00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling unwell in...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling unwell in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.7 mmol/l. An ECG is conducted, which reveals normal sinus rhythm. A nebulizer treatment with salbutamol is administered, and shortly after, an arterial blood gas is performed. The child's pH is 7.41, but her potassium level remains unchanged.
      As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be utilized next?

      Your Answer: Insulin and glucose infusion

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is when the level of potassium in the blood is higher than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the specific potassium levels. Mild hyperkalaemia is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalaemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalaemia is above 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can be acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.

      Calcium is used to counteract the harmful effects of hyperkalaemia on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane and preventing abnormal depolarization. It works quickly, usually within 15 minutes, but its effects are not long-lasting. Calcium is considered a first-line treatment for arrhythmias and significant ECG abnormalities caused by hyperkalaemia, such as widening of the QRS interval, loss of the P wave, and cardiac arrhythmias. However, arrhythmias are rare at potassium levels below 7.5 mmol/l.

      It’s important to note that calcium does not lower the serum potassium level. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with other therapies that actually help reduce potassium levels, such as insulin and salbutamol. If the pH is measured to be above 7.35 and the potassium level remains high despite nebulized salbutamol, the APLS guidelines recommend the administration of an insulin and glucose infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old traveler returns from a recent trip to Northern India with frequent...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old traveler returns from a recent trip to Northern India with frequent headaches and occasional fevers. She describes experiencing intense chills, followed by feeling hot and then sweating profusely.

      During examination, she appears drowsy and has a temperature of 38.9°C. There are no noticeable swollen lymph nodes or rash, but upon examining her abdomen, hepatosplenomegaly is observed.

      Today's blood tests reveal the following results:
      - Sodium (Na): 140 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      - Potassium (K): 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      - Urea: 11.5 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      - Creatinine: 268 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a contagious illness that is spread by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. It is caused by a parasitic infection from the Plasmodium genus. There are five species of Plasmodium that can cause disease in humans: Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.

      The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a recurring cycle of cold, hot, and sweating stages. During the cold stage, the patient experiences intense chills, followed by an extremely hot stage, and finally a stage of profuse sweating. Upon examination, the patient may show signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen, but no signs of swollen lymph nodes.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and is responsible for the majority of deaths. Severe or complicated malaria is indicated by impaired consciousness, seizures, low blood sugar, anemia, kidney damage, difficulty breathing, and spontaneous bleeding. Given the presentation, it is likely that this case involves Plasmodium falciparum.

      Currently, artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) is recommended for treating P. falciparum malaria. This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with a drug from a different class. Companion drugs include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives include dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether.

      If ACT is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used. Quinine is highly effective but not well tolerated for long-term treatment, so it should be combined with another drug, usually oral doxycycline (or clindamycin for pregnant women and young children).

      Severe or complicated falciparum malaria should be managed in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, or those at high risk of developing severe disease (such as if more than 2% of red blood cells are infected), or

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of severe asthma symptoms. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of severe asthma symptoms. You begin treatment for the patient, following the most recent BTS guidelines.

      According to the BTS guidelines, what is the appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: If pulse oximetry is not available nebulisers should be driven by air

      Correct Answer: Steroids should be given in all cases of acute asthma attack

      Explanation:

      The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:

      Oxygen:
      – It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.

      β2 agonists therapy:
      – High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
      – Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
      – For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
      – In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.

      Ipratropium bromide:
      – Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.

      Steroid therapy:
      – Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
      – Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.

      Other therapies:
      – Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
      – A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
      – Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.

      For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

      Correct Answer: Neural tube defect

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of trimethoprim is linked to an increased risk of neural tube defects because it antagonizes folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Below is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial...

    Correct

    • A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial muscles on the right side. She is unable to frown or raise her eyebrow on the right side. When instructed to close her eyes and bare her teeth, the right eyeball rolls up and outwards. These symptoms began 24 hours ago. She has no significant medical history, and the rest of her examination appears normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with a facial palsy that affects only the left side and involves the lower motor neurons. This can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion because the patient is unable to raise their eyebrow and the upper facial muscles are also affected. Additionally, the patient demonstrates a phenomenon known as Bell’s phenomenon, where the eye on the affected side rolls upwards and outwards when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      There are other potential causes for an isolated lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, including Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (caused by the herpes zoster virus), trauma, parotid gland tumor, cerebellopontine angle tumor (such as an acoustic neuroma), middle ear infection, cholesteatoma, and sarcoidosis.

