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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This condition leads to the selective degeneration of motor neurons, leading to progressive muscle weakness and spasticity.
Understanding the development of motor neurons (MN) is crucial in the hope of using embryonic stem cells to cure ALS. What is true about the process of MN development?Your Answer: Motor neuron development occurs in week 4 of development
Correct Answer: Motor neurons develop from the basal plates
Explanation:The development of sensory and motor neurons is determined by the alar and basal plates, respectively.
Transcription factor expression in motor neurons is regulated by SHH signalling, which plays a crucial role in their development.
Hox genes are essential for the proper positioning of motor neurons along the cranio-caudal axis.
Motor neurons originate from the basal plates.
Interestingly, retinoic acid appears to facilitate the differentiation of motor neurons.
It is not possible for motor neurons to develop during week 4 of development, as the neural tube is still in the process of closing.
Embryonic Development of the Nervous System
The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.
The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What are the true statements about the musculocutaneous nerve, except for those that are false?
Your Answer: It supplies the biceps muscle
Correct Answer: If damaged, then extension of the elbow joint will be impaired
Explanation:The muscles supplied by it include the biceps, brachialis, and coracobrachialis. If it is injured, the ability to flex the elbow may be affected.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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At which of the following anatomical locations does the common peroneal nerve bifurcate into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves?
Your Answer: At the inferomedial aspect of the popliteal fossa
Correct Answer: At the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula
Explanation:The point where the common peroneal nerve is most susceptible to injury is at the neck of the fibula, where it divides into two branches.
The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of typical cerebrospinal fluid?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: It may normally contain up to 5 red blood cells per mm3.
Explanation:It must not include red blood cells.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 73-year-old male visits the GP following a recent fall. He reports experiencing decreased sensation in his penis. During the clinical examination, you observe reduced sensation in his scrotum and the inner part of his buttocks. You suspect that the fall may have resulted in a sacral spinal cord injury.
What dermatomes are responsible for the loss of sensation in this case?Your Answer: S2, S3
Explanation:The patient is experiencing sensory loss in their genitalia due to damage to the S2 and S3 nerve roots, which has resulted in the loss of the corresponding dermatomes. The T4 and T5 dermatomes are located in the upper extremities, while the C3 and C4 dermatomes are also in the upper extremities. If the S1 nerve root were damaged, it would cause sensory loss in the lateral foot and small toe due to the loss of the S1 dermatome.
Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.
Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Mrs. Johnson presents to her GP with pain in her left eye and a strange feeling that something is bothering her eye. After a corneal reflex test, it is observed that the corneal reflex on the left is impaired, specifically due to a lesion affecting the nerve serving as the afferent limb of the pathway.
What is the name of the nerve that serves as the afferent limb of the corneal pathway, detecting stimuli?Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The corneal reflex pathway involves the detection of stimuli by the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve, which then travels to the trigeminal ganglion. The brainstem, specifically the trigeminal nucleus, detects this signal and sends signals to both the left and right facial nerve. This causes the orbicularis oculi muscle to contract, resulting in a bilateral blink. The oculomotor nerve, on the other hand, innervates the extraocular muscles responsible for eye movement and does not provide any sensory function.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old individual presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a gradual decline in visual acuity, difficulty seeing at night, and occasional floaters. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposits are observed in the macular region, along with demarcated red patches indicating fluid leakage and bleeding. The patient has no significant medical history. The ophthalmologist recommends a treatment that directly inhibits vascular endothelial growth factors. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Zinc supplementation
Correct Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and is used as a first-line treatment for the neovascular or exudative form of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). This form of AMD is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal blood vessels in the eye that leak blood and protein below the macula, causing damage to the photoreceptors. Bevacizumab blocks VEGF, which stimulates the growth of these abnormal vessels.
