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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

    ...

    Correct

    • As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

      Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms

      Gilbert Syndrome:
      Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Haemolytic Anaemia:
      Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.

      Hepatitis A:
      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.

      Hepatitis B:
      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).

      Cholecystitis:
      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.

      Conclusion:
      In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant and reports sudden onset of right-sided numbness and dysphasia. Initially, she experienced tingling in the right side of her face, which then spread to her right hand over a few minutes. Shortly after, she noticed difficulty finding words and her right arm felt clumsy. The entire episode resolved completely within 20-30 minutes. Upon arrival at the hospital, her neurological exam was normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attack secondary to left hemisphere small-vessel disease

      Correct Answer: Migraine aura without headache

      Explanation:

      Migraine aura without headache is a condition where a person experiences the typical symptoms of a migraine aura, but without the accompanying headache. In some cases, a person may have multiple attacks with only an aura, while in rare cases, they may only experience the aura without a headache. To diagnose this condition, the International Headache Society requires the presence of one or more fully reversible aura symptoms, such as visual, sensory, speech and/or language, motor, brain stem, or retinal symptoms, along with at least two of the following characteristics: gradual spread of symptoms over more than 5 minutes, each symptom lasting between 5-60 minutes, and at least one symptom being unilateral. It can be difficult to distinguish an aura from a transient ischemic attack (TIA) in patients without a history of migraines, but the characteristic slow progression of symptoms is suggestive of migraine aura without headache. This condition is more commonly seen in patients with a previous history of migraines or a positive family history of migraines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.3
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l
      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed sodium valproate?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Correct Answer: Induction P450 system

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by sodium valproate.

      Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.

      Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.

      Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      146.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home readings indicate an average blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg. He reports feeling generally well, and physical examination is unremarkable. Previous investigations have not revealed an underlying cause for his hypertension. Recent blood tests show normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. He is currently on ramipril, amlodipine, and bendroflumethiazide. What would be the most appropriate medication to add for the management of this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension and is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, the best option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. According to NICE guidelines, this patient has resistant hypertension, which is stage 4 of the NICE flowchart for hypertension management. Spironolactone can also be introduced at this stage, but only if the patient’s serum potassium is less than 4.5mmol/l, as spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Indapamide is not suitable for someone who is already taking a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide. Furosemide is typically used for hypertension management in patients with heart failure or kidney disease, which is not present in this case. Hydralazine is primarily used for emergency hypertension management or hypertension during pregnancy, not for long-term management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following investigations is essential prior to initiating anti-tuberculosis treatment...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following investigations is essential prior to initiating anti-tuberculosis treatment in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Correct Answer: Liver functions tests

      Explanation:

      The management of tuberculosis has been outlined in guidelines by the British Thoracic Society. It is recommended that liver function tests are conducted in all cases and monitored during treatment. Prior to starting ethambutol, it is important to check visual acuity and renal function.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an episode of rectal bleeding. Her parents tell you that she appears to be suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has eaten very little, which is unlike her. She vomited about three times and then passed bloody stools. When you ask for further details, the parents tell you that the stool was jelly-like red and very slimy. The parents started weaning the child one month ago and only give her baby food.
      On examination, the child has right lower abdominal tenderness and her mucous membranes look dehydrated. Her capillary refill time is four seconds and you can vaguely feel some sort of mass in her right lower abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Disorders in Toddlers

      Intussusception is a common gastrointestinal disorder in toddlers, typically affecting those aged 9-12 months. Symptoms include slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound imaging and treatment usually involves an enema, although surgery may be necessary in complicated cases.

      Pyloric stenosis is another disorder that can occur in the first few weeks of a baby’s life. It causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and is diagnosed through ultrasound imaging. Treatment involves surgery with a pyloromyotomy.

      Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis is rare in toddlers, especially considering that they typically only consume baby food.

      Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital disorder that causes bowel obstruction, resulting in vomiting and failure to pass stools. It is typically diagnosed through a rectal biopsy and treated with surgical removal of the affected part of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing difficulties caused by croup. The child was given oral dexamethasone by the GP earlier in the day. Upon examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 89% on room air and there is noticeable intercostal recession. What emergency treatment should be administered to the child?