      However, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is unlikely in this case since there is no presence of pain or pustular lesions in and around the ear. An acoustic neuroma is also less likely, especially without any symptoms of sensorineural deafness or tinnitus. Furthermore, there are no clinical features consistent with an inner ear infection.

      The recommended treatment for this patient is the administration of steroids, and appropriate follow-up should be organized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with a laceration...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with a laceration to the distal third of his finger caused by a box cutter. You intend to clean and examine the wound under local anesthesia. You gather the necessary equipment to administer a digital (ring) nerve block and prepare to inject the anesthetic at the base of the finger. How are the digital nerves arranged within the finger?

      Your Answer: 2 palmar and 2 dorsal digital nerves

      Explanation:

      The finger has a total of four digital nerves. Two of these nerves, known as the palmar digital nerves, run along the palm side of each finger. The other two nerves, called the dorsal digital nerves, are located on the back side of the finger. However, the dorsal nerve supply changes slightly at the level of the proximal IP joint. Beyond this point, the dorsal nerve supply comes from the dorsal branch of the palmar digital nerve.

      Further Reading:

      Digital nerve blocks are commonly used to numb the finger for various procedures such as foreign body removal, dislocation reduction, and suturing. Sensation to the finger is primarily provided by the proper digital nerves, which arise from the common digital nerve. Each common digital nerve divides into two proper digital nerves, which run along the palmar aspect of the finger. These proper digital nerves give off a dorsal branch that supplies the dorsal aspect of the finger.

      The most common technique for digital nerve blocks is the digital (ring) block. The hand is cleaned and the injection sites are cleansed with an alcohol swab. A syringe containing 1% lidocaine is prepared, and the needle is inserted at the base of the finger from a dorsal approach. Lidocaine is infiltrated under the skin, and the needle is then advanced towards the palmar aspect of the finger to inject more lidocaine. This process is repeated on the opposite side of the finger.

      It is important not to use lidocaine with adrenaline for this procedure, as it may cause constriction and ischemia of the digital artery. Lidocaine 1% is the preferred local anesthetic, and the maximum dose is 3 ml/kg up to 200 mg. Contraindications for digital nerve blocks include compromised circulation to the finger, infection at the planned injection site, contraindication to local anesthetic (e.g. allergy), and suspected compartment syndrome (which is rare in the finger).

      Complications of digital nerve blocks can include vascular injury to the digital artery or vein, injury to the digital nerve, infection, pain, allergic reaction, intravascular injection (which can be avoided by aspirating prior to injection), and systemic local anesthetic toxicity (which is uncommon with typical doses of lidocaine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You review a 72-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer. You can...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 72-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer. You can see from her notes that she has an advanced decision in place.

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding an advanced decision?

      Your Answer: It can be used to give a relative ‘lasting power of attorney’

      Correct Answer: It can be used by Jehovah’s witnesses to refuse blood transfusions

      Explanation:

      An advance decision, also known as an advance directive in Scotland, is a statement made by a patient expressing their desire to refuse certain types of medical treatment or care in the event that they become unable to make or communicate decisions for themselves. These statements serve as a means of effectively communicating the patient’s wishes to healthcare professionals and family members, helping to avoid any confusion that may arise. If a patient reaches a point where they are no longer capable of making informed decisions about their care, an advance decision can provide clarity and guidance.

      An advance decision can typically be utilized in the following situations: making decisions regarding CPR, determining the use of IV fluids and parenteral nutrition, deciding on specific procedures, and addressing the use of blood products for Jehovah’s Witnesses. However, it is important to note that advance decisions have their limitations and cannot be used to grant a relative lasting power of attorney, appoint a spokesperson to make decisions on the patient’s behalf, request a specific medical treatment, advocate for something illegal (such as assisted suicide), refuse treatment for a mental health condition, or authorize treatments that are not in the patient’s best interests.

      A doctor is legally obligated to adhere to an advance decision unless certain circumstances arise. These circumstances include changes that invalidate the decision, advances or changes in treatment that alter the circumstances, ambiguity in the wording of the decision, or if the decision is unsigned or its authenticity is in doubt. If there are any doubts about the validity of an advance decision, it is advisable to seek legal advice. Unfortunately, there have been instances where advance decisions have been forged or signed under duress, and any suspicions of this nature should be raised.