Fluocinolone is a corticosteroid that is used as an anti-inflammatory via intraocular injection in some eye conditions, but it does not affect VEGF. Laser photocoagulation is used to cauterize ocular blood vessels in several eye conditions, but it also does not affect VEGF. Verteporfin is a medication used as a photosensitizer prior to photodynamic therapy, which can be used in eye conditions with ocular vessel proliferation, but it is not an anti-VEGF drug.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient experiencing a loss of taste in the front two-thirds of their tongue may have incurred damage to which nerve?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The anterior 2/3 of the tongue receives taste sensation from the facial nerve, while general sensation, which pertains to touch, is provided by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for providing both taste and general sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old man is brought to the ED by his spouse, who suspects he had a stroke. The man is exhibiting signs of slurred speech and disorientation to time and space, but there is no limb weakness.
According to collateral history, the man has a history of epilepsy, although he has not had a seizure in several months. He does not smoke and did not consume any alcohol or drugs before coming to the ED. A CT scan is normal, and a focal seizure is suspected as the cause of his symptoms.
Which part of the brain is likely affected?Your Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:Localising features of a temporal lobe seizure include postictal dysphasia and lip smacking.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She reports that he woke up with numbness in his left arm and leg. During your examination, you observe nystagmus and suspect that he may have lateral medullary syndrome. What other feature is most likely to be present on his examination?
Your Answer: Ipsilateral facial paralysis
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral dysphagia
Explanation:Lateral medullary syndrome can lead to difficulty swallowing on the same side as the lesion, along with limb sensory loss and nystagmus. This condition is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. However, it does not typically cause ipsilateral deafness or CN III palsy, which are associated with other types of brain lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia are also not typically seen in lateral medullary syndrome. Ipsilateral facial paralysis can occur in lateral pontine syndrome, but not in lateral medullary syndrome.
Understanding Lateral Medullary Syndrome
Lateral medullary syndrome, also referred to as Wallenberg’s syndrome, is a condition that arises when the posterior inferior cerebellar artery becomes blocked. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect both the cerebellum and brainstem. Cerebellar features of the syndrome include ataxia and nystagmus, while brainstem features include dysphagia, facial numbness, and cranial nerve palsy such as Horner’s. Additionally, patients may experience contralateral limb sensory loss. Understanding the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in his hands and feet since this morning. He had visited for gastroenteritis 3 weeks ago. On examination, he has a bilateral reduction in power of 3/5 in his upper and lower limbs. His speech is normal, and he has no other medical conditions. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, leading to demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection and presents with rapidly advancing ascending motor neuropathy. Proximal muscles are more affected than distal muscles.
A stroke or transient ischaemic attack usually has a sudden onset and causes unilateral symptoms such as facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech.
Raynaud’s disease causes numbness and pain in the fingers and toes, typically in response to cold weather or stress.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visited his doctor with complaints of weakness in both legs that have been present for the past two months. Initially, he attributed it to his age, but he feels that it is getting worse. The man has difficulty standing up from a seated position, but his arms and shoulders feel fine. He also noticed that the weakness improves slightly when he keeps walking. The patient denies any eye-related symptoms or drooping of the eyelids. According to the patient's wife, he has lost a lot of weight recently despite not dieting or engaging in physical activity. The patient confirms this but says that he feels fine except for a dry cough that has been persistent. The patient has a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and a smoking history of 40 pack-years. During the examination, the doctor observed slightly decreased air entry on the right side. What is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Toxin-mediated inhibition of acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
Correct Answer: Antibodies directed towards presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms, the two most likely diagnoses are polymyositis and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS), both of which involve weakness in the proximal muscles. However, the patient’s history of smoking, unintentional weight loss, and recent cough suggest a possible diagnosis of lung cancer, particularly small-cell lung cancer which can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome resulting in muscle weakness due to antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Unlike myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness in LEMS improves with repetitive use. Dermatomyositis is characterized by CD4 positive T-cells-mediated inflammation of the perimysium and skin symptoms such as a SLE-like malar rash and periorbital rash. Botulism, caused by ingestion of the toxin from Clostridium botulinum, results in dyspnea, dysarthria, dysphagia, and diplopia. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, is a neuromuscular junction disorder that causes muscle weakness with repetitive use and is associated with thymoma.
Paraneoplastic Neurological Syndromes and their Associated Antibodies
Paraneoplastic neurological syndromes are a group of disorders that occur in cancer patients and are caused by an immune response to the tumor. One such syndrome is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is commonly seen in small cell lung cancer patients. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic features such as dry mouth and impotence. The antibody responsible for this syndrome is directed against voltage-gated calcium channels and has similar features to myasthenia gravis.
Other paraneoplastic neurological syndromes may be associated with detectable antibodies as well. For example, anti-Hu antibodies are associated with small cell lung cancer and can cause painful sensory neuropathy, cerebellar syndromes, and encephalitis. Anti-Yo antibodies are associated with ovarian and breast cancer and can cause a cerebellar syndrome. Anti-Ri antibodies are associated with small cell lung cancer and can cause retinal degeneration.
In summary, paraneoplastic neurological syndromes are a group of disorders that occur in cancer patients and are caused by an immune response to the tumor. These syndromes can be associated with detectable antibodies, which can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve?
Your Answer: All the interosseous muscles
Correct Answer: Opponens pollicis
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.
The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of sensation on the left side of his body to his caregivers.
During his cranial nerve examination, no abnormalities were found. However, upon neurological examination of his upper and lower limbs, there is a significant sensory loss to light touch, vibration, and pain on the right side. Additionally, he is unable to detect changes in temperature and his joint position sense is impaired on the right side. A CT head scan reveals an infarction in the region of the lateral thalamus on the left side.
Which specific lateral thalamic nucleus has been affected by this stroke?Your Answer: Medial geniculate
Correct Answer: Ventral posterior
Explanation:Injury to the lateral section of the ventral posterior nucleus located in the thalamus can impact the perception of bodily sensations such as touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration.
The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals
The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child has been in a car accident and has a fracture of the floor of the orbit. The surgeon you consulted is worried that one of the extra-ocular muscles may be trapped in the fracture site. Which muscle is most vulnerable?
Your Answer: Lateral rectus
Correct Answer: Inferior rectus
Explanation:The correct muscle that is most at risk in a fracture of the floor of the orbit, also known as an orbital blowout fracture, is the inferior rectus muscle. This muscle is located above the thin plate of the maxillary bone that makes up the floor of the orbit, and is therefore more susceptible to being trapped in these types of fractures.
When the inferior rectus muscle becomes trapped in a blowout fracture, it can result in restricted eye movements and affect extra-orbital soft tissue. This type of fracture is known as a trapdoor fracture and is often associated with the oculocardiac reflex or Aschner phenomenon, which can cause symptoms such as bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, and syncope.
It is important to note that the inferior oblique muscle is also commonly affected in these types of fractures, but it was not an option in this question. Additionally, levator palpebrae inferioris is not an actual muscle and is therefore a dummy answer. The muscle that raises the upper eyelid is actually called the levator palpebrae superioris.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his physician with a complaint of double vision. During the examination, the physician observes that the left eye is in a 'down and out' position and the pupil is dilated. The physician suspects a cranial nerve palsy.
What is the probable reason for his nerve palsy?Your Answer: Vasculitis
Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:Consider compression as the likely cause of surgical third nerve palsy.
When the dilation of the pupil is involved, it is referred to as surgical third nerve palsy. This condition is caused by a lesion that compresses the pupillary fibers located on the outer part of the third nerve. Unlike vascular causes of third nerve palsy, which only affect the nerve and not the pupillary fibers.
Out of the given options, only answer 4 is a compressive cause of third nerve palsy. The other options are risk factors for vascular causes.
Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features
Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.
There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old child has sustained a supracondylar fracture of the right humerus. After undergoing closed reduction, the child reports experiencing tingling sensations in their first and second fingers on the right hand, as well as difficulty moving their thumb. Which nerve is the most probable culprit for this injury?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the lateral part of the palm and the palmar surface of the three most lateral digits. It is commonly injured at the elbow after supracondylar fractures of the humerus or at the wrist.
The ulnar nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the palmar surface of the fifth digit and medial part of the fourth digit, along with their associated palm region.
The musculoskeletal nerve only has one sensory branch, the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, which provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the forearm. Therefore, damage to the musculocutaneous nerve cannot explain tingling sensations or compromised movements of any of the digits.
The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm does not run near supracondylar humeral fractures and its branches only reach as far as the wrist, so it cannot explain tingling sensations in the digits.
The radial nerve is not typically injured at supracondylar humeral fractures and would cause altered sensations localized at the dorsal side of the palm and digits if it were damaged.
Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve
The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.
The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine check-up. During the visit, the woman expresses her concern about her inability to breastfeed her baby, despite several attempts.
The woman has a medical history of sensorineural deafness, which she acquired after contracting bacterial meningitis as a child.
Her serum prolactin levels are within the normal range at 250 g/L (34-386 ng/mL). The doctor explains that the milk let-down reflex also requires the hormone oxytocin.
Can you identify the part of the brain where oxytocin is synthesized?Your Answer: Pineal gland
Correct Answer: Paraventricular nucleus
Explanation:The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin. This hormone is synthesized in the periventricular nucleus and then secreted into the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and eventually released into the systemic circulation. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the milk let-down reflex, causing the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract and release milk. However, this patient may have difficulty breastfeeding due to complications from her childhood meningitis. It is important to note that oxytocin is not synthesized or released from the arcuate nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, or pineal gland.
The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man is being discharged from the geriatric ward. He was admitted last week for the investigation of recurrent falls. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, atrial fibrillation and rheumatoid arthritis.
The interdisciplinary team has decided to send him home this evening. The doctor in charge of organising his discharge goes through his drug chart to identify any drugs that may be making him more susceptible to having recurrent falls.
What medication from his drug chart could be contributing to his increased risk of falls?Your Answer: Orphenadrine
Correct Answer: Selegiline (monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor)
Explanation:The use of monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitors like selegiline may lead to postural hypotension, which can increase the risk of falls, particularly in older individuals. However, fludrocortisone can be utilized to manage postural hypotension that does not respond to conservative treatments, without an associated risk of falls.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 3 week old infant has been diagnosed with hydrocephalus due to congenital spina bifida. Can you identify the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production?
Your Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:The choroid plexuses, located in the ventricles of the brain, are responsible for the production of CSF. The cerebral aqueduct (or aqueduct of Sylvius) does not have a choroid plexus. The cribriform plate, which is a part of the ethmoid bone, does not produce or secrete anything but a fracture in it can cause CSF leakage into the nose and result in anosmia. The arachnoid granulations (or villi) serve as the communication between the subarachnoid space and the venous sinuses, allowing for the continuous reabsorption of CSF into the bloodstream. The pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges around the brain, encloses the CSF within the subarachnoid space.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man is hit in the head while playing rugby. He experiences a temporary concussion but later regains consciousness. After thirty minutes, he begins to exhibit slurred speech, ataxia, and eventually loses consciousness. Upon arrival at the hospital, he is intubated and put on a ventilator. A CT scan reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. What is the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Laceration of the middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery laceration
Explanation:The middle meningeal artery is the vessel most likely to result in an acute Extradural haemorrhage, while the anterior and middle cerebral arteries may cause acute Subdural haemorrhage. It is worth noting that acute Subdural haemorrhages tend to take a bit longer to develop compared to acute Extradural haemorrhages.
The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.
In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.
Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was prescribed erythromycin for her severe acne, but after three days, she had to stop taking it due to severe nausea that made her unable to function.
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Correct Answer: Floor of the 4th ventricle
Explanation:The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.
Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man presents to falls clinic with a history of four falls in the past four months, despite no previous falls. He also complains of a worsening headache at night over the last three months. During the cranial nerve exam, an inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed, but eye movements are intact. The rest of the neurological exam is unremarkable. What area of the brain could be responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Superior optic chiasm
Correct Answer: Superior optic radiation
Explanation:Superior optic radiation lesions in the parietal lobe are responsible for inferior homonymous quadrantanopias. The location of the lesion can be determined by analyzing the visual field defect pattern. Lesions anterior to the optic chiasm cause incongruous defects, while lesions at the optic chiasm cause bitemporal/binasal hemianopias. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm result in homonymous hemianopias. The optic radiations carry nerves from the optic chiasm to the occipital lobe. Lesions located inferiorly cause superior visual field defects, and vice versa. Therefore, the woman’s inferior homonymous quadrantanopias indicate a lesion on the superior aspect of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe. Superior homonymous quadrantanopias result from lesions to the inferior aspect of the optic radiations. Compression of the lateral aspects of the optic chiasm causes nasal/binasal visual field defects, while compression of the superior optic chiasm causes bitemporal hemianopias. Lesions to the optic nerve before reaching the optic chiasm cause an incongruous homonymous hemianopia affecting the ipsilateral eye.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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To which opioid receptor does morphine bind?
Your Answer: sigma
Correct Answer: mu
Explanation:This receptor is targeted by pethidine and other traditional opioids.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department following a blow to her left leg while playing soccer.
During the examination, her reflexes and tone appear normal, but she is experiencing difficulty in inverting her foot and has numbness on the plantar surface of her foot.
Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation:When the superficial peroneal nerve is injured, it can lead to a loss of foot eversion and a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot. This nerve controls the fibularis longus and brevis muscles, which are responsible for evertion of the foot. It also provides sensory input to the skin of the anterolateral leg and dorsum of the foot, except for the area between the first and second toes.
Anatomy of the Superficial Peroneal Nerve
The superficial peroneal nerve is responsible for supplying the lateral compartment of the leg, specifically the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles which aid in eversion and plantar flexion. It also provides sensation over the dorsum of the foot, excluding the first web space which is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.
The nerve passes between the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles along the proximal one-third of the fibula. Approximately 10-12 cm above the tip of the lateral malleolus, the nerve pierces the fascia. It then bifurcates into intermediate and medial dorsal cutaneous nerves about 6-7 cm distal to the fibula.
Understanding the anatomy of the superficial peroneal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the lateral compartment of the leg and dorsum of the foot. Injuries or compression of the nerve can result in weakness or numbness in the affected areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male is brought in after collapsing. According to the paramedics, he was found unconscious at a bar and no one knows what happened. Upon examination, his eyes remain closed and do not respond to commands, but he mumbles incomprehensibly when pressure is applied to his nailbed. He also opens his eyes and uses his other hand to push away the painful stimulus. His temperature is 37°C, his oxygen saturation is 95% on air, and his pulse is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 106/76 mmHg. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?
Your Answer: 11
Correct Answer: 9
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale is used because it is simple, has high interobserver reliability, and correlates well with outcome following severe brain injury. It consists of three components: Eye Opening, Verbal Response, and Motor Response. The score is the sum of the scores as well as the individual elements. For example, a score of 10 might be expressed as GCS10 = E3V4M3.
Best eye response:
1- No eye opening
2- Eye opening to pain
3- Eye opening to sound
4- Eyes open spontaneouslyBest verbal response:
1- No verbal response
2- Incomprehensible sounds
3- Inappropriate words
4- Confused
5- OrientatedBest motor response:
1- No motor response.
2- Abnormal extension to pain
3- Abnormal flexion to pain
4- Withdrawal from pain
5- Localizing pain
6- Obeys commands -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered a concussion. He now experiences ongoing diplopia, which is more noticeable when looking down at a book or going downstairs. Upon examination, his right eye is rotated upwards and inwards, with limited movement in depression and adduction. Both pupils are equal and reactive. What is the probable cause of his diplopia?
Your Answer: 4th nerve palsy
Explanation:If you experience worsened vision while going down stairs, it may be a sign of 4th nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by limited depression and adduction of the eye, as well as persistent diplopia when looking down. It is often caused by head trauma, which can damage the long course of the trochlear nerve.
People with 4th nerve palsy may tilt their heads away from the affected eye to compensate for the condition. This helps supply the superior oblique nerve, which aids in adduction and intorsion.
Other conditions that can cause eye movement problems include 3rd nerve palsy, which may be caused by aneurysms or diabetes complications, and 6th nerve palsy, which prevents the affected eye from abducting. Horner syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, may also affect eye movement and is often associated with Pancoast tumors.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 50-year-old man suffers a major head trauma and undergoes craniotomy. The bleeding is from the sigmoid sinus, what is the structure it drains into?
Your Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The internal jugular vein receives drainage from the sigmoid sinus and the inferior petrosal sinus after they merge.
Overview of Cranial Venous Sinuses
The cranial venous sinuses are a series of veins located within the dura mater, the outermost layer of the brain. Unlike other veins in the body, they do not have valves, which can increase the risk of sepsis spreading. These sinuses eventually drain into the internal jugular vein.
There are several cranial venous sinuses, including the superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, confluence of sinuses, occipital sinus, and cavernous sinus. Each of these sinuses has a specific location and function within the brain.
To better understand the topography of the cranial venous sinuses, it is helpful to visualize them as a map. The superior sagittal sinus runs along the top of the brain, while the inferior sagittal sinus runs along the bottom. The straight sinus connects the two, while the transverse sinus runs horizontally across the back of the brain. The sigmoid sinus then curves downward and connects to the internal jugular vein. The confluence of sinuses is where several of these sinuses meet, while the occipital sinus is located at the back of the head. Finally, the cavernous sinus is located on either side of the pituitary gland.
Understanding the location and function of these cranial venous sinuses is important for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the physician's clinic with indications of premature ejaculation, which is believed to be caused by hypersensitivity of the reflex arc.
Can you identify the correct description of this reflex arc?Your Answer: Ejaculation is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system at the S2-S4 level
Correct Answer: Ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level
Explanation:The correct statement is that ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level. This is because the preganglionic sympathetic cell bodies responsible for ejaculation are located in the central autonomic region of the T12-L1 segments. It is important to note that erection is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system at the S2-S4 level, and not by the pudendal nerve, which is responsible for supplying sensation to the penis.
Anatomy of the Sympathetic Nervous System
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response in the body. The preganglionic efferent neurons of this system are located in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoraco-lumbar regions. These neurons leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2 and pass to the sympathetic chain. The sympathetic chain lies on the vertebral column and runs from the base of the skull to the coccyx. It is connected to every spinal nerve through lateral branches, which then pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.
The sympathetic ganglia are also an important part of this system. The superior cervical ganglion lies anterior to C2 and C3, while the middle cervical ganglion (if present) is located at C6. The stellate ganglion is found anterior to the transverse process of C7 and lies posterior to the subclavian artery, vertebral artery, and cervical pleura. The thoracic ganglia are segmentally arranged, and there are usually four lumbar ganglia.
Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves can result in an ipsilateral Horners syndrome. For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. However, removal of T1 is not performed as it can cause a Horners syndrome. In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, a lumbar sympathetomy may be performed either radiologically or surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted, but if L1 is removed, ejaculation may be compromised, and little additional benefit is conferred as the preganglionic fibres do not arise below L2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which muscle is not innervated by the trigeminal nerve?
Your Answer: Mylohyoid
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid
Explanation:The facial nerve provides innervation to the stylohyoid.
The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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