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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with 'burning' chest pain, halitosis and frequent belching. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals a 3 cm sliding hiatus hernia. The patient has a BMI of 34 kg/m² and does not smoke or drink alcohol. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Omeprazole and referral for laparoscopic fundoplication
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice and omeprazole
Explanation:Surgical repair is not necessary for the majority of patients with hiatus hernias. Instead, lifestyle advice and omeprazole are the recommended management options. In the case of a symptomatic hiatus hernia, such as acid reflux, ‘burning’ pain, halitosis, and frequent belching, pharmacological treatment is likely to be beneficial. While lifestyle advice is important, it should be combined with medication for symptom relief. Omeprazole alone is not sufficient, and patients should also be advised on the benefits of weight loss and dietary changes. Referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is not necessary for most patients with hiatus hernias, and initial management should focus on PPIs and lifestyle modifications.
Understanding Hiatus Hernia
Hiatus hernia is a medical condition that occurs when part of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm. There are two types of hiatus hernia, namely sliding and rolling. The sliding type is the most common, accounting for 95% of cases, and occurs when the gastroesophageal junction moves above the diaphragm. On the other hand, the rolling type occurs when a separate part of the stomach herniates through the esophageal hiatus, while the gastroesophageal junction remains below the diaphragm.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing hiatus hernia, including obesity and increased intraabdominal pressure. Common symptoms of hiatus hernia include heartburn, dysphagia, regurgitation, and chest pain. To diagnose the condition, a barium swallow is the most sensitive test, although many patients undergo an endoscopy as a first-line investigation, with the hernia being found incidentally.
Conservative management, such as weight loss, is beneficial for all patients with hiatus hernia. Medical management involves proton pump inhibitor therapy, while surgical management is only necessary for symptomatic paraesophageal hernias. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options for hiatus hernia is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and essential hypertension visits his GP for a routine blood pressure check. His blood pressure reading is 152/92 and he wants to know if there are any other ways to reduce his risk of stroke. He is not currently taking any medication.
What is the most suitable treatment advice to give him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin / NOAC
Explanation:Treatment options for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation patients: Understanding CHADS-VASc score
Atrial fibrillation (AF) patients with a CHADS-VASc score of 3 or higher require treatment with either warfarin or a novel oral anticoagulant (NOAC) to prevent stroke. Aspirin, clopidogrel, low-molecular-weight heparin, and strict dietary modification are not recommended for stroke prevention in AF patients.
The CHADS-VASc score is used to calculate the risk of stroke in AF patients. The score includes factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age, diabetes mellitus, previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack, vascular disease, and sex category. Men with a score of 2 or higher are considered to be at high risk of stroke and should start treatment with warfarin or a NOAC. Men with a score of 1 are considered to be at moderate risk and should consider anticoagulation. Women aged <65 years with no other risk factors are considered to be at low risk and do not require anticoagulation. Clopidogrel is an oral antiplatelet agent used in the prevention of atherosclerotic events in patients with coronary artery disease, peripheral arterial disease, and cerebrovascular disease. It is not recommended for stroke prevention in AF patients. Strict dietary modification is not an appropriate treatment for AF and essential hypertension. Low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) are not used in the management of AF. They are commonly used in the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism, unstable angina, and acute myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old young woman is enjoying a meal at a Chinese restaurant to celebrate her birthday. Despite having a nut allergy, the restaurant has taken precautions to ensure her safety. However, while trying a friend's chicken dish, she unknowingly ingested peanuts and experiences a severe allergic reaction, including difficulty breathing and facial swelling. Thankfully, her friend has an EpiPen® and administers it before calling for an ambulance. Although her symptoms improve, she remains unwell and struggling to breathe. Her friend remembers that a second EpiPen® can be used if necessary. When is it appropriate to administer the second dose of adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 minutes
Explanation:Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes in the management of anaphylaxis. It is recommended that individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry two auto-injectors with them in case a second dose is needed.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week, she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Blues: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within the first week after delivery and is characterized by short-lived episodes of irritability, crying, emotional lability, and mildly low mood. Unlike postpartum psychosis or major depression, postpartum blues does not involve confusion, delusional beliefs, or frank major depressive symptoms.