      Your Answer: Oxygen + nebulised adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You assess a 45-year-old male with Marfan's syndrome. What is the probable reason...

    Correct

    • You assess a 45-year-old male with Marfan's syndrome. What is the probable reason for mortality in individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection may be more likely to occur in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome due to the dilation of the aortic sinuses.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bleomycin

      Correct Answer: Doxorubicin

      Explanation:

      Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      19.6
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms. He is known to be a heavy smoker and hypertensive. On examination, he has a right incongruous homonymous hemianopia.
      Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Left optic tract

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Field Defects: A Guide to Lesion Locations and Symptoms

      Visual field defects can provide important clues about the location and nature of neurological lesions. Here is a breakdown of the different types of visual field defects and their associated lesion locations:

      – Retina/optic disc: Scotoma
      – Optic nerve: Unilateral blindness (ipsilateral) or scotoma
      – Lateral optic chiasm: Incomplete/contralateral hemianopia
      – Central optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia
      – Optic tract: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (incongruent)
      – Temporal lobe/optic radiation: Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
      – Parietal lobe/superior optic radiation: Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
      – Complete parieto-occipital interruption of optic radiation: Contralateral congruent homonymous hemianopia (may be macula sparing)

      It is important to note that incomplete lesions may produce asymmetrical/incongruent homonymous hemianopia, while complete lesions result in congruous homonymous hemianopia, relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), and optic nerve atrophy. Other symptoms may also be present depending on the lesion location, such as language defects, neglect, and movement or color agnosia. By understanding the different visual field defects and their associated lesion locations, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.9
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She has a significant history of alcohol and smoking. Her blood tests reveal macrocytosis, abnormal liver function tests, elevated TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and normal free thyroxine (fT4) levels.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms & blood results?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with alcohol excess, elevated liver function tests, macrocytosis, and compensated hypothyroidism

      Chronic excess alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of health problems, including liver disease, neurological damage, and endocrine dysfunction. In this case, the patient presents with elevated liver function tests and macrocytosis, which are consistent with alcohol excess. The thyroid function tests show compensated hypothyroidism, which can also be caused by alcohol-related liver damage. However, the proximal myopathy is not typical of hypothyroidism, which usually causes muscle weakness in a more diffuse pattern. Cushing’s syndrome, pernicious anaemia, and thyrotoxicosis are less likely diagnoses based on the absence of specific clinical features and laboratory findings. Therefore, the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation is alcohol excess, which may require further evaluation and management to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a gradual decline in his vision over the past few years and has difficulty reading small print. He is placed on the surgical waiting list.
      Which eye structure is most likely to be impacted by this ailment?

      Your Answer: Lens

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders

      The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.

      Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.

      Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.

      Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).

      Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.

      Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

      Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint...

    Incorrect

    • The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint space and bone erosions.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Features of Common Rheumatologic Conditions

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of joint space, juxta-articular bony erosions, subluxation, gross deformity, and periarticular soft tissue swelling. In the hands, swan neck deformity of fingers, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, boutonnière deformity of the thumb, and Bouchard’s nodes are common. However, the presence of Bouchard’s nodes without Heberden’s nodes is more indicative of RA than osteoarthritis.

      Gout may present with gouty tophi, which are soft tissue masses created by the deposition of urate crystals. Punched-out erosions caused by bone absorption may also be present. These changes tend to be sporadic and asymmetrical.

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by subchondral bone cysts, osteophytes, narrowing of joint space, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, both Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may be present.

      Psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects the hands and feet. Radiographic features include erosions along the shaft of the phalanges, leading to ‘pencil-in-cup’ deformity and tufting of the bones. Unlike RA, osteoporosis is not a feature, and typically the more distal joints are affected.

      Hypercalcaemia does not have specific radiographic features. The changes seen would be those associated with the underlying cause of the hypercalcaemia, such as hyperparathyroidism or cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for discussion about testing for chromosomal disorders. She has no significant medical history and is concerned about the potential risks to her and her baby. Upon investigation, her b-hCG levels are elevated, PAPP-A levels are decreased, and ultrasound reveals thickened nuchal translucency. The calculated chance of a chromosomal disorder is 1/100. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Offer chorionic villous sampling

      Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening testing

      Explanation:

      Women with a higher chance of Down’s syndrome based on combined or quadruple tests are offered further screening or diagnostic tests. In this case, the patient’s chance is 1 in 100, making non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPT) the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling (CVS) are less appropriate due to their invasive nature and higher risks.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      193.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)

      Explanation:

      Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.

