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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
    Blood tests reveal:
    Bilirubin...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
      Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter laboratory. His heart rate is 164 beats per minute and the 12-lead ECG monitor displays ventricular tachycardia. As you begin to assess him, you are unable to detect a pulse and immediately call for assistance.

      What is the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: Deliver a maximum of three successive shocks

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences cardiac arrest in VF/pulseless VT and is monitored, such as in a coronary care unit, critical care unit, or catheter laboratory, they should receive a maximum of three successive shocks instead of one shock followed by two minutes of CPR. After the shocks, chest compressions should be administered for two minutes. Once compressions restart, adrenaline 1mg IV and amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given for shockable rhythms (VT/pulseless VF). Adrenaline 1mg IV should be given after alternate shocks (every 3-5 minutes). For non-shockable rhythms (pulseless electrical activity/asystole), adrenaline 1mg IV should be given as soon as venous access is achieved and administered alongside CPR. Pulseless electrical activity is a type of cardiac arrest where there is electrical activity (other than ventricular tachycardia) that would normally have an associated pulse. Asystole is a complete cessation of any electrical and mechanical heart activity.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner of her mouth was drooping while brushing her teeth this morning. She is in good health but experienced pain behind her right ear yesterday and reports dryness in her right eye. Upon examination, she exhibits complete paralysis of the facial nerve on the right side, from the forehead to the mouth. There are no abnormalities found during ear, nose, and throat examination or clinical examination of the peripheral nervous system. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bell's palsy

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of an ear infection is unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and the results of their ear exam.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.6
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol. He has come in 3 days after taking the overdose due to feeling extremely ill. What liver disease patterns are most probable to be observed?

      Your Answer: High ALT. High ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high

      Correct Answer: High ALT. Normal ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose leads to a liver disease characterized by hepatocellular symptoms. This type of liver disease is different from cholestatic (obstructive) or mixed liver diseases, which have distinct laboratory test results. Hepatocellular disease is indicated by raised ALT levels, while cholestatic disease is indicated by raised ALP levels. Mixed liver disease has raised levels of both ALT and ALP. AST and ALT are both produced by hepatocytes, and in hepatocellular disease, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing raised ALT levels. ALP, on the other hand, is produced by the cells lining the bile ducts, and its levels rise in obstructive liver disease.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease

      Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.

      Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.

      Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.

      It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful ulcer on his genitals. Upon examination, you observe a lesion that is 1cm x 1cm in size and has a ragged border. Additionally, you notice tender lymphadenopathy in the groin area. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is the culprit behind painful genital ulcers that have a ragged border and are accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Haemophilus ducreyi is the organism responsible for causing chancroid. While herpes simplex virus can also cause painful genital ulcers, they tend to be smaller and multiple, and primary attacks are often accompanied by fever. On the other hand, lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. trachomatis, syphilis by T. pallidum, and granuloma inguinale by K. granulomatis, all of which result in painless genital ulcers.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination. The symptoms began two months ago and have been progressively worsening. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is classified as morbidly obese. Upon conducting a fasting glucose test, the results show 8.2 mmol/L. The doctor decides to measure the patient's C-peptide levels, which are found to be low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glucose

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Patients with T1DM typically have low C-peptide levels.

      The patient in question is exhibiting classic symptoms of diabetes, including polyuria and tiredness, and their fasting glucose level is 8.2 mmol/L, which meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes according to the World Health Organization. Given their age and risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend testing for C-peptide levels. C-peptide is a byproduct of proinsulin cleavage into insulin, and low levels indicate a lack of insulin production, which is characteristic of T1DM.

      Impaired fasting glucose is an incorrect answer because the patient’s fasting glucose level is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young is also incorrect because it is an autosomal-dominant condition that typically presents as T2DM in patients under 25, and C-peptide levels remain normal. Suggests diabetes mellitus but further testing is needed is also incorrect because the patient’s symptoms and fasting glucose level meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes.

      Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.

      The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.

      Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      25.4
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  • Question 7 - A 28-week premature infant is born after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM)....

    Correct

    • A 28-week premature infant is born after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM). The neonate develops temperature instability, respiratory distress, and lethargy about 18 hours after birth. Blood cultures confirm sepsis. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Sepsis in newborns can be difficult to diagnose as it often presents with non-specific symptoms. Therefore, it is important to have a high level of suspicion and to investigate promptly. There are two types of sepsis in newborns: early-onset (within 48 hours of birth) and late-onset (after 48 hours from birth). Early-onset sepsis is usually caused by microorganisms acquired from the mother’s birth canal, while late-onset sepsis is often caused by hospital-acquired pathogens such as Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. In this case, the newborn is likely to have early-onset sepsis, which is commonly caused by Group B Strep, a bacteria that is normally found in the female genital tract.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.7
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  • Question 8 - A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?

      Your Answer: Heartburn or indigestion

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care. She has been attempting to conceive for the past year and has recently received a positive pregnancy test result. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago, which prompted her to take the test. The patient is in good health with no underlying medical conditions, does not smoke, and abstains from alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m².

      What is the advised folic acid consumption for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher should be given a daily dose of 5mg folic acid until the 13th week of their pregnancy. Folic acid is crucial during the first trimester as it helps prevent neural tube defects (NTD). Typically, a daily dose of 400mcg is sufficient for most pregnant women during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. However, those with a BMI of over 30 kg/m², as well as those with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD, should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that folic acid be taken while trying to conceive to further reduce the risk of NTD. Additionally, NICE advises all pregnant women to take a daily dose of 10mcg (400 units) of vitamin D throughout their entire pregnancy.

      Pregnancy and Obesity: Risks and Management

      Obesity during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the unborn child. A BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher at the first antenatal visit is considered obese. Maternal risks include miscarriage, venous thromboembolism, gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, dysfunctional and induced labour, postpartum haemorrhage, wound infections, and a higher rate of caesarean section. Fetal risks include congenital anomaly, prematurity, macrosomia, stillbirth, increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood, and neonatal death.

      It is important to inform women with a BMI of 30 or more at the booking appointment about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy. They should not attempt to reduce the risk by dieting while pregnant, and healthcare professionals will manage the risk during their pregnancy.

      Management of obesity during pregnancy includes taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg, screening for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks, giving birth in a consultant-led obstetric unit if the BMI is 35 kg/m² or higher, and having an antenatal consultation with an obstetric anaesthetist and a plan made if the BMI is 40 kg/m² or higher. It is important to manage obesity during pregnancy to reduce the risks and ensure the health of both the mother and the unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.3
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and little finger on his left hand. Upon examination, the GP notes thickening of the palm and limited extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to a diagnosis of Dupuytren's contracture. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, epilepsy, heart failure, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most commonly linked to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin treatment may lead to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture as a potential adverse effect.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.2
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of non-melanocytic skin carcinoma, typically found in sun-exposed areas of the skin such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. Symptoms of basal cell carcinomas include a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges, and crusted edges. Pigmentation is not a predominant feature, but bleeding may occur. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden changes in size should be referred to a dermatologist for further assessment and investigation. Diagnosis is confirmed with a biopsy, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. Recurrence is possible, but basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man presents to his Optician for a routine eye check-up. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his Optician for a routine eye check-up. His intraocular pressure (IOP) is 30 mmHg. On examination, fundoscopy reveals cupping of the optic disc. He is referred for assessment with an Ophthalmologist; he is classed as being at high lifetime risk of visual impairment.
      What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Overview of Glaucoma Medications

      Glaucoma is a condition that can lead to vision loss and is often associated with high intraocular pressure (IOP). The first-line treatment recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence is a prostaglandin analogue such as latanoprost. Patients must meet certain criteria to receive this treatment. Brinzolamide and brimonidine are third-line treatments that may be used if a patient cannot tolerate a prostaglandin analogue or beta-blocker. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are used for allergic conjunctivitis and do not help manage ocular hypertension. Timolol is a beta-blocker that may be used if a patient cannot tolerate a prostaglandin analogue, but it is not a first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.

      What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical aciclovir drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 14 - A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient...

    Incorrect

    • A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse

      For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:

      1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.

      2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.

      3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.

      4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.

      5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.

      By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling fatigued all the time. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she complains of having 'stiff joints,' you find no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      Platelets 135 * 109/l
      WBC 3.5 * 109/l
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l
      Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
      TSH 1.30 mu/l
      CRP 8 mg/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased frequency of urination. He reports only urinating once in the past 12 hours and feels unable to urinate despite the urge to do so. The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus managed with metformin and chronic back pain managed with ibuprofen and PPI cover. He has no known allergies. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 7.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120). The patient's previous creatinine level was 119 µmol/L. The general practitioner refers the patient to the emergency department for further investigation. What is the correct classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 1

      Explanation:

      The patient in this vignette meets the criteria for AKI Stage 1, which is characterized by a moderate increase in serum creatinine (1.5-1.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/hr) for at least 6 hours. The patient has risk factors such as age, diabetes mellitus, and NSAID use for back pain, which can contribute to AKI. It is important to note that AKI is a classification and not a diagnosis. AKI Stage 2 is characterized by a more significant increase in serum creatinine (2-2.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output for at least 12 hours. The vignette does not show renal function that is severe enough to meet this classification. AKI Stage 3 is the most severe stage, with a serum creatinine increase of 3 times or more from baseline or reduced urine output for at least 24 hours. Again, the patient’s renal function is not severe enough to meet this classification. There is no AKI Stage 4 or 5. Chronic kidney disease is classified from stages 1-5 based on the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). A patient with CKD Stage 4 would have an eGFR of 15-29 ml/min/1.73m², while a patient with CKD Stage 5 would have end-stage renal disease with an eGFR <15 ml/min/1.73m² or be receiving renal replacement therapy. The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify risk factors such as emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria include a rise in creatinine, fall in urine output, or fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI, with stage 3 indicating the most severe cases. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as AKI with no known cause or inadequate response to treatment. Complications of AKI include CKD, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, and fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for discussion about testing for chromosomal disorders. She has no significant medical history and is concerned about the potential risks to her and her baby. Upon investigation, her b-hCG levels are elevated, PAPP-A levels are decreased, and ultrasound reveals thickened nuchal translucency. The calculated chance of a chromosomal disorder is 1/100. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening testing

      Explanation:

      Women with a higher chance of Down’s syndrome based on combined or quadruple tests are offered further screening or diagnostic tests. In this case, the patient’s chance is 1 in 100, making non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPT) the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling (CVS) are less appropriate due to their invasive nature and higher risks.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) visits her GP seeking medical intervention. Despite implementing recommended lifestyle changes, she has seen minimal relief in her symptoms. She has no immediate plans of starting a family. What treatment option would be appropriate to suggest, provided there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.

      Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.

      Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.

      Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).

      Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer referral pathway by her General Practitioner after presenting with a 2-month history of weight loss and fatigue. Blood tests reveal a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level of 300 μg/l (Normal range: 2.5–5.0 μg/l).
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Cancers and Tumor Markers

      Colorectal Cancer, Hepatocellular Cancer, Lung Cancer, Prostate Cancer, and Testicular Cancer are some of the most common types of cancer. Each type presents with different symptoms and may require different diagnostic tests. Tumor markers, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, alpha-fetoprotein for hepatocellular and testicular cancer, and bombesin for lung cancer, can be used to screen high-risk groups, assess prognosis, detect recurrence, and monitor treatment. Digital rectal examination (DRE) is often used in conjunction with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) as a screening test for prostate cancer. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for patients with cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.

      What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
      Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
      Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
      Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 48 year old man presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 year old man presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain and feeling unwell. He is typically in good health and enjoys long distance running. His medical history includes a previous finger injury from playing cricket and gallstones that have not caused any issues. During examination, his sclera is noted to be icteric. His heart rate is 106 bpm and his blood pressure is 125/85 mmHg. He has a temperature of 38.1ºC. There is significant rebound tenderness and guarding in the right upper quadrant, and his bowel sounds are quiet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The man in this scenario is experiencing Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. These symptoms suggest that he may have ascending cholangitis, which is caused by a bacterial infection in the biliary tree due to obstruction from biliary stasis (likely caused by his gallstones). Treatment involves resuscitation, IV antibiotics, and biliary drainage.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 23 - A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.

      Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.

      Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.

      Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phalen's sign

      Explanation:

      The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a chest infection. He is currently taking amiodarone, warfarin, and simvastatin. Which antibiotic should be avoided, if possible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.

      Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss and vague symptoms. During the examination, the GP detects a suspicious lump on her neck and refers her urgently to ENT. To expedite the process, the GP conducts several investigations and observes a significant elevation in calcitonin levels. Which type of cancer is associated with calcitonin as a tumor marker?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      The presence of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of medullary thyroid cancer, as this type of cancer originates from the parafollicular cells that produce calcitonin. Therefore, calcitonin is considered a tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer.

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.

      Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.

      Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.

      Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.

      In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with a persistent conviction that...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with a persistent conviction that his daughter has been replaced by a stranger for the past 8 months. The patient has a history of dementia due to Alzheimer's disease.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capgras syndrome

      Explanation:

      Capgras syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that their friend or partner has been replaced by an imposter who looks identical to them. Othello syndrome is characterized by an unfounded suspicion that one’s partner is cheating on them. De Clerambault syndrome is a delusional belief that someone of higher social or professional status is in love with the individual. Cotard syndrome is a condition where an individual has a delusional belief that they are dead.

      Understanding Capgras Syndrome

      Capgras syndrome is a condition characterized by a false belief that a loved one has been replaced by an imposter who looks identical to them. This delusion can be distressing for both the person experiencing it and their loved ones. The syndrome is often associated with neurological or psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia, dementia, or traumatic brain injury.

      Individuals with Capgras syndrome may recognize the physical features of their loved ones but believe that they are not the same person they once knew. They may also feel that the imposter is trying to harm them or their loved one. This can lead to feelings of paranoia and fear.

      Treatment for Capgras syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy. Antipsychotic medication may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms of psychosis, while cognitive-behavioral therapy can help individuals challenge their delusions and develop coping strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his local GP clinic complaining of 'tonsillitis' and requesting an antibiotic. Upon examination, he has inflamed tonsils on both sides, a temperature of 37.8ºC, and a pulse rate of 90/min. He is currently taking salbutamol inhaler as needed, Clenil inhaler 2 puffs twice daily, co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets four times a day, and quetiapine 100mg twice daily. The decision is made to prescribe penicillin. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine as agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal side effect, can occur. It is imperative to rule out neutropenia in case of infections.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Vascular Clinic. He has been found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Vascular Clinic. He has been found to have a left internal carotid dissection incidentally while having cross-sectional neck imaging. He is asymptomatic, there are no intracranial or extracranial haematomas and he has not had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack in the past.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Surveillance Options for Carotid Artery Dissection

      Carotid artery dissection is a condition that requires careful management and surveillance to prevent stroke and other complications. The treatment approach depends on various factors, including the cause of the dissection, the location, and the presence of bleeding. Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents is often used to minimize the risk of stroke. Endovascular stenting may be an option for some patients, particularly those who cannot tolerate anticoagulation or have failed medical management.

      Surveillance is also crucial for patients with carotid artery dissection, particularly those who are asymptomatic. Yearly surveillance with carotid ultrasound Doppler is a non-invasive and cost-effective option that can be used for follow-up monitoring. However, it has some limitations, including difficulty scanning the distal-internal carotid artery and detecting emboli. Computed tomography (CT) angiography has high sensitivity in diagnosis and follow-up reviews of carotid-artery dissections, but it has no role in treatment. Magnetic resonance (MR) angiography and MR imaging can also be used for follow-up monitoring and diagnostic purposes, but they are not appropriate for treatment. Overall, a comprehensive approach that considers the individual patient’s needs and circumstances is essential for managing carotid artery dissection effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 31 - An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.

      It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.

      Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
      On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old woman attends a routine cervical smear test and is noted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman attends a routine cervical smear test and is noted to have extensive scarring of her vulva. On further questioning, she reports several visits to the Sexual Health Clinic for recurrent episodes of painful vulval ulceration.
      She has had several attendances at the dentist and General Practitioner with recurrent painful mouth ulcers. She has been referred to a dermatologist to investigate a painful nodular rash which developed on her shins several weeks ago but has since resolved. She was recently discharged from the Eye Clinic following treatment for an acutely painful red eye.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s disease is a rare autoimmune condition that causes painful recurrent mouth and genital ulcers leading to scarring. Diagnosis is often delayed due to the absence of a definitive diagnostic test. This patient has had a rash associated with Behçet’s disease and an episode of acute red eye, which may have been anterior uveitis, another symptom of the condition. Herpes simplex infection, Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, and lichen planus are all conditions that can cause similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the patient’s medical history and physical examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 34 - A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home for the past week and has consistently recorded high readings, with an average of 147/85 mmHg. He is asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic. His current medications include perindopril 10 mg once daily and indapamide 2.5mg once daily. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine should be added according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics may be considered in cases of resistant hypertension. Aldosterone antagonists and alpha-blockers are only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking a combination of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, a calcium-channel blocker, and a thiazide-like diuretic. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors should not be used in combination with angiotensin receptor blockers for hypertension management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 35 - An 82-year-old man is admitted under the medical take with acute chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is admitted under the medical take with acute chest pain. An MRI of the chest with contrast is requested. His blood tests show acute kidney injury (AKI).
      Which of the following would mitigate the risk of worsening AKI when using contrast?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluids before and after a CT scan

      Explanation:

      Preventing Contrast-Induced Nephropathy: Strategies and Considerations

      Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is a common complication of IV contrast administration, particularly in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. CIN is characterized by a decline in renal function within 48-72 hours of contrast exposure. To prevent CIN, strategies that focus on maintaining intravascular volume expansion are crucial.

      Intravenous (IV) saline 0.9% is preferred over 0.45% saline as it enhances intravascular volume expansion and prevents renin-angiotensin activation. Oral fluids are beneficial but not as effective as IV hydration. Volume expansion should begin 6 hours before the procedure and continue for 6-24 hours post-procedure, with post-procedure hydration being more important than pre-procedure hydration.

      Diuretics alone are not recommended, but a recent meta-analysis suggests that furosemide with matched hydration may reduce the incidence of CIN in high-risk patients. Fluid restriction is not recommended, and oral fluids should be encouraged.

      Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients with CIN, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and those undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) supplementation has been associated with a significant decrease in CIN risk and blood creatinine levels, but it does not reduce mortality or the need for dialysis.

      In conclusion, preventing CIN requires a multifaceted approach that includes maintaining intravascular volume expansion, avoiding fluid restriction, and considering NAC supplementation in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 37 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He tells you there is no pain on touching the scalp, or when eating and chewing food.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      He tells you that his uncle died of brain cancer and he is afraid that he may have the same condition.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you see some arterioles narrower than others. There are also venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. There is also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
      His pulse is 80 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 221/119 mmHg. His temperature is 37 °C, while his respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling, which is a typical feature of hypertensive retinopathy. However, other conditions such as giant-cell arteritis, age-related macular degeneration, intracranial space-occupying lesion, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy were also considered.

      Giant-cell arteritis was ruled out due to the absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. Age-related macular degeneration was also unlikely as there were no drusen or choroidal neovascularisation present. While an intracranial space-occupying lesion was a possibility, the lack of accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss made it less likely. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy was also ruled out as there were no new vessels at the disc or elsewhere.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy. It is important to differentiate this condition from other eye conditions to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle for the past 4-5 weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her left sole and swelling in her right toes. Additionally, she has developed low back pain over the last 2 weeks. Upon further inquiry, she mentions having painless oral ulcers that heal on their own. She recently had chlamydial urethritis. Her full blood count, kidney, and liver function tests are all normal, and an autoimmune screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthritic Conditions

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It is characterized by an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, with common symptoms including enthesitis, sacroiliitis, and spondylosis. Patients may also experience mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, and cutaneous features such as circinate balanitis and keratoderma blenorrhagia. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthritic conditions such as disseminated bacterial arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and hypersensitivity vasculitis. Understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

      If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.

      Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 40 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and reduced grip strength for the past 3 weeks. She denies any history of trauma. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the radial styloid and painful resisted abduction of the thumb.
      Which of the following examination findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Finkelstein’s test

      Explanation:

      Common Orthopedic Tests and Their Relevance to De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the first extensor compartment of the wrist, causing inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Several orthopedic tests can help diagnose this condition, including Finkelstein’s test, Tinel’s sign, Froment’s sign, and Phalen’s test. However, the squeeze test is not relevant to the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      Finkelstein’s test involves flexing the thumb across the palm of the hand and moving the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. This action stresses the affected tendons and reproduces pain in a positive test. Tinel’s sign is used to diagnose compressive neuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, by tapping the site of the nerve and causing paraesthesia in the distribution of the nerve in a positive test. Froment’s sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy by assessing the action of the adductor pollicis, while Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome by flexing both wrists fully and pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together for 60 seconds.

      Understanding the relevance of these orthopedic tests can aid in the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 41 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
      What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
      On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes

      Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.

      Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.

      Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.

      Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 44 - A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She is staying with her grandparents, who believe in sweating out a fever and wrap her up well under several blankets on the sofa between them. She suddenly cries out and then has a single grand mal seizure lasting two minutes, during which she is incontinent of urine. A couple of minutes after the episode she is completely well. Examination reveals no focal neurological signs. Development to date has been normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Seizures in Children: A Case Study

      A child presents with a seizure following a fever. The differential diagnosis includes febrile convulsion, myoclonic epilepsy, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, and generalised epilepsy syndrome. However, the absence of intracranial infection and other neurological features suggests that febrile convulsion is the most likely diagnosis. Febrile convulsions are common in children aged 3 months to 5 years and are associated with viral illnesses. They are generalised, last less than 15 minutes, and do not recur within 24 hours. Children with febrile seizures have no increased mortality risk but may have a slightly increased risk of epilepsy in later life. Other possible causes of seizures, such as breath-holding attacks or reflex anoxic seizures, should also be considered. Education on managing fevers and keeping the child comfortable during illnesses should be provided to the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 45 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 46 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 3 ml/min/1.73 m2. He is already undergoing renal replacement therapy. He also presents with worsening anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Anaemia in End-Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with end-stage renal failure, primarily due to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Other causes of anaemia can include folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemic inhibitors, and reduced half-life of circulating blood cells. The prevalence of anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases as eGFR levels decrease, with a prevalence of 12% in CKD patients. Folate deficiency and iron deficiency can also cause anaemia, but in this case, the anaemia is more likely related to poor kidney function. Deficiencies in granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and pyridoxine are less likely causes of anaemia in end-stage renal failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
      During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions

      Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.

      Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.

      Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.

      In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 48 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his first metatarsophalangeal joint. He reports swelling and tenderness of the joint and a sample of fluid is sent for microscopy. He has a medical history of hypertension and duodenal ulcers.
      What is the most suitable initial medication to prescribe?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Managing Gout: Treatment Options and Contraindications

      Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the synovial fluid. Chronic hyperuricemia is the primary cause of this condition. The acute management of gout involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or colchicine as first-line treatment. However, the maximum dose of NSAIDs should be prescribed until 1-2 days after the symptoms have settled, and gastroprotection may also be necessary. Colchicine has a slower onset of action and may cause diarrhea as a side effect. Oral steroids or intra-articular steroid injections may be considered if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated. Allopurinol is not recommended during the acute phase but is useful for preventing recurrent attacks of gout. Diclofenac and indomethacin are contraindicated in patients with duodenal ulcers, and colchicine is a suitable alternative for the treatment of gout. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not useful in the treatment of gout as it does not have anti-inflammatory or analgesic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 49 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports experiencing pain with eye movement and a decrease in colour vision. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed in her left eye, and visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the left eye.

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      A central scotoma is a common feature of optic neuritis, along with visual loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia (change in colour perception). Other classic signs on examination include a relative afferent pupillary defect. Unlike open-angle glaucoma, which typically causes painless, gradual loss of peripheral vision, optic neuritis often affects the central vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, causes sudden, painless loss of vision and is more common in people over 50. Optic nerve glioma, which is rare after age 20 and may be associated with neurofibromatosis, can cause visual defects and headaches but is not typically associated with eye movement pain or colour desaturation.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 50 - You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to an adult psychiatric ward.

      Upon asking him how he is feeling, his speech seems to be rapid and difficult to interrupt. It is challenging to follow his train of thought, although the content of each sentence appears to be loosely connected. He talks about having money, but says, I've got cash, dash for cash, dash of alcohol, thank you very much.

      It is suspected that he has a formal thought disorder.

      What is the best way to describe his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 51 - Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific antibodies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 52 - A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain. He reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in his left eye. Upon examination, his left eye is red and his pupil appears normal. What is the most suitable investigation to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Techniques for Corneal Ulcers

      Corneal ulcers can cause severe eye pain, photophobia, and watery eyes. Early diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One diagnostic technique is the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam, where an orange dye is applied to the ocular surface and observed under a blue light. If the dye is taken up by the corneal epithelium, it fluoresces green/yellow, indicating corneal ulceration.

      Tonometry is another diagnostic technique used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not appropriate for corneal ulcers. Computed tomography (CT) head scans are also not useful as they do not show soft-tissue abnormalities in the corneas.

      Orbital magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to look for vascular lesions in the orbit, optic-nerve-sheath meningioma, optic-nerve neuritis, optic-nerve glioma, and orbital abscess. Retinoscopy, on the other hand, is used to measure refractive error and is not appropriate for diagnosing corneal ulcers.

      In summary, the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam is a valuable diagnostic technique for corneal ulcers, while other techniques such as tonometry, CT head scans, and retinoscopy are not appropriate. Orbital MRI may be useful in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 53 - A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:

      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l

      What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 54 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.

      However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 55 - A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.

      What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.

      The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 56 - A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His symptoms improved with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) but returned after discontinuing the medication. He tested positive for Helicobacter pylori, but his symptoms returned after receiving eradication therapy. He now has unexplained iron deficiency anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for endoscopy under the 2-week wait pathway

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with ‘Red Flag’ Symptoms: Urgent Referral for Endoscopy

      When managing a patient aged over 55 years with ‘red flag’ symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, it is crucial to refer them for an urgent endoscopy to exclude serious pathology such as malignancy. In such cases, it would be inappropriate to manage the patient with medication alone, even if a previous trial of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) provided effective symptom relief. While dietary and lifestyle advice could be provided, it would not be an appropriate management strategy as a single intervention. Additionally, retesting for H. pylori would not be necessary as adequate triple therapy for H. pylori eradication has reported high cure rates. The priority in managing such patients is to refer them for urgent endoscopy to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 57 - A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 59 - A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.

      Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.

      The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.

      Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 60 - A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has a history of hypertension and occasional headaches. During screening tests, her serum creatinine level is found to be elevated at 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and her haemoglobin level is low at 110 g/l (reference range 120–155 g/l). An X-ray of her chest shows a mass in her lung, and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      What is the most likely cause of her impaired renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Disorders: Amyloidosis, Metformin Toxicity, Diabetic Nephropathy, Membranous Glomerulonephritis, and Urinary Tract Infection

      Renal disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and can be caused by various factors. Here are five common renal disorders and their characteristics:

      1. Amyloidosis: This disorder is caused by the deposition of abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Nearly 90% of the deposits consist of amyloid fibrils that are formed by the aggregation of misfolded proteins. In light chain amyloidosis (AL), the precursor protein is a clonal immunoglobulin light chain or light chain fragment. Treatment usually mirrors the management of multiple myeloma.

      2. Metformin Toxicity: Metformin is a widely used antidiabetic agent that holds the risk of developing a potentially lethal acidosis. Its accumulation is feasible in renal failure and acute overdosage. Toxic accumulation of the drug requires time after the development of renal failure, due to high clearance of metformin.

      3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This clinical syndrome is characterised by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Despite it being the most common cause of incident chronic renal failure, one should be wary about diagnosing diabetic nephropathy in the absence of proliferative retinopathy and proteinuria.

      4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Some patients may present with asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Proteinuria is usually >3.5 g/24 h.

      5. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Causes of UTIs in men include prostatitis, epididymitis, orchitis, pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, and urinary catheters. Dysuria is the most frequent complaint in men, and the combination of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency is about 75% predictive for UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 61 - A 54 year old woman presents to the General Practice clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old woman presents to the General Practice clinic with complaints of increasing dyspepsia, dysphagia, and fatigue. She reports a prolonged history of dark brown stools, but denies any recent episodes of fresh blood. She has not experienced any unexplained weight loss and underwent surgery for a peptic ulcer a decade ago. Upon investigation, she is found to have H. pylori. What should be the subsequent course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 week referral to endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in the outer aspect of the left elbow. This pain has been going on for a few months and she occasionally feels the pain in the outer aspect of the left forearm as well.
      She is otherwise healthy and physically active. She mentions that she enjoys rock climbing and often participates in climbing competitions.
      Which one of the following findings on examination would necessitate a referral to an orthopaedic surgeon for further evaluation?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that affects the tendons of the forearm extensor muscles. It is often caused by repetitive activities such as typing, playing tennis, or manual work. While it is a self-limiting condition, it can cause significant pain and functional impairment.

      Symptoms of lateral epicondylitis include tenderness on palpation of the bony prominence of the lateral epicondyle, reduced grip strength, and pain on resisted middle finger extension and wrist extension. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and management can be initiated at primary care.

      If a patient presents with loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand, it may be an indication to refer them to an orthopaedic surgeon to rule out differential diagnoses. However, normal sensation is a common finding in lateral epicondylitis.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is important for proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 63 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans to conceive within the next 6 months. She has never been pregnant before and has a medical history of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently taking insulin and has no known drug allergies. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no family history of neural tube defects, and her partner has no history of neural tube defects. What is the recommended folic acid dosage for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day from now to 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      If a woman has Type 1 diabetes mellitus, she is at a high risk of having a baby with neural tube defects. To prevent this, she should take 5mg of folic acid daily for three months before getting pregnant until the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. Any other dosage or duration of the regime would be incorrect for her.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 64 - A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit for the management of hypercalcaemia. He is currently taking slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd to control his pain along with regular naproxen and paracetamol. While in the hospital, he reports experiencing pain in his right arm where a skeletal metastasis is present. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe for his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral morphine solution 30mg

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 65 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth...

    Incorrect

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 66 - A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 67 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.

      Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.

      To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.

      Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation

      Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.

      Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.

      To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 68 - A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting a family. She and her partner are eager to conceive and she has been taking folic acid for the past four weeks. The patient has no other medical history and is currently taking methotrexate, paracetamol, ibuprofen, and lansoprazole. She is aware that her sister had to stop some of her rheumatoid arthritis medications before getting pregnant and wants to know if she needs to do the same.