While anxiety is a common feature of many affective disorders, it is not sufficient to warrant a diagnosis of a specific anxiety disorder in the case of postpartum blues. However, it is important to consider depression as a possible diagnosis when a patient presents with low mood, anxiety, and irritability.
It is essential to follow up with patients experiencing postpartum blues to ensure that their symptoms resolve within a few days. If symptoms persist or worsen, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out other conditions such as postpartum depression. By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of postpartum blues, healthcare providers can provide appropriate reassurance and support to new mothers during this challenging time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Sexual Health Clinic with a thick green discharge from his penis. Culture of the discharge is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone
Explanation:The preferred treatment for gonococcal infections is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone, with the dosage based on the patient’s weight. This medication is highly effective against susceptible N. gonorrhoeae and more effective than oral cephalosporins. A test of cure is necessary after treatment to ensure the infection has been cleared. Ciprofloxacin should only be used if the organism’s susceptibility to the antibiotic is known. Dual antibiotic use is no longer recommended, but presumptive treatment for chlamydia may be administered if the patient’s sexual history or symptoms suggest co-infection. Intravenous antibiotics are not necessary for uncomplicated cases, but severe cases of pelvic inflammatory disease may require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics. Penicillin is not indicated for gonorrhoea treatment due to high antimicrobial resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he has been experiencing hearing loss in his right ear. He occasionally hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but it is not bothersome and does not affect his daily life. He is worried about the hearing loss as his mother had to use hearing aids at a young age. Otoscopy of his right ear is performed and is normal except for a slightly pinkish tympanic membrane. The GP decides to conduct some tuning fork tests. What is the most likely set of findings that will be observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Webers test lateralises to the left ear. Rinnes test would shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left
Explanation:Tuning Fork Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss
When conducting a hearing assessment, tuning fork tests can provide valuable information about the type and location of hearing loss. Here are some examples of tuning fork test results and what they may indicate:
Weber’s and Rinne’s Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss
Example 1:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
– Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the leftThese results suggest conductive hearing loss, which is typical of otosclerosis. This condition affects young adults and involves the replacement of normal bone with spongy bone, leading to stapes fixation and progressive hearing loss.
Example 2:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
– Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the leftThese results also suggest conductive hearing loss, but in this case, it is likely due to a different cause than otosclerosis. Unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, a positive family history, and a pinkish tympanic membrane on examination are all typical features of otosclerosis, which is not present in this patient.
Example 3:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
– Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the rightThese results suggest conductive hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to a variety of causes. However, the clinical features reported in this patient suggest a possible diagnosis of otosclerosis, which would give a conductive hearing loss on the left side rather than the right.
Example 4:
– Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
– Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the rightThese results suggest sensorineural hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to conditions such as vestibular schwannoma or viral labyrinthitis. However, this does not match the reported hearing loss on the left side in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a chest infection. He is currently taking amiodarone, warfarin, and simvastatin. Which antibiotic should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near her earlobe. She had her ears pierced three months ago and has noticed a gradual development of an erythematous swelling. Upon examination, a keloid scar is observed. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for intralesional triamcinolone
Explanation:Understanding Keloid Scars
Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.
To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.
It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
Result Normal
Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis
Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a history of psoriasis visits his GP complaining of a deterioration in his psoriatic plaques. He has been prescribed multiple medications by his cardiologist to alleviate his cardiac symptoms.
Which of the following newly prescribed medications is the probable cause of this man's psoriasis exacerbation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Psoriatic plaques can be worsened by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, but not by calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel. However, NSAIDs like aspirin can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, has no impact on psoriasis.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by her friends after a night out. Her friends report that she took an unknown substance while clubbing. What symptom would be most indicative of ecstasy use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC
Explanation:Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.
When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be used to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. With proper management, individuals can recover from ecstasy poisoning and avoid long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male dental practice nurse is admitted for elective surgery. During induction with a general anaesthetic, he develops tachycardia, rash and diffuse wheeze. He mentioned that he had a rash when assisting with an anaesthetic case at work.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaphylaxis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Reactions: Types and Symptoms
Allergic reactions can take many forms, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to drugs, insect stings, or certain foods. It is characterized by rapid onset of airway, breathing, and circulation problems, as well as skin and mucosal changes. Systemic mastocytosis is another type of allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as itching, abdominal cramping, and even shock. Pseudoallergy, on the other hand, can mimic true allergies but has different underlying causes, such as altered histamine metabolism or food intolerance.