      One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.

      However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.

      Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      144.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient who cannot tolerate aspirin is prescribed clopidogrel for secondary prevention of...

    Correct

    • A patient who cannot tolerate aspirin is prescribed clopidogrel for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. What medication, if taken concurrently, may reduce the effectiveness of clopidogrel?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medications to ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.7
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual vision loss. During tonometry, his intraocular pressure is found to be 26mmHg and optic disc cupping is observed on fundoscopy. Visual field examination reveals peripheral visual loss. The physician prescribes timolol eye drops to be used twice daily. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid and increase uveoscleral outflow

      Correct Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid. This condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to inefficient drainage of fluid in the eye’s trabecular meshwork. Symptoms include gradual loss of vision, particularly in the peripheral fields. Brimonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, also reduces aqueous fluid production and increases uveoscleral outflow. However, drugs that decrease uveoscleral outflow or increase aqueous fluid production would worsen the patient’s condition. Glucocorticoids can cause reduced drainage of aqueous humour and are implicated in causing open-angle glaucoma. Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, increases uveoscleral outflow.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?

      Your Answer: Neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis

      Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      353
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 3 ml/min/1.73 m2. He is already undergoing renal replacement therapy. He also presents with worsening anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Anaemia in End-Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with end-stage renal failure, primarily due to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Other causes of anaemia can include folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemic inhibitors, and reduced half-life of circulating blood cells. The prevalence of anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases as eGFR levels decrease, with a prevalence of 12% in CKD patients. Folate deficiency and iron deficiency can also cause anaemia, but in this case, the anaemia is more likely related to poor kidney function. Deficiencies in granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and pyridoxine are less likely causes of anaemia in end-stage renal failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
      During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.

      Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and loose stools that have been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stool but has lost a few kilograms in weight. Recently, she has noticed some itchy, vesicular rashes on her knees that have been persistent. Routine blood tests were ordered and all came back normal except for one positive result. What is the name of the dermatological condition she is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected...

    Correct

    • If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what should be your first course of action?

      Your Answer: Wash wound under running water, encouraging active bleeding

      Explanation:

      Immediate Actions to Take Following a Needlestick Injury: A Guide for Healthcare Workers

      Needlestick injuries are a common occupational hazard for healthcare workers. If you experience a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to minimize the risk of infection. Here are the steps you should take:

      1. Wash the wound thoroughly under running water, while encouraging bleeding. This will help to flush out any pathogens that may be present.

      2. Determine the patient’s HIV and bloodborne disease status. If the patient is HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk, HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be offered as soon as possible.

      3. Begin Truvada and Kaletra PEP treatment if the patient is definitely HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk. PEP should be commenced within 72 hours of exposure for maximum effectiveness.

      4. Contact occupational health immediately to identify local protocols and receive guidance on next steps.

      5. Fill out a clinical incident form to help the hospital identify potential areas for improvement in employee safety.

      By following these steps, you can minimize the risk of infection and protect your health as a healthcare worker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: L5

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.6
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man experiences percutaneous coronary intervention for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man experiences percutaneous coronary intervention for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. After 12 hours, he develops symptoms of paleness, clamminess, and bradycardia, and the ECG reveals complete disassociation between the atria and ventricles. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left main coronary artery is not the cause of heart block. It usually results in anterior myocardial infarction.

      Understanding Heart Blocks and their Features

      Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are three types of heart blocks, each with distinct features and characteristics. First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, while second-degree heart block can be further divided into two subtypes: Mobitz I and Mobitz II. Mobitz I is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while Mobitz II is characterized by a constant PR interval but often not followed by a QRS complex.

      The most severe form of heart block is third-degree or complete heart block, which is characterized by a complete dissociation between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia, and wide pulse pressure. Other features of complete heart block include cannon waves in the neck and variable intensity of S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      85
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Neurology (2/5) 40%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (3/4) 75%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed