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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and dyspareunia. After an abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and dyspareunia. After an abnormal smear test, she receives her colposcopy results indicating cervical malignancy. The gynaecologist refers her for a PET scan to determine if the cancer has spread to her lymph nodes. Which lymph nodes are typically the first to be affected if the cancer has spread?

      Your Answer: Inferior inguinal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal and external iliac lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is important to consider in cases of cervical cancer. The cervix drains into three main channels: the external and internal iliac lymph nodes, the obturator and presacral lymph nodes, and the nodes along the uterine arteries. The initial nodes to be involved in cervical cancer would be the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. The caval lymph nodes, cisterna chyli, inferior inguinal lymph nodes, and para-aortic lymph nodes are not the initial sites of spread for cervical cancer.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A man in his early 50s comes to the hospital with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s comes to the hospital with a fever and cough. An X-ray shows pneumonia in his left lower lobe. Upon arrival at the emergency department, his blood pressure is 83/60mmHg and his heart rate is 112/min. The doctor prescribes antibiotics and IV fluids.

      What is the primary way the body reacts to a drop in blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Increased bradykinin

      Correct Answer: Insertion of AQP-2 channels in collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      When blood pressure drops, the body initiates several physiological responses, one of which is the activation of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system (RAAS). This system breaks down bradykinin, a potent vasodilator, through the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE).

      RAAS activation results in increased aldosterone levels, which in turn increases the number of epithelial sodium channels (ENAC) to enhance sodium reabsorption.

      Another response to low blood pressure is the release of antidiuretic hormone, which promotes the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting duct. This mechanism increases water reabsorption to help maintain fluid balance in the body.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-month old infant is rushed to the Emergency Department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month old infant is rushed to the Emergency Department by his parents due to difficulty breathing and a blue tint to his face and lips. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing mild cold symptoms for the past 10 days, but his condition has worsened over the last 24 hours. They mention that he has been vomiting after bouts of paroxysmal coughing and had an episode of apnea while sleeping just before they brought him to the hospital. When asked, the mother admits to not receiving all recommended vaccinations during pregnancy. The baby is admitted and started on antibiotics while serology tests are ordered to confirm the diagnosis. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Bordetella pertussis

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting typical symptoms of whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis. After going through the catarrhal stage, the patient has entered the paroxysmal phase, which is characterized by paroxysmal coughing and vomiting. This pattern of symptoms is unique to pertussis and distinguishes it from other bacterial infections. While children are vaccinated against whooping cough, infants rely on their mother’s vaccination during pregnancy, which this mother did not receive. Severe cases of whooping cough can also lead to episodes of cyanosis and apnea, as seen in this patient.

      The patient’s symptoms are not consistent with the common cold, which typically resolves within a week and does not include apnea or cyanosis. Additionally, the use of antibiotics rules out an influenzae virus infection, as viruses do not respond to antibiotics. Streptococcus pyogenes, a common cause of acute pharyngitis in children, presents with fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes, but not coughing.

      Diphtheria is now rare in the UK due to vaccination, but it typically presents with fever, sore throat, difficulty breathing, nasal discharge, and a pseudomembrane on the pharyngeal tonsils.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct?

      Your Answer: Passes posterior to the subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Lies lateral to the common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Path of the Internal Jugular Vein

      The internal jugular vein begins at the jugular foramen and is initially located behind the carotid artery. As it descends in the carotid sheath, it moves to the side of the internal and common carotid arteries. Eventually, it passes in front of the subclavian artery and joins with the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein. The left and right brachiocephalic veins then come together to create the superior vena cava. At the point where the internal jugular vein meets the subclavian vein, it receives a lymphatic trunk. The external jugular vein, on the other hand, drains into the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and profuse diarrhoea. He has been experiencing up to 10 bowel movements per day for the past 48 hours. The patient has a history of prostatitis and has recently finished a course of ciprofloxacin. He denies any recent travel but did consume a takeaway meal earlier in the week.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      Stool microscopy Gram-positive bacillus

      What is the probable organism responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive bacillus that is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis, which can occur after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This is the correct answer for this patient’s condition. Ciprofloxacin, which the patient recently took, is a common antibiotic that can cause Clostridium difficile (C. diff) diarrhoea. Other antibiotics that can increase the risk of C. diff infection include clindamycin, co-amoxiclav, and cephalosporins.