Serum sickness is a self-limited allergic reaction that occurs after exposure to foreign proteins. It is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that can cause fever, skin rash, and joint symptoms. Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction that can be caused by either an irritant or an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after sensitization and subsequent re-exposure to an allergen, while irritant contact dermatitis is an inflammatory response that occurs after damage to the skin by chemicals.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of these different types of allergic reactions and seek medical attention if necessary. Anaphylaxis, in particular, is a medical emergency that can lead to death if not treated promptly. By understanding the different types of allergic reactions and their causes, we can take steps to prevent them and manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing difficulties caused by croup. The child was given oral dexamethasone by the GP earlier in the day. Upon examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 89% on room air and there is noticeable intercostal recession. What emergency treatment should be administered to the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen + nebulised adrenaline
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot complete full sentences
Explanation:Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations
Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general ill-health. She has been complaining of general muscle weakness, a feeling of fatigue and a persistent cough. An autoimmune screen reveals high titres of anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this autoantibody profile?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies and Their Association with Various Conditions
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are often present in autoimmune hepatitis type 1, primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and overlap syndromes. In contrast, low titres are seen with Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infections and hepatitis A. Negative titres for ASMA are expected in healthy individuals.
It is important to note that ASMA are not found in hypothyroidism or fibrosing alveolitis. Additionally, only low titres of ASMA can be seen with hepatitis A and EBV infections.
Overall, the presence of ASMA can indicate the presence of underlying conditions and should be further investigated by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines
Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.
Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.
It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In alcoholic hepatitis the AST : ALT ratio is at least 2 : 1
Explanation:Alcoholic Liver Disease: Facts and Myths
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a common liver disease caused by overconsumption of alcohol. Here are some facts and myths about ALD:
Myth: In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 2:1.
Fact: Unlike most other liver diseases, including viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis exhibits at least a 2:1 AST:ALT ratio.Myth: Hepatic iron overload is not indicative of concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.
Fact: Evidence of iron overload, such as elevated levels of transferrin saturation and serum ferritin, is common in ALD and may indicate concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.Myth: Women are less susceptible to ALD than men.
Fact: Women are actually twice as susceptible to ALD than men, even when consumption is corrected for body weight, and may develop ALD with shorter durations and doses of chronic consumption.Myth: Alcoholic fatty infiltration is irreversible once established.
Fact: Although steatosis (fatty infiltration) will develop in any individual who consumes a large quantity of alcohol over a long period of time, this process is usually transient and reversible. Alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic fatty infiltration are reversible with abstinence and adequate nutrition.Myth: Alcoholic cirrhosis does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.
Fact: Like other causes of liver cirrhosis, alcoholic cirrhosis can also progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.In conclusion, ALD is a serious liver disease that can have irreversible consequences if not addressed in a timely manner. It is important to understand the facts and myths surrounding this disease to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner after experiencing buzzing sounds in both ears intermittently over the past two weeks. He claims that this occurs suddenly, lasts for a few seconds and is not associated with his pulse. He reports no change in his hearing or other symptoms. Ear and cranial nerve examinations are unremarkable.
Which of the following investigations are necessary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Audiogram
Explanation:Investigating Tinnitus: Guidelines and Recommendations
Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head that do not come from an outside source, affects around 1 in 10 people at some point in their life. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom of ringing in the ears, it can be distressing and may indicate a serious underlying condition. Here are some guidelines and recommendations for investigating tinnitus:
Audiological Assessment: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that all patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.
Psychoacoustic Testing: Acoustic reflex testing and psychoacoustic testing are not recommended as part of the investigation of tinnitus.
Imaging: Imaging should not be offered to people with symmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus with no associated neurological, audiological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms. If they are unable to have this, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the internal auditory meatus should be offered. An MR scan of the internal auditory meatus should only be offered to people with unilateral or asymmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus, or non-pulsatile tinnitus with associated neurological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms.
Otoacoustic Emissions: Otoacoustic emission testing should only be considered if there are other indicative symptoms and signs. All patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds while swallowing. She reports no other symptoms or changes in her health.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:Pharyngeal Pouch and Hiatus Hernia: Two Common Causes of Oesophageal Symptoms
Pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are two common conditions that can cause symptoms related to the oesophagus. A pharyngeal pouch is a diverticulum that forms in the posterior aspect of the oesophagus due to herniation between two muscles that constrict the inferior part of the pharynx. This pouch can trap food and cause halitosis, regurgitation of food or gurgling noises, and sometimes a palpable lump on the side of the neck. Treatment involves surgery to correct the herniation or sometimes to close the diverticulum.
Hiatus hernia, on the other hand, occurs when part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, leading to a retrosternal burning sensation, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and dysphagia. This condition is more common in older people and those with obesity or a history of smoking. Treatment may involve lifestyle changes, such as weight loss and avoiding trigger foods, as well as medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the lower oesophageal sphincter.
Other possible causes of oesophageal symptoms include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), oesophageal candidiasis, and oesophageal carcinoma. GORD is a chronic condition that involves reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus, causing symptoms of heartburn and acid regurgitation. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection that usually affects people with weakened immune systems. Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that can develop in the lining of the oesophagus, often with symptoms such as weight loss, dysphagia, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia. However, based on the history provided, pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are more likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral haloperidol
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion
When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound
Explanation:The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with swollen face and lips, along with wheezing. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and his blood pressure is 83/45 mmHg as per manual reading.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1 000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline
Explanation:Administering Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route
Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline is crucial in managing anaphylactic shock. However, the dosage and route of administration depend on the severity of the symptoms.
For mild symptoms, such as skin rash or itching, the administration of iv hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine is sufficient. But if the symptoms progress to involve the airways or circulation, adrenaline should be given as soon as possible. The recommended dosage for intramuscular (im) adrenaline is 1:1000.
It’s important to note that the dosage for cardiac arrest is different, and it’s given intravenously (iv) at a concentration of 1:10,000. However, routine use of iv adrenaline is not recommended unless the healthcare provider is skilled and experienced in its use.
Hydrocortisone, even by an iv route, takes several hours to have an effect and is no longer deemed to be part of emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it’s not an appropriate course of action for rapidly life-threatening situations.
In summary, administering adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires careful consideration of the dosage and route of administration. It’s crucial to act quickly and seek emergency medical attention to prevent fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient with asthma has been stable on salbutamol when required. Recently she has been experiencing shortness of breath during exercise and is using the salbutamol inhaler three times a week. She has a good inhaler technique.
Which of the following is the next step in her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addition of inhaled corticosteroids
Explanation:Choosing the Next Step in Asthma Treatment: Addition of Inhaled Corticosteroids
According to the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN)/British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidance, patients with asthma who have had an attack in the last two years, use inhaled β2 agonists three times or more a week, are symptomatic three times or more a week, or wake up one night a week should move to the next step of treatment. The preferred next step is the addition of inhaled corticosteroids, which should be titrated to the smallest effective dose while maintaining symptom control.
While an oral leukotriene-receptor antagonist is suggested as an alternative next step if the patient cannot take inhaled corticosteroids, it is not as effective as inhaled corticosteroids. Oral corticosteroids are not recommended as they have many side effects and are not necessary in this scenario.
An inhaled long-acting β2 agonist would be appropriate for the third step of treatment, but this patient should move to the second step, which involves inhaled corticosteroids and continuing as required salbutamol. Simply increasing the salbutamol dose would be inappropriate and not in line with guidance. This patient requires both preventer and reliever therapy to effectively manage her asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primip has a stillborn baby at 34 weeks gestation. The infant presents with microcephaly, micrognathia, and club feet. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trisomy 18
Explanation:Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. The baby affected by this syndrome will have experienced slow growth in the womb and will have a low birthweight. Unfortunately, around half of those who survive to birth will pass away within two weeks, and only one in every five will live for at least three months. The survival rate beyond one year is only one in every 12 babies born with Edwards’ syndrome. This information is according to NHS Choices.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.
Organisms causing meningitis in children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.
From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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