denies any blood in the vomit and has no melaena. On examination, he is febrile and tachypnoeic and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pneumothorax and air within the mediastinum.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent surgery

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture

      Suspected oesophageal rupture is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. This condition is more common in patients with a history of alcohol excess and can be associated with a triad of vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema. Symptoms include retrosternal chest/epigastric pain, tachypnoea, fever, pain on swallowing, and shock. A chest X-ray reveals gas within soft tissue spaces, pneumomediastinum, left pleural effusion, and left-sided pneumothorax. Without rapid treatment, the condition can be fatal.

      Antibiotics are necessary to treat the infection that may result from oesophageal rupture. However, they will not address the underlying cause of the infection.

      Chest drain insertion is not the correct management for pneumothorax secondary to oesophageal rupture. A chest drain would not resolve the underlying cause, and air would continue to enter the pleural cavity via the oesophagus.

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. PPIs would be the correct management for a suspected perforated ulcer. However, the history of acute-onset pain following vomiting is more in keeping with oesophageal rupture.

      Urgent endoscopy is not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. Endoscopy risks further oesophageal perforation, and there is no report of haematemesis or melaena, making this a less likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture: Antibiotics, Chest Drain Insertion, PPIs, and Endoscopy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.

      Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain and black stools since last night. She reports no unintentional weight loss or fresh blood in her stool. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis treated with ibuprofen and well-controlled essential hypertension with candesartan. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals an actively bleeding gastric ulcer. What major vessel supplies blood to the affected area of her gastrointestinal tract?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac trunk

      Explanation:

      Blood Supply to the Digestive System: Arteries and their Branches

      The digestive system receives its blood supply from several arteries and their branches. The coeliac trunk, which originates from the abdominal aorta, carries the major blood supply to the stomach through its three main divisions: the left gastric artery, the common hepatic artery, and the splenic artery. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the colon and small bowel, while the superior mesenteric artery mainly supplies the duodenum, small intestines, colon, and pancreas. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and gives rise to the left gastroepiploic artery. The artery of Drummond connects the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries and is also known as the marginal artery of the colon. It is important to note that the absence of this artery is a variant and not pathological.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable

      Explanation:

      Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study

      A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old medical student is worried that she might have coeliac disease after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student is worried that she might have coeliac disease after learning about it during her gastroenterology rotation. She schedules an appointment with her GP to address her concerns, and the GP orders routine blood tests and coeliac serology as the initial investigation. What is the most frequently linked condition to coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Common Associated Conditions

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes the small intestine villi to atrophy upon exposure to gliadin, resulting in malabsorption syndrome and steatorrhoea. This condition often leads to deficiencies in iron, other minerals, nutrients, and fat-soluble vitamins. While the incidence of gastrointestinal malignancies is increased in people with coeliac disease, it is a relatively rare occurrence. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy, vesicular rash, is commonly linked to coeliac disease and managed with a gluten-free diet. Osteoporosis is also common due to malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D. Infertility is not commonly associated with coeliac disease, especially in those on a gluten-free diet. However, untreated coeliac disease may have an impact on fertility, but results of studies are inconclusive. The most common associated condition with coeliac disease is iron deficiency anaemia.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old alcoholic with known cirrhotic liver disease is admitted to the Gastroenterology...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old alcoholic with known cirrhotic liver disease is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with a distended abdomen, jaundice and confusion. During examination, he is found to be clinically jaundiced and has a massively distended abdomen with evidence of a fluid level on percussion. A sample of fluid is taken from his abdomen and sent for analysis, which reveals that the fluid is an exudate.
      What is an exudative cause of ascites in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Ascites: Differentiating between Transudative and Exudative Ascites

      Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified based on the protein content of the fluid. Transudative ascites, which has a protein content of less than 30 g/l, is commonly associated with portal hypertension, cardiac failure, fulminant hepatic failure, and Budd-Chiari syndrome. On the other hand, exudative ascites, which has a protein content of more than 30 g/l, is often caused by infection or malignancy. In the case of the patient scenario described, a malignant cause is more likely. It is important to differentiate between transudative and exudative ascites to determine the underlying cause and guide appropriate treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a work-up of a suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a work-up of a suspected cholangiocarcinoma. He underwent a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). After this, he complains of chills, nausea, vomiting and upper-right abdominal pain. He has also spiked a fever of 38.9 °C.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver abscess