      Campylobacter jejuni is not the correct answer. This gram-negative bacillus is the most common cause of food poisoning in the UK and is also associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. However, the patient’s stool culture results do not support a diagnosis of Campylobacter jejuni infection.

      Escherichia coli is another possible cause of diarrhoea, but it is a gram-negative bacillus and is typically associated with travellers’ diarrhoea and food poisoning.

      Shigella dysenteriae is also a gram-negative bacillus that can cause diarrhoea and dysentery, but it is not the correct answer for this patient’s condition.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to difficulty in breathing. The mother reports that her daughter has been restless, with a runny nose, feeling warm and a dry cough for the past 4 days. However, the mother is now quite worried because her daughter has not eaten since last night and her breathing seems to have worsened throughout the morning.

      During the examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70/min, heart rate of 155/min, oxygen saturation of 92% and a temperature of 37.9ºC. The infant shows signs of nasal flaring and subcostal recession while breathing. On auscultation, widespread wheezing is heard. The infant is admitted, treated with humidified oxygen via nasal cannula and discharged home after 2 days.

      What is the probable causative agent of this infant's illness?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis typically presents with symptoms such as coryza and increased breathing effort, leading to feeding difficulties in children under one year of age. The majority of cases of bronchiolitis are caused by respiratory syncytial virus, while adenovirus is a less frequent culprit. On the other hand, croup is most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents at the clinic after experiencing head trauma. The physician conducts...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents at the clinic after experiencing head trauma. The physician conducts a neurological assessment to evaluate for nerve damage. During the examination, the doctor observes a lack of pupil constriction when shining a flashlight into the patient's eyes.

      Which cranial nerve is accountable for this parasympathetic reaction?

      Your Answer: Optic

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers are the vagus nerve (X), glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), facial nerve (VII), and oculomotor nerve (III). The oculomotor nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic response of pupil constriction through innervating the iris sphincter muscle. The abducens nerve (VI) does not provide a parasympathetic response and only innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye for abduction. The ophthalmic nerve is a branch of the trigeminal nerve and does not provide any autonomic innervation. The optic nerve is responsible for vision and does not provide any autonomic or parasympathetic innervation.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - At 28 years old, Gwen seeks pre-conception advice from her haematologist regarding her...

    Incorrect

    • At 28 years old, Gwen seeks pre-conception advice from her haematologist regarding her Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). She is concerned about the potential risks of bleeding during pregnancy and childbirth, as well as the likelihood of passing on her condition to her child. Gwen is a carrier of VWD, while her partner Dylan does not have the condition. What is the probability of their child inheriting VWD?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The offspring of Gwen and Dylan will have the Vv allele combination, resulting in inheriting VWD with a probability of 50%.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide...

    Incorrect

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?

      Your Answer: Class II agent

      Correct Answer: Class Ia agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has no significant medical history but mentions that his mother passed away while playing netball at the age of 28. During the physical exam, the doctor detects an ejection systolic murmur when listening to his heart. The intensity of the murmur decreases when the patient squats. An echocardiogram is ordered to further investigate.

      What findings may be observed on the echocardiogram of this patient?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Correct Answer: Systolic anterior motion (SAM)

      Explanation:

      The presence of asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement (SAM) of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve on echocardiogram or cMR strongly suggests the diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) in this patient. This is further supported by his symptoms of exertional dyspnoea and family history of sudden cardiac death, possibly related to HOCM. The observation of SAM on echocardiogram is a common finding in patients with HOCM.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 9-year-old girl has come to your clinic complaining of fatigue and widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl has come to your clinic complaining of fatigue and widespread aches. She describes the pain as 'burning'. During the examination, you notice small, painless bumps on her abdomen, and she also has proteinuria. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Fabry disease.

      What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fabry Disease

      Fabry disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is caused by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A, an enzyme that breaks down a type of fat called globotriaosylceramide. This leads to the accumulation of this fat in various organs and tissues, causing a range of symptoms.

      One of the earliest symptoms of Fabry disease is burning pain or paraesthesia in childhood, particularly in the hands and feet. Other common features include angiokeratomas, which are small red or purple spots on the skin, and lens opacities, which can cause vision problems. Proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine, is also a common finding in people with Fabry disease.

      Perhaps the most serious complication of Fabry disease is early cardiovascular disease, which can lead to heart attacks and strokes. This is thought to be due to the accumulation of globotriaosylceramide in the walls of blood vessels, causing them to become stiff and narrow.

      Overall, Fabry disease is a complex condition that can affect many different parts of the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man presents with elbow pain after falling onto his outstretched hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with elbow pain after falling onto his outstretched hand at work. The fall occurred with his elbow fully extended. An x-ray confirms a fracture of his medial epicondyle.

      During the examination, the patient reports reduced sensation on the medial side of his palm and some weakness in his wrist. Based on the nerve likely affected, what muscle may also exhibit weakness?

      Your Answer: Palmaris longus

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. If there is an injury to the medial epicondyle, it may result in damage to the ulnar nerve, which runs posterior to the medial epicondyle. This nerve injury would cause sensory loss in the medial portion of the hand. The ulnar nerve supplies intrinsic muscles of the hand, hypothenar muscles, and the flexor carpi ulnaris, which aids in wrist flexion and adduction.

      Coracobrachialis is an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and aids in arm flexion at the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is rarely injured in isolation.

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is also an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the radial nerve and controls wrist extension and adduction. Mid-shift fractures of the humerus may damage the radial nerve.

      Flexor carpi radialis is another incorrect answer. It is innervated by the median nerve and controls wrist flexion and abduction.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young adult female arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting 18 paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult female arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting 18 paracetamol tablets in a moment of impulsivity during a disagreement with her partner. It has been six hours since she took the tablets and her paracetamol levels are measured, indicating the need for treatment. The patient is initiated on N-acetylcysteine. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Induces vomiting

      Correct Answer: Replaces compounds used in paracetamol metabolism

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol Metabolism and Toxicity

      Paracetamol is metabolised in two ways. The first mechanism involves conjugation with glucuronic acid, resulting in a safe metabolite that can be excreted. However, there is a limit to how much paracetamol can be metabolised this way. The second mechanism is used when a large amount of paracetamol is taken. In this case, paracetamol is oxidised to a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone. This metabolite can cause liver and kidney necrosis if glutathione supplies are exhausted.

      Glutathione is responsible for making the toxic metabolite safe. However, when glutathione supplies are depleted, the toxic metabolite can cause damage to the liver and kidneys. N-acetylcysteine is a protective agent that increases the rate of glutathione synthesis. Therefore, it can help prevent liver and kidney damage caused by the toxic metabolite of paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP after experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP after experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past 6 days. He complains of abdominal pain and has been urinating very little. His mother has also noticed multiple bruises on his body without any known cause. What is the most probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Norovirus

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be suffering from haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), which is often caused by an infection with E.coli 0157:H7.

      HUS is characterized by a combination of haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, and acute kidney injury, which can ultimately lead to renal failure.

      The presence of bloody diarrhoea in the patient’s medical history is a significant indicator of HUS. Additionally, the reduced urine output is likely due to the acute kidney injury, while the bruising may be a result of the thrombocytopaenia associated with HUS.

      Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.

      To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.

      In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle?

      Your Answer: Axillary

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      To memorize the nerve roots and their corresponding reflexes:

      1-2: Ankle reflex (S1-S2)
      3-4: Knee reflex (L3-L4)
      5-6: Biceps reflex (C5-C6)
      7-8: Triceps reflex (C7-C8)

      It’s important to note that the radial nerve provides innervation to all three heads of the triceps muscle, with a distinct branch to each head.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.4
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency department with severe vomiting and nausea. The patient explains that their symptoms started around 3 weeks ago, and are now vomiting up to 12 times a day.

      Her weight is recorded by the doctor, which shows a decrease of 5.5% from her usual weight.

      Investigations show the following results:

      Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Cl- 92 mmol/L (98-106)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Serum ketones 0.1 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)

      What would be the expected results on an arterial blood gas (ABG)?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum causes significant electrolyte disturbances, leading to hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, and metabolic alkalosis. This is due to the severe nausea, vomiting, and weight loss experienced during pregnancy. While metabolic acidosis may occur in rare cases, it is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum, as blood tests do not indicate elevated ketone levels. A mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis is also not expected in these patients, as it is more commonly seen in those with COPD.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and shortness of breath. He has a history of insulin-dependent diabetes and is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis after undergoing tests. During treatment, which electrolyte should you be particularly cautious of, as it may become depleted in the body despite appearing normal in plasma concentrations?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Insulin normally helps to move potassium into cells, but in a state of ketoacidosis, there is a lack of insulin to perform this function. As a result, potassium leaks out of cells. Additionally, high levels of glucose in the blood lead to glycosuria in the urine, causing potassium loss through the kidneys.