      What is the appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate at least six months before conception

      Explanation:

      When it comes to methotrexate, it is important to discontinue the drug at least six months before attempting to conceive, regardless of gender. This is because methotrexate can potentially harm sperm in males and cause early abortion in females. By allowing for a full wash-out period, the risk of DNA changes in both gametes can be minimized. While some studies suggest that paternal exposure to methotrexate within 90 days before pregnancy may not lead to congenital malformations, stillbirths, or preterm births, current guidelines recommend avoiding the drug for six months to ensure proper folic acid repletion. Therefore, options suggesting stopping methotrexate for only one or three months before conception are incorrect.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 69 - During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman....

    Incorrect

    • During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman. Her vision is not affected. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Both corneal opacities and optic neuritis can be caused by amiodarone therapy.

      There are certain drugs that can cause problems with the eyes. For example, steroids can lead to the development of cataracts, while amiodarone and indomethacin can cause corneal opacities. Ethambutol, amiodarone, and metronidazole are known to cause optic neuritis. Additionally, chloroquine and quinine can result in retinopathy. It’s important to note that sildenafil, a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, can cause both blue discoloration and non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy. It’s crucial to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any ocular problems arise while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 70 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating to her groin. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. You suspect a possible ureteric stone.
      What is the most suitable imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non contrast abdominopelvic/kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Nephrolithiasis Diagnosis

      Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, can be diagnosed through various imaging modalities. Non-contrast abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) scans are the preferred imaging modality due to their high sensitivity and specificity. Contrast scans are not recommended for initial assessment as they can obscure calcific densities. CT scans can also reveal other pathologies. Seriated X-rays, specifically KUB X-rays, can be used in conjunction with CT scans for follow-up of stone patients. Intravenous urography, while widely available and inexpensive, is less sensitive than CT scans and requires IV contrast material and multiple delayed films. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not recommended for acute renal colic evaluation as it is more expensive and less effective in stone detection. Renal ultrasonography is mainly used in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB X-ray for determining hydronephrosis or ureteral dilatation associated with a urinary tract calculus, but is less accurate in diagnosing ureteral stones and not reliable for stones smaller than 5 mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 71 - You are asked to review an 80-year-old woman in the clinic who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review an 80-year-old woman in the clinic who has been referred by her GP due to weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. On examination, the GP notes a palpable left supraclavicular node and an epigastric mass, but no jaundice. There is microcytic anaemia, with normal liver enzymes. Her past history includes excess consumption of alcohol and a 30-pack-year smoking history.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastric carcinoma is the most common type of gastric malignancy, with adenocarcinoma accounting for 90-95% of cases. Risk factors include smoking and excessive alcohol consumption. Early gastric cancer may not present with any symptoms, while advanced disease may cause indigestion, anorexia, weight loss, early postprandial fullness, and a palpable enlarged stomach with succussion splash. Troisier’s sign, the presence of a hard and enlarged left-sided supraclavicular lymph node, suggests metastatic abdominal malignancy.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) presents with a pulsatile epigastric mass, but not an enlarged supraclavicular node. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless there is an aneurysm leak, which causes abdominal and/or back pain and rapid deterioration.

      Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignant tumor of the bile duct, typically presents with jaundice, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Normal liver function tests make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Benign gastric ulcers cause epigastric pain, usually a burning sensation postprandially. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, anorexia, and lymphadenopathy, suggest malignant pathology.

      Crohn’s disease, a chronic inflammatory bowel disease, can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Gastroduodenal Crohn’s disease presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, dyspepsia, nausea, and vomiting. However, the examination findings in this patient make a malignant diagnosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 72 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 73 - Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following is eligible for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-smoker with PaO2 of 7.8kPa with secondary polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Oxygen Therapy in Patients with Respiratory Conditions

      When assessing the need for oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory conditions, it is important to consider various factors. For instance, NICE recommends LTOT for patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8.0 kPa when stable, if they have comorbidities such as secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension. Additionally, patients with very severe or severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, raised jugular venous pressure, and oxygen saturations ≤92% when breathing air should also be assessed for oxygen therapy.

      However, it is important to note that a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa with pulmonary hypertension does not meet the criteria for oxygen therapy, while a non-smoker with FEV1 56% or a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 7.6 kPa and diabetes mellitus also do not meet the criteria for LTOT. On the other hand, a smoker with a PaO2 of 7.3 kPa may be considered for oxygen therapy, but it is important to ensure that the result has been checked twice and to warn the patient about the risks of smoking while on oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 74 - A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease visits his primary care physician complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease visits his primary care physician complaining of discomfort in the area around his anus. He mentions the presence of malodorous pus when he cleans himself. During the examination, a draining opening is observed on his perineum. A digital rectal exam confirms the diagnosis of a perianal fistula. What imaging modality is the best option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI pelvis

      Explanation:

      When investigating suspected perianal fistulae in patients with Crohn’s disease, MRI is the preferred imaging modality. This is because an MRI can accurately map out the extent and track of the fistula, as well as identify any associated abscesses or other fistulas. As perianal fistulas are a soft tissue pathology, an MRI pelvis is the most effective way to visualize them. Barium enema is not reliable for imaging small structures like fistulas, while CT pelvis may potentially identify fistulas but is less sensitive and accurate than MRI. Endo-anal ultrasound may be used for some perianal fistulas, but given the likelihood of complex fistulas in Crohn’s disease, MRI is the preferred option. Additionally, MRI is preferable in adults of reproductive age to avoid unnecessary radiation exposure to the reproductive organs.

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 75 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.

      Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 76 - A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
      Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
      Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 77 - A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the labour suite at 40+6 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the labour suite at 40+6 weeks gestation. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal delivery throughout her pregnancy. On cervical examination, the cervix is found to be in an intermediate position with a firm consistency. Cervical effacement is estimated to be around 30%, and the cervical dilatation is less than 1cm. The fetal head is palpable at the level of the ischial spines, and her bishop score is 3/10. The midwife has already performed a membrane sweep. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Vaginal PGE2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, with other options such as emergency caesarean section, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon being considered only in certain situations. Women undergoing vaginal PGE2 should be aware of the risk of uterine hyperstimulation and may require additional analgesia. The cervix should be reassessed before considering oxytocin infusion. Amniotomy may be used in combination with oxytocin infusion in patients with a ripe cervix. Cervical ripening balloon should not be used as the primary method for induction of labour due to its potential pain, bleeding, and infection risks.

      Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications

      Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.

      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 79 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 80 - A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He denies any associated eye pain or headaches and is otherwise feeling well. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, the patient has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil shows poor response to light, but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: A Rare Cause of Sudden Vision Loss

      Central retinal artery occlusion is a rare condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. It is typically caused by a blood clot or inflammation in the artery that supplies blood to the retina. This can be due to atherosclerosis or arteritis, such as temporal arteritis. Symptoms may include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina. Unfortunately, the prognosis for this condition is poor, and management can be difficult. Treatment may involve identifying and addressing any underlying conditions, such as intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis. In some cases, intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted, but the results of this treatment are mixed. Overall, central retinal artery occlusion is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a tick. She explains that the tick was removed by her husband using tweezers and is worried about the potential for Lyme disease. She reports no symptoms such as rash, headache, fever, lethargy, or joint pain. Her vital signs are normal and a full physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Re-assure the patient and provide safety netting advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has been bitten by a tick but shows no signs of Lyme disease, such as erythema migrans or systemic malaise, prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. According to NICE guidelines, asymptomatic patients with tick bites do not require ELISA investigation or antibiotic treatment. Referral to secondary care is also unnecessary in this case. The best course of action is to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them to be aware of potential symptoms of Lyme disease.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 82 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: Ménière’s Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Ménière’s disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests Ménière’s disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 83 - A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is the most probable adverse effect he may encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, often leads to weight gain as a prevalent negative outcome.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 84 - A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were part of a routine health screening conducted three days ago. He is currently on day five of antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated by one of your colleagues. Apart from this recent infection, he has no medical history and no new symptoms to report. His renal function is normal, and the rest of his blood tests are as follows:
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 540 * 109/l
      - WBC: 13 * 109/l
      - MCV: 76 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 330 * 109/l
      All values were normal one year ago. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      This man is suffering from microcytic anemia, which is typically caused by a lack of iron. It is important to note that he was unwell when his blood was taken, as inflammation can cause ferritin levels to rise and potentially mask true iron deficiency. Therefore, additional iron studies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. While thalassemia can also lead to microcytic anemia, his previous blood test showed no abnormalities.

      Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.

      In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 85 - A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the clinic. He is on a medication regimen that includes metformin, aspirin, simvastatin, and pioglitazone. What is the most probable issue that can be caused by pioglitazone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral oedema

      Explanation:

      Fluid retention may be caused by pioglitazone.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which reduces insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is naturally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the differentiation and function of adipocytes (fat cells).

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have adverse effects. Patients may experience weight gain, liver impairment (which requires monitoring of liver function tests), and fluid retention. Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to the increased risk of fluid retention, especially if the patient is also taking insulin. Recent studies have also shown an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in patients taking pioglitazone, another medication in this class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of lower abdominal pain, pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of lower abdominal pain, pain during sexual intercourse, and an abnormal vaginal discharge. A vaginal swab reveals a positive chlamydia infection. She has no known allergies and is generally healthy. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7-day course of doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chlamydia Infections

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be effectively treated with antibiotics. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidance on the appropriate antimicrobial prescribing for chlamydia infections.

      The first-line treatment for chlamydia is a 7-day course of doxycycline. This medication is highly effective against Chlamydia trachomatis and is well-tolerated by most patients. If doxycycline cannot be used, such as in cases of pregnancy or allergy, a 7-day course of azithromycin can be given as a second-line option.

      It is important for patients to complete their full course of antibiotics and to avoid sexual intercourse until treatment is complete. If the treatment is completed, there is no need for a test of cure to be carried out.

      Other antibiotics, such as oral penicillin and cefalexin, are not effective against chlamydia infections. A one-off dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections, but it is not indicated for the treatment of chlamydia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 87 - A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the past 3 weeks, the girl has been experiencing discomfort while passing urine. She has a history of 3 previous urinary tract infections. During external examination, you notice thin semitranslucent adhesions that cover the vaginal opening between the labia minora but not the urethra opening. You prescribe a course of trimethoprim. What other treatment options would you consider initiating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Labial adhesions are typically caused by low levels of estrogen and are usually treated conservatively as they often resolve during puberty. However, if there are recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen creams may be considered as a treatment option. The use of trimethoprim pessary, IV dexamethasone, and oral prednisolone are not appropriate treatments for labial adhesions. It is important to address the adhesion as leaving it untreated can lead to complications.

      Labial Adhesions: A Common Condition in Young Girls

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is typically appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can be managed conservatively. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 88 - A 65 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a great-grandfather. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a great-grandfather. He is curious about the likelihood of his great-grandson inheriting haemophilia. His granddaughter's partner is healthy and has no medical history.

      What is the probability of his great-grandson having haemophilia A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 90 - A 35-year-old male presents with inner elbow and forearm pain that started after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents with inner elbow and forearm pain that started after building a bookcase at home three days ago. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. During the examination, you notice tenderness in the medial elbow joint and the patient reports discomfort when resisting wrist pronation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Golfer's elbow

      Explanation:

      Epicondylitis results from repetitive stress that leads to inflammation of the common extensor tendon located at the epicondyle. Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, causes tenderness at the medial epicondyle and results in wrist pain on resisted pronation. Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, causes tenderness at the lateral epicondyle and results in elbow pain on resisted extension of the wrist.

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 91 - A 68-year-old man presents with malaise, anorexia and pain in his shoulders and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with malaise, anorexia and pain in his shoulders and hips over the last 3 months. Examination is unremarkable, except for a mildly painful limitation of his hips and shoulders. His muscles are tender, but not weak. Blood tests reveal a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 60 mm/h (normal <20 mm/h).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Joint and Muscle Pain: A Case Study

      A 75-year-old male patient presents with pain and stiffness in the joints and muscles around the pelvic and shoulder girdles, lasting for longer than 45 minutes in the morning. He also reports constitutional symptoms of malaise, fatigue, anorexia, and sometimes depression. Based on this presentation, the following differential diagnoses can be considered:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR)
      PMR is a rare condition that is most often diagnosed in those over 70 years old and is more common in women than men. Patients with PMR present with pain and stiffness in the joints and muscles around the pelvic and shoulder girdles, along with constitutional symptoms. Diagnosis is made based on the history, and blood tests often show a raised ESR and CRP. Treatment is with prednisolone, and rapid response to corticosteroid treatment is a very good indicator of a diagnosis of PMR.

      Osteoarthritis
      Although osteoarthritis may present with painful hip joints, it is less common in the shoulder. Furthermore, constitutional symptoms, such as malaise and anorexia, are not seen in osteoarthritis. Examination findings in osteoarthritis usually reveal limited range of movement, crepitus, and possible joint instability, and there is unlikely to be any associated muscle tenderness. ESR, a marker of inflammation, is not seen in osteoarthritis.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
      SLE is an autoimmune condition that is most common in women of childbearing age and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. While arthritis is one of the symptoms of SLE and there may be a raised ESR, alongside constitutional symptoms, the presentation in this patient, especially given his age and sex, suggests an alternative diagnosis to SLE initially. SLE may present with other symptoms as well, such as the characteristic butterfly rash, which is present in 30–60% of patients.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
      The onset of RA is generally in the middle-aged, and women are affected 2.5 times more than men. Although the ESR may be raised and the patient may feel generally unwell, the history given here is not typical of RA. The joints most typically affected by RA are the small joints of the hands and feet and the cervical spine.

      Gout
      Gout presents as a mono

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 92 - A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of vomiting that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of vomiting that has been ongoing for the past day. She reports feeling nauseous at present, with her last episode of vomiting occurring just 5 minutes ago. She mentions attending a barbecue the day before and is concerned that the sausages she ate may not have been cooked thoroughly. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and is currently taking oral hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.

      What advice would be most appropriate to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take IM hydrocortisone until her vomiting stops

      Explanation:

      If a person with Addison’s disease experiences vomiting, they should take IM hydrocortisone until the vomiting stops. This is especially important if the vomiting is caused by food poisoning from undercooked meat. IM hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid steroid hormone that is used to manage Addison’s disease and prevent an Addisonian crisis. It is important to note that doubling the fludrocortisone dose or pausing hydrocortisone is not the correct approach in this situation. The patient requires extra hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis, not extra fludrocortisone. While drinking plenty of fluids is generally good advice for someone who is vomiting, it is not sufficient for a person with Addison’s disease in this situation.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 93 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 94 - A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 95 - A 35-year-old woman presents for review at her local general practice surgery. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for review at her local general practice surgery. She has noticed a number of patches of pale skin on her hands over the past few weeks. The patient has tried using emollients and topical clotrimazole with no result.
      On examination, a number of depigmented patches on the dorsum of both hands are noted. Her past medical history includes thyrotoxicosis for which she takes carbimazole and thyroxine.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is most appropriate before starting treatment?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitiligo: Diagnosis and Testing

      Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition that causes depigmentation of the skin due to the loss of melanocytes. It is usually diagnosed based on clinical features, such as well-demarcated patches of depigmented skin. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for vitiligo, a punch biopsy may be used to obtain a skin sample for histological analysis in cases of suspected skin cancer or inflammatory skin disease. However, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo.

      It is important to note that vitiligo is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions, such as type I diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While it can affect individuals of any age, it often arises before the age of 20 years and is equally prevalent in men and women. Itching and other symptoms are rare, and the changes may be more noticeable in individuals with light skin during the summer months.

      In contrast, a radioallergosorbent test (RAST) is unsuitable for diagnosing vitiligo as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for diagnosing food allergies, inhaled allergens, and venom allergies. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, such as when the patient is taking antihistamines or has extensive eczema.

      In summary, vitiligo is a clinical diagnosis that does not require further testing. While a punch biopsy may be used in certain cases, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo. It is important to be aware of the potential association with other autoimmune conditions and to monitor for any changes in skin pigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, her pulse is 90 / min, temperature is 38.2ºC, and she experiences diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels tender on vaginal examination, but her breasts appear normal. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia

      Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.

      If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
      What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy

      When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.

      Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.

      Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 98 - A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried about his bedwetting habit. Unlike his older sibling who stopped bedwetting at the age of 4, this child still wets the bed at night. The mother is seeking advice on possible treatment options. What is the best course of action to manage this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour

      Explanation:

      Reassurance and advice are sufficient for managing nocturnal enuresis in children under 5 years of age. It is important to reassure mothers that bedwetting is still common at the age of 4.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 99 - Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital due to a relapse of his schizophrenia. He has been detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act for 2 weeks after refusing to take his medication.

      The consultant psychiatrist suggests starting Liam on risperidone, but during the team meeting, Liam was informed of the potential risks and benefits of the medication and decided he does not want to take it. The team believes that Liam has the capacity to make this decision, but they also feel that he needs treatment with an antipsychotic to reduce the risk to himself and others.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rosie can be treated against her will under section 3, even if she has capacity

      Explanation:

      If a patient is under section 2 or 3, treatment can be administered even if they refuse it. Patients who are detained under section 3 can be treated against their will, regardless of their capacity. However, after three months, if the patient still refuses treatment, an impartial psychiatrist must review the proposed medication and agree with the treating team’s plan. The Mental Health Act takes precedence over the Mental Capacity Act, so a best interests meeting is not necessary. The treating team must consider the patient’s best interests, and in this case, they believe that medication is necessary for Rosie’s mental health. While benzodiazepines can alleviate agitation and distress, they are unlikely to improve her psychotic symptoms, so they are not a suitable option. If Rosie continues to refuse treatment after three months under section 3, a second opinion will be required.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He waited until his children had gone to school and his wife had left for work before taking 100 tablets. He did not drink any alcohol and rarely has any. He had taken annual leave from the steady job in a factory and had left a note. His wife had forgotten something so returned from work earlier than usual and found him semi-conscious.

      After treatment for his physical health he tells you that he does not regret the attempt but feels bad that he has put his children through enough seeing him in hospital. He is not religious. His wife is not very supportive of him and thinks he is 'attention-seeking'. He has no other family or friends locally. He has struggled with symptoms of depression for a number of months and has never sought help, but otherwise is physically well.

      During your assessment, you want to ascertain any protective factors.

      Which of the following is a protective factor in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She has children at home

      Explanation:

      Completed suicide can be prevented by certain protective factors such as having social support, religious beliefs, having children at home, and regretting a previous attempt. It is important to note that the duration of mental illness is not a determining factor, but having a mental illness, especially depression, increases the risk. Alcohol misuse is also a risk factor, but in this scenario, the fact that the person does not drink much alcohol is not particularly protective. The individual in the scenario lacks social support and is not religious, making those options incorrect. However, having children present at home is a protective factor.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/2) 0%
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