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abdominal Pain and Infective Symptoms

      A liver abscess is the most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with fever, abdominal pain, chills, nausea, and vomiting after undergoing an MRCP. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit characteristic symptoms such as multiorgan failure, shock, widespread bleeding, or clots. Fatty-liver disease could cause similar symptoms but would not have an acute onset or infective symptoms. Hepatitis is a possibility but would typically present with additional symptoms such as dark urine and pale stools. Liver metastases are unlikely to have a sudden onset and infective symptoms. While it is a possibility, a liver abscess is the most likely diagnosis, especially given the patient’s recent MRCP and suspected cholangiocarcinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
      What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension

      Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
      Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
      His blood test results are shown below.
      Investigation Results Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps

      Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.

      Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.

      Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.

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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain, fever, and jaundice requiring recurrent hospital admissions. During her last admission, she underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has a history of ulcerative colitis for the past 15 years.

      Investigations revealed elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (100 U/L), serum alkaline phosphatase (383 U/L), and serum total bilirubin (45 μmol/L). However, her serum IgG, IgA, and IgM levels were normal, and serology for hepatitis B and C was negative. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed dilated intrahepatic ducts and a common bile duct of 6 mm.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis, PSC, and Other Related Conditions

      Cholangitis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of biliary pain, fever, and jaundice. On the other hand, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a progressive disease that affects the bile ducts, either intrahepatic or extrahepatic, or both. The cause of PSC is unknown, but it is characterized by a disproportionate elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. Patients with PSC are prone to repeated episodes of acute cholangitis, which require hospitalization. Up to 90% of patients with PSC have underlying inflammatory bowel disease, usually ulcerative colitis. Imaging studies, such as MRCP, typically show multifocal strictures in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. The later course of PSC is characterized by secondary biliary cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and liver failure. Patients with PSC are also at higher risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a marked elevation in transaminitis, the presence of autoantibodies, and elevated serum IgG. Choledocholithiasis, another related condition, is usually diagnosed by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen, which shows a dilated common bile duct (larger than 6 mm) and stones in the bile duct. Meanwhile, primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is unlikely to cause recurrent episodes of cholangitis. Unlike PSC, PBC does not affect extrahepatic bile ducts. Finally, viral hepatitis is unlikely in the absence of positive serology. these conditions and their characteristics is crucial in providing proper diagnosis and treatment to patients.

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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of fatigue, weakness, and worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of fatigue, weakness, and worsening itchiness. Upon examination, there are no significant findings. Blood tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      Test Result
      Full blood count Normal
      Renal profile Normal
      Alkaline phosphatase Elevated
      γ-glutamyl transferase Elevated
      Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase Normal
      Bilirubin Slightly elevated
      Antimitochondrial antibody M­2 (AMA) Positive
      Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA) Negative
      Anti-liver/kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) Negative
      Hepatitis screen Negative
      HIV virus type 1 and type 2 RNA Negative
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Liver Diseases: Differentiating PBC, PSC, and AIH

      Autoimmune liver diseases, including primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), and autoimmune hepatitis (AIH), can present with non-specific symptoms and insidious onset. However, certain demographic and serological markers can help differentiate between them.

      PBC is characterized by chronic granulomatous inflammation of small intrahepatic bile ducts, leading to progressive cholestasis, cirrhosis, and portal hypertension. It is often diagnosed incidentally or presents with lethargy and pruritus. AMA M2 subtype positivity is highly specific for PBC, and treatment involves cholestyramine for itching and ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the only curative treatment.

      PSC is a disorder of unknown etiology characterized by non-malignant, non-bacterial inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the intra- and extrahepatic biliary tree. It is more common in men and frequently found in patients with ulcerative colitis. AMA is negative, and diagnosis is based on MRCP or ERCP showing a characteristic beaded appearance of the biliary tree.

      AIH is a disorder of unknown cause characterized by autoantibodies directed against hepatocyte surface antigens. It can present acutely with signs of fulminant autoimmune disease or insidiously. There are three subtypes with slightly different demographic distributions and prognoses, and serological markers such as ASMA, anti-LKM, and anti-soluble liver antigen antibodies can help differentiate them.

      A hepatitis screen is negative in this case, ruling out hepatitis C. A pancreatic head tumor would present with markedly elevated bilirubin and a normal autoimmune screen.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with abdominal distension and bilateral ankle oedema, worsening over the previous 2 weeks. Three months ago, he was admitted for bleeding oesophageal varices, which was treated endoscopically. There was shifting dullness without tenderness on abdominal examination, and splenomegaly was also noted. His serum albumin concentration was diminished. Prothrombin time was elevated.
      Which one of the following diuretics will best help this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics for Ascites in Liver Cirrhosis: Mechanisms and Options

      Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis, caused by both Na/water retention and portal hypertension. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is the first-line diuretic for ascites in liver cirrhosis. It promotes natriuresis and diuresis, while also preventing hypokalaemia and subsequent hepatic encephalopathy. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be used as an adjunct or second-line therapy. Bumetanide and amiloride are alternatives, but less preferred. Acetazolamide and thiazide diuretics are not recommended. Common side-effects of diuretics include electrolyte imbalances and renal impairment. Careful monitoring is necessary to ensure safe and effective treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. She took 25 500-mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. She took 25 500-mg tablets 6 hours ago. This is her first overdose. She has a history of anorexia nervosa and is severely malnourished, weighing only 42 kg. She has a past medical history of asthma, for which she uses a long-acting corticosteroid inhaler. She also takes citalopram 20 mg once daily for depression. What factor increases her risk of hepatotoxicity after a paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her history of anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Factors affecting liver injury following paracetamol overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to liver injury due to the formation of a reactive metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s natural antioxidant glutathione and damages liver cells. Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of liver injury following paracetamol overdose. These include malnourishment, eating disorders (such as anorexia or bulimia), failure to thrive or cystic fibrosis in children, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), cachexia, alcoholism, enzyme-inducing drugs, and regular alcohol consumption. The use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. However, the antidote for paracetamol poisoning, acetylcysteine, acts as a precursor for glutathione and replenishes the body’s stores to prevent further liver damage. Overall, age does not significantly affect the risk of liver injury following paracetamol overdose.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a...

    Incorrect

    • As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a 36-year-old man who has been admitted with decompensated alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, you observe widespread stigmata of chronic liver disease with tense ascites and mild peripheral oedema. There is no indication of encephalopathy, and all vital signs are within acceptable limits. The most recent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (120-140), a white cell count of 5.6 ×109/L (4.0-11.0), and a platelet count of 79 ×109/L (150-400), among other things. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain. What is the safest analgesic agent to prescribe to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Special Considerations for Drug Prescribing in Patients with Advanced Liver Disease

      Patients with advanced liver disease require special attention when it comes to drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. The liver’s poor synthetic function can lead to impaired enzyme formation, reducing the ability to excrete hepatically metabolized drugs. Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs can lead to the accumulation of toxic metabolites. Additionally, reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors by a damaged liver means that these patients can often auto-anticoagulate, and drugs that interfere with the clotting process are best avoided.

      Aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and diclofenac should be avoided in liver disease patients. These drugs promote gastric irritation, increasing the likelihood of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is significantly increased if there are upper gastrointestinal varices present. NSAIDs can also promote fluid retention and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Morphine sulfate and tramadol hydrochloride are both opioid analgesics that should only be considered in patients with advanced liver disease by hepatologists as they can promote the development of hepatic encephalopathy. Paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients, even in severe liver disease, as long as the doses are halved.

      In conclusion, patients with advanced liver disease require special care in drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. It is important to avoid drugs that interfere with the clotting process, promote gastric irritation, and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Opioid analgesics should only be considered by hepatologists, and paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

    His wife provides a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

      His wife provides a history that he has consumed approximately six cans of beer per day together with liberal quantities of whiskey for many years. He has attempted to quit drinking in the past but was unsuccessful.

      Upon examination, he appears distressed and disoriented. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and blood pressure is 112/80 mmHg. He has several spider naevi over his chest. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with ascites.

      What would be your next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Haematemesis in a Patient with Alcohol Abuse

      When a patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of chronic liver disease and sudden haematemesis, the possibility of bleeding oesophageal varices should be considered as the primary diagnosis. However, other potential causes such as peptic ulceration or haemorrhagic gastritis should also be taken into account. To determine the exact cause of the bleeding, an urgent endoscopy should be requested. This procedure will allow for a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract and enable the medical team to identify the source of the bleeding. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

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