      It is important to note that there is no specific time period for which an advance decision remains valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are treating a 45-year-old patient with known COPD who has been brought...

    Incorrect

    • You are treating a 45-year-old patient with known COPD who has been brought to the ED due to worsening shortness of breath and suspected sepsis. You plan to obtain an arterial blood gas from the radial artery to assess for acidosis and evaluate lactate and base excess levels. What is the typical range for lactate?

      Your Answer: 2.1-4.4 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 0.5-2.2 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      The typical range for lactate levels in the body is 0.5-2.2 mmol/L, according to most UK trusts. However, it is important to mention that the RCEM sepsis guides consider a lactate level above 2 mmol/L to be abnormal.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after being bitten by a bee. The patient's arm has started to swell and she is having difficulty breathing. You diagnose anaphylaxis and decide to administer adrenaline. What is the most suitable dose to give this patient?

      Your Answer: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000) by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a bee. She is experiencing swelling in her arm and difficulty breathing, which are signs of anaphylaxis. To treat this condition, the most suitable dose of adrenaline to administer to the patient is 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000) by intramuscular injection.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community...

    Correct

    • A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community midwife. She has been having difficulty with feeding, and her mother reports that she has been vomiting after most meals. Her diaper is stained with dark urine, and her mother mentions that her stools have been pale and chalky. She has some bruises on her arms and legs. The midwife has arranged for a heel prick test, which has revealed a total serum bilirubin of 208 mmol/l, with 80% being conjugated.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      This infant is displaying prolonged jaundice and failure to thrive. Prolonged jaundice is defined as jaundice that persists beyond the first 14 days of life. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two categories: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.

      Causes of prolonged unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia include breast milk jaundice, infections (particularly urinary tract infections), haemolysis (most commonly rhesus haemolytic disease), hypothyroidism, hereditary disorders (such as Crigler-Najjar syndrome), and galactosemia.

      Causes of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include biliary atresia, choledochal cysts, and neonatal hepatitis. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia often presents with symptoms such as failure to thrive, easy bruising or bleeding tendency, dark urine, and pale, chalky stools.

      In this case, the jaundice is clearly conjugated, and the only cause of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia listed is biliary atresia. To evaluate conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, an ultrasound of the bile ducts and gallbladder should be performed. If dilatation is observed, it may indicate the presence of choledochal cysts, which should be further investigated with a cholangiogram. If the bile ducts and gallbladder appear normal or are not visualized, a radionuclide scan is often conducted. The absence of excretion on the scan is consistent with biliary atresia.

      Biliary atresia is a condition characterized by progressive destruction or absence of the extrahepatic biliary tree and intrahepatic biliary ducts. It is a rare condition, occurring in approximately 1 in 10-15,000 live births in the western world. Infants with biliary atresia typically exhibit jaundice early on, and their stools are pale while their urine is dark starting from the second day of life. If left untreated, the condition will progress to chronic liver failure, leading to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly. Without treatment, death is inevitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation,...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, who is currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU). His most recent blood results reveal significant renal impairment.

      His current medications are as follows:
      Digoxin 250 mcg once daily
      Atenolol 50 mg once daily
      Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      What is the SINGLE most suitable medication adjustment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop atenolol

      Correct Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is eliminated through the kidneys, and if renal function is compromised, it can lead to elevated levels of digoxin and potential toxicity. To address this issue, it is necessary to decrease the patient’s digoxin dosage and closely monitor their digoxin levels and electrolyte levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a hillside overnight. The rescue team informs you that according to the Swiss Staging system, he is at stage II.
      What is the most accurate description of his current medical condition?