      Even though patients in a ketoacidotic state may have normal levels of potassium in their blood, their overall potassium levels in the body are often depleted. When insulin is administered to these patients, it can cause a dangerous drop in potassium levels as the minimal amount of potassium left in the body is driven into cells.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      16.3
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and borderline...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and borderline personality disorder is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to a decreased level of consciousness. She is currently on regular insulin. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale is 3/15. The venous blood gas results show a pH of 7.36 (7.35-7.45), K+ of 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.5), Na+ of 136 mmol/L (135-145), glucose of 1.2 mmol/L (4.0-7.0), HCO3- of 23 mmol/L (22-26), and Hb of 145 g/dL (12.1-15.1). What is the first hormone to be secreted in response to the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1

      Correct Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Glucagon, as it is the first hormone to be secreted in response to hypoglycaemia. The patient’s reduced level of consciousness is likely due to profound hypoglycaemia caused by exogenous insulin administration. Borderline personality disorder patients have a higher incidence of self harm and suicidality than the general population. Insulin is not the correct answer as its secretion decreases in response to hypoglycaemia, and this patient has T1DM resulting in an absolute deficiency. Cortisol is also not the correct answer as it takes longer to be secreted, although it is another counter-regulatory hormone that seeks to raise blood glucose levels in response to hypoglycaemia.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      24.6
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  • Question 19 - As a GP, you are evaluating a 35-year-old female patient who has been...

    Correct

    • As a GP, you are evaluating a 35-year-old female patient who has been experiencing a persistent burning sensation in her epigastrium that is temporarily relieved by eating meals. Your initial suspicion of H. pylori infection was ruled out by a negative serology test, and a two-week trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor and triple eradication therapy failed to alleviate her symptoms. An endoscopy revealed multiple duodenal ulcers, and upon further questioning, the patient disclosed that her mother has a pituitary tumor. Which hormone is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome and Gastrinoma

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a familial condition that predisposes individuals to benign or malignant tumors of the pituitary and pancreas with parathyroid hyperplasia causing hyperparathyroidism. This autosomal dominant inherited syndrome should be considered in patients who present with unusual endocrine tumors, especially if they are relatively young at diagnosis or have a relevant family history.

      One manifestation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is the development of a pancreatic tumor called a gastrinoma, which secretes the hormone gastrin. Gastrin stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid from parietal cells in the stomach, which optimizes conditions for protein digesting enzymes. However, excessive production of gastrin can occur in gastrinomas, leading to excessive HCL production that can denature the mucosa and submosa of the gastrointestinal tract, causing symptoms, ulceration, and even perforation of the duodenum.

      While other pancreatic tumors can also produce hormones such as insulin or glucagon, the symptoms and clinical findings in this case suggest a diagnosis of gastrinoma. Cholecystokinin and somatostatin are hormones that have inhibitory effects on HCL secretion and do not fit with the clinical picture. Cholecystokinin also produces the feeling of satiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with elevated inflammatory markers, metabolic acidosis, leukocytosis, and an amylase level of 3480 U/L. Which medication is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and Pancreatitis: A Review of the Evidence

      Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of the hormone GLP-1, which triggers insulin secretion in response to food intake. However, there is a rare but concerning association between exenatide and acute pancreatitis. A recent case-control study found that patients taking GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide had a higher risk of developing pancreatitis compared to those taking other diabetes drugs. As a result, patients starting on exenatide should be informed about the symptoms of pancreatitis and monitored closely for abdominal pain.

