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  • Question 1 - You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is...

    Correct

    • You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
      10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?

      Your Answer: Ampullary tubal

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby. Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      206.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Correct Answer: Ladd's bands

      Explanation:

      Ladd’s bands are the most common form of peritoneal bands in malrotation of the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 3

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      6 and 11 are considered low risk and are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (can correspond cytologically to CIN 1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      117.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as...

    Correct

    • A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from anearby hospital. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Atonic uterus

      Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma

      Explanation:

      A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation? ...

    Correct

    • A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Foetal movements often become apparent at about 18-20 weeks gestation. This phenomenon is also called quickening. The Foetal movements continue to increase in frequency and force until 32 weeks where they plateau. Foetal movements can be used to monitor the wellbeing of the foetus, alerting the mother and healthcare providers to a problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina. Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode. Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate

      Correct Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20 year old patient attends clinic for a medical abortion at 12...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old patient attends clinic for a medical abortion at 12 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies and her STI screen was negative. What drug should she be prescribed as antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: No antibiotics required if STI screen negative

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 1g PR stat dose

      Explanation:

      According to the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology guidelines for abortion care it advises dual antibiotic regimes for antibiotic prophylaxis.
      Metronidazole 1g per rectum or 800 mg orally can be given before or at the time of the abortion in women who have tested negative for Chlamydia trachomatis infection.

      Alternatively, Doxycycline (100mg oral, twice daily for 7 days) or Azithromycin 1g stat doses should be given in addition to metronidazole to be effective against Chlamydia trachomatis anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation. This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Plasminogen Activation

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug which is one of the treatment options in menorrhagia i.e. heavy menstrual bleeding. It acts by binding to the receptor sites on plasminogen thus preventing plasmin from attaching to those receptors thus inhibiting plasminogen activation.

      If pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate NICE advise treatments should be considered in the following order:

      1. levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) provided at least 12 months use is anticipated
      2. tranexamic acid or NSAIDs* or combined oral contraceptives (COCs) or cyclical oral progestogens
      3. Consider progesterone only contraception e.g. injected long-acting progestogens

      *When heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) coexists with dysmenorrhoea NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid. Also note NSAIDs and tranexamic are appropriate to use if treatment needed pending investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm. Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer: lmplanon®.

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making...

    Correct

    • Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making a Joel Cohen incision where should this be placed?

      Your Answer: 3 cm above the symphysis pubis

      Explanation:

      The Joel Cohen incision is superior to the Pffannenstiel incision. It is a straight incision that is 3 cm below the line joining the anterior iliac spines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the pelvic floor?

      Your Answer: Levator ani

      Explanation:

      Levator ani muscle is composed of three different muscles i.e. iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus and the puborectalis muscle. It is the main muscle that supports the organs of the pelvic cavity.
      Bulbocavernosus and Ischiocavernosus muscles are located in-between the anus and scrotum and play an important role in sexual response in males.
      Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles are located in the perinium and pass in front of the anus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a...

    Correct

    • The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity

      Explanation:

      At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
      Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
      Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
      Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
      Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      93.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the typical weight of a term uterus? ...

    Correct

    • What is the typical weight of a term uterus?

      Your Answer: 1200g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mitotic Nondisjunction after conception

      Correct Answer: Nondisjunction maternal gamete

      Explanation:

      Most of the cases of down syndrome occur due to non disjunction trisomy 21 which is associated with increased maternal age. The non disjunction occurs in the maternal gametes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night. What would be the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Take Postinor® (750µg levonorgestrel) now, and in 12 hours’ time, then resume the original contraceptive pill.

      Correct Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.

      Explanation:

      Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies. A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules. Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Axillary node dissection

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      70.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?

      Your Answer: It is mainly secreted as E3 by the ovaries

      Correct Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?...

    Correct

    • The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?

      Your Answer: Internal Iliac

      Explanation:

      The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline? ...

    Correct

    • What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 7mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline is 7mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min. On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer: A Caesarean section.

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.

      Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.

      Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.

      Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

      Your Answer: < 5 mm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
      Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
      Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      7.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (4/6) 67%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (1/5) 20%
Clinical Management (3/4) 75%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Biophysics (0/1) 0%
Passmed