      Your Answer: Impaired consciousness without shivering

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops below 35°C. It is categorized as mild (32-35°C), moderate (28-32°C), or severe (<28°C). Rescuers at the scene can use the Swiss staging system to describe the condition of victims. The stages range from clearly conscious and shivering to unconscious and not breathing, with death due to irreversible hypothermia being the most severe stage. There are several risk factors for hypothermia, including environmental exposure, unsatisfactory housing, poverty, lack of cold awareness, drugs, alcohol, acute confusion, hypothyroidism, and sepsis. The clinical features of hypothermia vary depending on the severity. At 32-35°C, symptoms may include apathy, amnesia, ataxia, and dysarthria. At 30-32°C, there may be a decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmias, respiratory depression, and muscular rigidity. Below 30°C, ventricular fibrillation may occur, especially with excessive movement or invasive procedures. Diagnosing hypothermia involves checking the core temperature using an oesophageal, rectal, or tympanic probe with a low reading thermometer. Rectal and tympanic temperatures may lag behind core temperature and are unreliable in hypothermia. Various investigations should be carried out, including blood tests, blood glucose, amylase, blood cultures, arterial blood gas, ECG, chest X-ray, and CT head if there is suspicion of head injury or CVA. The management of hypothermia involves supporting the ABCs, treating the patient in a warm room, removing wet clothes and drying the skin, monitoring the ECG, providing warmed, humidified oxygen, correcting hypoglycemia with IV glucose, and handling the patient gently to avoid VF arrest. Re-warming methods include passive re-warming with warm blankets or Bair hugger/polythene sheets, surface re-warming with a water bath, core re-warming with heated, humidified oxygen or peritoneal lavage, and extracorporeal re-warming via cardiopulmonary bypass for severe hypothermia/cardiac arrest. In the case of hypothermic cardiac arrest, CPR should be performed with chest compressions and ventilations at standard rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high temperature and feels very nauseous. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa. You suspect she may have acute appendicitis.
      What is the surface marking for McBurney's point in this case?

      Your Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      Appendicitis is a condition characterized by the acute inflammation of the appendix. It is a common cause of the acute abdomen, particularly affecting children and young adults in their 20s and 30s. The typical presentation of appendicitis involves experiencing poorly localized periumbilical pain, which is pain originating from the visceral peritoneum. Within a day or two, this pain tends to localize to a specific point known as McBurney’s point, which is associated with pain from the parietal peritoneum. Alongside the pain, individuals with appendicitis often experience symptoms such as fever, loss of appetite, and nausea.

      McBurney’s point is defined as the point that lies one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. This point roughly corresponds to the most common position where the base of the appendix attaches to the caecum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. During auscultation, you detect a murmur. The patient then undergoes a bedside echocardiogram which reveals mitral regurgitation. What murmur is commonly associated with mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Correct Answer: pansystolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur throughout systole that is often heard loudest at the apex and can be heard radiating to the left axilla.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He is drowsy and slurring his speech. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 116 beats per minute, blood pressure 91/57 mmHg, oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11 out of 15. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:
      pH: 7.24
      pO2: 9.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.3 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 143 mmol/l
      Cl–: 99 mmol/l
      Lactate: 5 IU/l
      Which SINGLE statement regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer: She is likely to have a type B lactic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, but generally, they fall within the following ranges:

      pH: 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
      PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
      Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/l

      In this particular case, the patient’s history indicates an overdose. However, there is no immediate need for intubation as her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 11/15, and she can speak, albeit with slurred speech, indicating that she can maintain her own airway.

      The relevant ABG findings are as follows:

      – Mild hypoxia
      – Decreased pH (acidaemia)
      – Low PCO2
      – Normal bicarbonate
      – Elevated lactate

      The anion gap is a measure of the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the methodology used, but it is typically between 8 to 16 mmol/L.

      In this case, the patient’s anion gap can be calculated using the formula:

      Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]

      Using the given values:

      Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
      Anion gap = 22

      Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. It is likely a type A lactic acidosis resulting from tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:

      Type A lactic acidosis:
      – Shock (including septic shock)
      – Left ventricular failure
      – Severe anemia
      – Asphyxia
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Carbon monoxide poisoning
      – Respiratory failure
      – Severe asthma and COPD
      – Regional hypoperfusion

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      – Renal failure
      – Liver failure
      – Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      – Thiamine deficiency
      – Al

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of benign prostatic hyperplasia dribbling presents...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of benign prostatic hyperplasia dribbling presents with a fever, chills, and muscle aches. After taking a detailed history and conducting an examination, you diagnose acute bacterial prostatitis and decide to start antibiotics.
      What is the recommended duration of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.

      The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial...