      While there is some controversy surrounding the association between gliptins and pancreatitis, the British National Formulary recommends discontinuing sitagliptin if acute pancreatitis is suspected. It is important to note that lactic acidosis, a potential side effect of metformin, should not be confused with pancreatitis, which is characterized by elevated levels of amylase. Overall, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risk of pancreatitis in patients taking exenatide and other GLP-1 mimetics, and take appropriate precautions to monitor and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated in the clinic. A duplex scan reveals an 85% stenosis of the superficial femoral artery. After two weeks, he returns with a sudden onset of severe leg pain that has been present for an hour. Upon examination, absent pulses are noted in the affected limb, and it is significantly cooler than the opposite limb. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Embolus

      Correct Answer: Thrombosis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an already present lesion, the probability of encountering a complication like thrombosis is higher than that of an embolus. To address this, patients should be administered heparin and undergo imaging with duplex scanning. Although an early surgical bypass or intra-arterial thrombolysis may be necessary, performing an embolectomy is generally not recommended as the lesion is not an embolus, rendering the operation ineffective.

      Understanding Claudication

      Claudication is a medical condition that causes pain in the limbs during physical activity. It is usually caused by arterial insufficiency, which occurs when atheroma develops in the arterial wall and blocks the blood flow to the tissues. The most common symptom of claudication is calf pain that worsens during exercise and improves with rest. However, if the disease is located in more proximal areas, other symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence may occur.

      The condition usually develops progressively, and in severe cases, it can lead to critical limb ischemia, which is characterized by severe pain, diminished sensation, pallor, and absent pulses. Risk factors for claudication include smoking, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

      To diagnose claudication, doctors may measure ankle-brachial pressure indices, perform duplex scanning, or conduct formal angiography. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition. Patients with long claudication distances and no ulceration or gangrene may be managed conservatively, while those with rest pain, ulceration, or gangrene will require intervention. All patients should receive an antiplatelet agent and a statin, unless there are compelling contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which cell type provides support to the blood brain barrier through its foot...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell type provides support to the blood brain barrier through its foot processes?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Correct Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells in the Nervous System

      There are various types of supporting cells in the nervous system, including astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells. Astrocytes play a crucial role in supporting the blood-brain barrier by wrapping their long foot processes around every capillary in the brain. This barrier separates the systemic circulation from the cerebral tissue and regulates the movement of water and glucose between them.

      Ependymal cells are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the choroid plexus. Microglia have an immune function and are involved in phagocytosis. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating cells in the CNS, while Schwann cells perform the same function in the PNS.

      In summary, glial cells play a vital role in supporting and protecting the nervous system. Each type of glial cell has a unique function, from supporting the blood-brain barrier to producing CSF and myelinating cells. the roles of these cells is crucial in the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started to observe that her hands are developing blisters and becoming weepy. After diagnosis, it is found that she has a latex allergy. What pathological process is responsible for this situation?

      Your Answer: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      ACID is an acronym for the four types of hypersensitivity reactions. These include type 1, which is anaphylactic; type 2, which is cytotoxic; type 3, which is immune complex; and type 4, which is delayed hypersensitivity. Unlike the other types, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated rather than antibody mediated. An example of this type of reaction is chronic contact dermatitis.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the thyrocervical trunk. What vessel does this structure typically originate from?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery gives rise to the thyrocervical trunk, which emerges from the first part of the artery located between the inner border of scalenus anterior and the subclavian artery. The thyrocervical trunk branches off from the subclavian artery after the vertebral artery.

      Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax

      The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.

      Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with a diagnosis of Grave's...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with a diagnosis of Grave's disease. The diagnosis was made based on her elevated levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, as well as symptoms of heat intolerance, weight loss, and tremors. Typically, where are the receptors for thyroid hormones found?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Correct Answer: Nucleus

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones can enter cells through diffusion or carriers. Once inside, they bind to intracellular DNA-binding proteins called thyroid hormone receptors located in the nucleus. This binding forms a complex that attaches to the thyroid hormone responsive element on DNA. The outcome of this process is an increase in mRNA production, protein synthesis, Na/K ATPase, mitochondrial function leading to higher oxygen consumption, and adrenoceptors.

      Thyroid disorders are commonly encountered in clinical practice, with hypothyroidism and thyrotoxicosis being the most prevalent. Women are ten times more likely to develop these conditions than men. The thyroid gland is a bi-lobed structure located in the anterior neck and is part of a hypothalamus-pituitary-end organ system that regulates the production of thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. These hormones help regulate energy sources, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. Hypothyroidism can be primary or secondary, while thyrotoxicosis is mostly primary. Autoimmunity is the leading cause of thyroid problems in the developed world.

      Thyroid disorders can present in various ways, with symptoms often being the opposite depending on whether the thyroid gland is under or overactive. For example, hypothyroidism may result in weight gain, while thyrotoxicosis leads to weight loss. Thyroid function tests are the primary investigation for diagnosing thyroid disorders. These tests primarily look at serum TSH and T4 levels, with T3 being measured in specific cases. TSH levels are more sensitive than T4 levels for monitoring patients with existing thyroid problems.

      Treatment for thyroid disorders depends on the cause. Patients with hypothyroidism are given levothyroxine to replace the underlying deficiency. Patients with thyrotoxicosis may be treated with propranolol to control symptoms such as tremors, carbimazole to reduce thyroid hormone production, or radioiodine treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved from India presents to her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved from India presents to her GP with fever and abdominal pain. She is referred to a general infectious diseases clinic, having returned last week from a trip back to India to visit her family.

      On examination the patient has abdominal tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. You suspect this is an acute episode of lymphatic filariasis and prescribe diethylcarbamazine.

      Which medication is typically used in combination with diethylcarbamazine to treat this patient's lymphatic filariasis?

      Your Answer: Niclosamide

      Correct Answer: Albendazole

      Explanation:

      Filariasis, a disease caused by certain nematodes, can be effectively treated with a combination of albendazole and ivermectin. This disease is prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa. The World Health Organization recommends different treatment regimens depending on whether onchocerciasis, another type of filariasis caused by Onchocerca volvulus, is co-endemic or not. In areas where onchocerciasis is co-endemic, a single dose of albendazole with ivermectin is recommended. In areas where onchocerciasis is not co-endemic, either a single dose of albendazole plus diethylcarbamazine or DEC alone for 12 days is recommended. Other anti-helminthic medications include praziquantel and niclosamide. Pramipexole is a dopamine-agonist used in Parkinson’s disease, while digoxin is a cardiac glycoside typically used in atrial fibrillation.

      Antihelminthic drugs are medications used to treat infections caused by parasitic worms. These drugs work in different ways to eliminate the worms from the body. Bendazoles, for example, bind to B-tubulin, a protein necessary for microtubule assembly, and inhibit its polymerization. This prevents the worms from building their cytoskeleton and inhibits their glucose uptake. Praziquantel, on the other hand, increases the permeability of the worms’ membranes to calcium ions, causing their muscles to contract and leading to their death. Ivermectin activates glutamate-gated chloride channels, which enhances inhibitory neurotransmission and ultimately paralyzes the worms. Pyrantel pamoate is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes paralysis of the worms’ muscles. Finally, diethylcarbamazine inhibits arachidonic acid metabolism, which is essential for the worms’ survival. By targeting different aspects of the worms’ physiology, these drugs can effectively eliminate parasitic infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.8
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?

      Your Answer: 1st part of the duodenum

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.

      Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.

      All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.3
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  • Question 28 - What is true about dependent variables? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about dependent variables?

      Your Answer: In studies investigating treatments for diseases, the treatment is the dependent variable

      Correct Answer: They are affected by changes of independent variables

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variables in Research

      Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.

      The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.

      Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.

      Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      How does the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill work?

      The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) is a widely used method of contraception in the UK. It works by preventing ovulation, which means that an egg is not released from the ovaries. In addition to this, the COC also thickens the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus, and thins the endometrial lining, reducing the chance of implantation.

      By combining these three actions, the COC is highly effective at preventing pregnancy. It is important to note that the COC does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so additional protection such as condoms should be used if there is a risk of STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      7.9
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  • Question 30 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center who is experiencing decreased sensation in her fingers and toes. She has just commenced vincristine therapy and is curious if her symptoms could be related to the medication.

      During which phase of the cell cycle does this drug exert its action?

      Your Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      During metaphase, Vincristine, a dimeric catharanthus alkaloid, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubules in actively dividing cells. This action makes it an effective treatment for cancers such as leukaemias, lymphomas, and advanced-stage breast cancer. However, its use is limited by its neurotoxicity, which mainly manifests as peripheral neuropathy. Vincristine’s toxicity affects small sensory fibres and causes axonal neuropathy due to the disruption of microtubules within axons and interference with axonal transport. Paraesthesia in the fingertips and feet is usually the earliest symptom experienced by patients, and almost all patients experience some degree of neuropathy.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System (0/4) 0%
General Principles (1/8) 13%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
Neurological System (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Reproductive System (2/2) 100%
Histology (0/1) 0%
Passmed