    Incorrect

    • A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial palsy that began 48 hours ago. After conducting a thorough history and examination, the patient is diagnosed with Bell's palsy.
      Which of the following statements about Bell's palsy is accurate?

      Your Answer: It typically spares the upper facial muscles

      Correct Answer: ‘Bell’s phenomenon’ is the rolling upwards and outwards of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by a facial paralysis that affects the lower motor neurons. It can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion by the inability to raise the eyebrow and the involvement of the upper facial muscles.

      One distinctive feature of Bell’s palsy is the occurrence of Bell’s phenomenon, which refers to the upward and outward rolling of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      Unlike some other conditions, Bell’s palsy does not lead to sensorineural deafness and tinnitus.

      Treatment options for Bell’s palsy include the use of steroids and acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a fever, headache, and feeling nauseous. After a diagnosis, it is determined that she has contracted yellow fever.

      Upon examination, it is observed that she has an uncommon combination of an extremely high body temperature (39.7°C) and a relative bradycardia (48 bpm).

      What is the name of the clinical sign that she has developed, which is named after a person?

      Your Answer: Auspitz’s sign

      Correct Answer: Faget sign

      Explanation:

      Faget sign is a unique occurrence where a fever and a relatively slow heart rate, known as bradycardia, are observed together. This phenomenon is sometimes called sphygmothermic dissociation. It can be observed in various infectious diseases, such as yellow fever, typhoid fever, tularaemia, brucellosis, Colorado tick fever, Legionella pneumonia, and Mycoplasma pneumonia. Normally, when a person has a fever, their heart rate increases, but in cases of Faget sign, the heart rate remains slow. Another term used to describe the combination of fever and increased heart rate is Leibermeister’s rule.

      Auspitz’s sign is a characteristic feature seen in psoriasis. When the scales of psoriasis are scraped off, small bleeding spots, known as punctate bleeding spots, appear. This sign helps in the diagnosis of psoriasis.

      Frank sign is a term used to describe a diagonal crease that appears on the earlobe. It has been hypothesized that this crease may be linked to cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

      Levine’s sign refers to a specific response to chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, known as ischemic chest pain. In this sign, the person clenches their fist and holds it over their chest in an instinctive reaction to the pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Discitis

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.

      A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of tests, there is suspicion that an embolus is the underlying cause.
      Which of the following characteristics is MOST INDICATIVE of an embolus as the underlying cause rather than a thrombus?

      Your Answer: Persistent pain

      Correct Answer: Visible skin changes of the feet

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden reduction in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a previously partially blocked artery by a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from another part of the body. Acute limb ischaemia is considered a medical emergency, and if not promptly treated with surgery to restore blood flow, it can lead to extensive tissue damage within six hours.

      The classic signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps:
      – Pain that is constant and persistent
      – Absence of pulses in the ankle
      – Pallor, cyanosis, or mottling of the skin
      – Loss of power or paralysis in the affected limb
      – Paraesthesia or reduced sensation, leading to numbness
      – Feeling cold in the affected limb

      It is important to be able to distinguish between ischaemia caused by a blood clot and ischaemia caused by an embolus. The following highlights the main differences:
      Embolus Thrombus
      – Onset is sudden, occurring within seconds to minutes – Onset is gradual, taking hours to days
      – Ischaemia is usually severe due to the lack of collateral circulation – Ischaemia is less severe due to the presence of collateral circulation
      – There is typically no history of claudication, and pulses may still be present in the other leg – There is often a history of claudication, and pulses may also be absent in the other leg
      – Skin changes, such as marbling, may be visible in the feet. This can appear as a fine reticular blanching or mottling in the early stages, progressing to coarse, fixed mottling
      – Skin changes are usually absent in cases of thrombus-induced ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires about her diagnosis and has some questions for you.
      Choose from the options provided below the ONE CD4 count that indicates advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS).

      Your Answer: 200 cells/mm3

      Explanation:

      A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3. In individuals diagnosed with HIV, the CD4 count is typically monitored every 3-6 months. It is important to note that the CD4 count can fluctuate on a daily basis and can be influenced by the timing of the blood test as well as the presence of other infections or illnesses.

      When the CD4 count falls below 350 cells/mm3, it is recommended to consider starting antiretroviral therapy. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS defining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 42 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a 15cm long laceration to her arm which occurred when she tripped and fell onto a sharp object. You are suturing the laceration under local anesthesia when the patient mentions experiencing numbness in her lips and feeling lightheaded. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Local anaesthetic toxicity

      Explanation:

      Early signs of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) can include numbness around the mouth and tongue, a metallic taste in the mouth, feeling lightheaded or dizzy, and experiencing visual and auditory disturbances. LAST is a rare but serious complication that can occur when administering anesthesia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of LAST, as early recognition can lead to better outcomes. Additionally, hyperventilation can temporarily lower calcium levels, which can cause numbness around the mouth.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted infection. Following her assessment, she is diagnosed with gonorrhoea.

      Which of the following is the most common presenting clinical feature of gonorrhoea in women?

      Your Answer: Mucopurulent discharge

      Correct Answer: Urethritis

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that is shaped like two spheres and stains pink when tested. It is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important thing to note is that the gonococcal pili, which are hair-like structures on the bacteria, can change their appearance. This means that even if someone has recovered from a previous infection, they can still be reinfected due to the bacteria’s ability to change.

      In men, the clinical signs of gonorrhoea include inflammation of the urethra, which is seen in approximately 80% of cases. Around 50% of men experience pain or discomfort during urination, and a mucopurulent discharge may also be present. Rectal infection is possible, although it is usually asymptomatic. In some cases, it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is also possible but typically does not cause any noticeable symptoms.

      Women with gonorrhoea may experience a vaginal discharge, which is seen in about 50% of cases. Lower abdominal pain is reported in approximately 25% of women, and dysuria, or painful urination, is seen in 10-15% of cases. Pelvic or lower abdominal tenderness is less common, occurring in less than 5% of women. Additionally, women may have an endocervical discharge and/or bleeding. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis is also possible in women, but it is typically asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
      What other medication should be recommended at this point?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal drug that he has been prescribed.
      Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be causing this?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain and distension over the past 2 weeks. The patient has a history of alcohol dependence with multiple alcohol related visits to the hospital over the past 8 years. On examination, you observe a significantly swollen abdomen consistent with tense ascites which you suspect is due to liver cirrhosis. Which scoring system is utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality?

      Your Answer: Child Pugh score

      Explanation:

      The scoring system utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality is the Child Pugh score. This scoring system takes into account several factors including the patient’s bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, presence of ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each factor is assigned a score and the total score is used to classify the severity of liver cirrhosis into three categories: A, B, or C. The higher the score, the more severe the liver cirrhosis and the higher the risk of mortality.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman is noted to have 'Auer rods' on her peripheral blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is noted to have 'Auer rods' on her peripheral blood smear.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Auer rods are small, needle-shaped structures that can be found within the cytoplasm of blast cells. These structures have a distinct eosinophilic appearance. While they are most frequently observed in cases of acute myeloid leukemia, they can also be present in high-grade myelodysplastic syndromes and myeloproliferative disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a truck that had veered onto the sidewalk where the patient was standing. The patient has a significant bruise on the back of her head and seems lethargic.

      You are worried about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following physical signs suggest elevated ICP?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Vomiting after a head injury should raise concerns about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Signs of elevated ICP include vomiting, changes in pupil size or shape in one eye, decreased cognitive function or consciousness, abnormal findings during fundoscopy (such as blurry optic discs or bleeding in the retina), cranial nerve dysfunction (most commonly affecting CN III and VI), weakness on one side of the body (a late sign), bradycardia (slow heart rate), high blood pressure, and a wide pulse pressure. Irregular breathing that may progress to respiratory distress, focal neurological deficits, and seizures can also be indicative of elevated ICP.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest discomfort. She is extremely worried as she experienced a heart attack (MI) 8 weeks ago. Today the pain is sharp and is alleviated by leaning forward. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 37.9°C and she has pitting edema in both ankles. The ECG shows Q waves in the anterolateral leads.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s syndrome is a form of pericarditis that occurs within 2 to 10 weeks following a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is distinguished by intense chest pain that is usually alleviated by assuming an upright position. Additionally, individuals may experience a mild fever, a pericardial rub, pulsus paradoxus, and indications of right ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a...

    Correct

    • A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security

      Explanation:

      In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.

      To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.

      Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.

      Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      48
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/2) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2) 100%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed