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  • Question 1 - As a locum GP, you come across a 40-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you come across a 40-year-old woman who is experiencing chills, pelvic discomfort, and painful urination. This patient has no history of diabetes. What are the possible urinalysis results that you might expect in this scenario?

      A) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: +, Glucose: +++, Nitrites: Negative, Leucocytes: +, Ketones: Negative

      B) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: +, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: ++, Ketones: +++

      C) Haemoglobin: +++, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: +++, Ketones: Negative

      D) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: ++++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: +++

      E) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: +, Bilirubin: +, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: Negative

      It is important to note that the urinalysis results may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and medical history. As a healthcare professional, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination and analysis to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient.

      Your Answer: E

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Urinalysis Findings in Urinary Tract Infection

      Urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common condition that can be diagnosed through urinalysis. Nitrites and leucocytes are typically present in large amounts in the urine of patients with UTI. Blood may also be present due to inflammation in the bladder or contamination from menstrual bleeding. In some cases, a small amount of glucose may be detected as the body responds to infection by releasing cortisol and adrenaline, which can increase blood glucose levels. However, the presence of protein on urinalysis is usually based on measurement of albumin only, and bacterial proteins are not typically detected using this method. Overall, urinalysis can provide valuable information for diagnosing and managing UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      40.6
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man underwent a renal transplant four weeks ago. The transplant was...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man underwent a renal transplant four weeks ago. The transplant was complicated by delayed graft function, which required haemodialysis on days one and three post-surgery due to hyperkalaemia. By day six, the transplant began to function, and he was discharged on day 10 with decreasing creatinine levels. He is currently taking immunosuppressants (tacrolimus, azathioprine, prednisolone), prophylaxis against opportunistic infections (co-trimoxazole, valganciclovir), aspirin, and amlodipine. Despite regular clinic visits, his potassium levels remain persistently high at 6.5 mmol/l. Which medication is likely causing this issue?

      Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Co-trimoxazole and its Side Effects

      Co-trimoxazole is a medication that is commonly used to treat and prevent Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is more prevalent in immunocompromised individuals. It is a combination of two drugs, trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, and is known to cause side effects such as gastrointestinal discomfort, rashes, and hyperkalaemia. Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood, and it is a well-known side effect of co-trimoxazole. This is because the medication inhibits sodium channels in the distal nephron, similar to the potassium-sparing diuretic amiloride.

      Although co-trimoxazole is generally safe, it can cause rare but serious side effects such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bone marrow depression, and agranulocytosis. Patients who have documented allergies to either component of the medication should avoid it and use pentamidine nebulisers as an alternative. Additionally, co-trimoxazole may be teratogenic, meaning it can cause harm to a developing fetus, so female patients should be advised to use contraception and stop taking the medication if they plan to become pregnant. Overall, co-trimoxazole is an effective medication for treating and preventing Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      10.9
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  • Question 3 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that her bags, previously clear, have become cloudy.

      She is in good health, with slight abdominal discomfort, and has successfully instilled fluid, although she only removed 1.5 liters from a 2-liter bag instilled earlier. Her abdomen is soft and only slightly tender.

      What is the probable complication?

      Your Answer: Peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Treatment of PD Peritonitis

      Peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) may not present with typical symptoms seen in non-dialysis patients. Patients may only experience mild abdominal discomfort or tenderness, or may not have any symptoms at all. The most common sign of PD peritonitis is a cloudy bag, which indicates bacterial growth. In severe cases, the fluid may resemble pea soup. It is important to note that any patient with a cloudy bag should be treated for PD peritonitis immediately with antibiotics, such as vancomycin, administered intraperitoneally, and oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin. PD exchanges should continue during treatment to flush out the peritoneal cavity.

      While surgical problems, such as appendicitis, can occur in PD patients, they typically present with local peritonism and symptoms like vomiting. Constipation may cause abdominal discomfort and outflow problems, but it does not cause cloudy bags. Fibrin can block the catheter and cause abnormal fluid appearance, but it tends to appear as strands rather than a cloudy bag and does not cause abdominal discomfort or tenderness. It is important for PD patients to be aware of the symptoms of PD peritonitis and seek immediate treatment if they notice a cloudy bag or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.7
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She is diagnosed with minimal change disease and started on steroid therapy. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria and Minimal Change Disease

      Glomerular proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste from the blood. This condition can be caused by primary glomerular disease, glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, immune complex deposition, and inherited conditions such as Alport’s syndrome. Additionally, secondary glomerular disease can result from systemic diseases like diabetes.

      One type of glomerulonephritis that is particularly common in children is minimal change disease. This condition has a good prognosis and can often be treated effectively with steroids. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat glomerular proteinuria to prevent further damage to the kidneys and maintain overall kidney function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 5 - Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?...

    Correct

    • Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
      PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.

      Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.

      Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      11.8
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.

      However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.

      He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.

      What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Haemodialysis line infection

      Explanation:

      Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection

      When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.

      While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      115.1
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  • Question 7 - What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a...

    Correct

    • What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?

      Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste

      Explanation:

      The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate

      In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.

      However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.

      The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      6.7
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium: 2.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate: 1.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - PTH: 2.05 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
      - Urea: 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine: 160 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D: 56 nmol/L (optimal level >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute renal failure

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration-Induced Acute Kidney Injury

      The biochemical indicators suggest that the patient is experiencing acute renal failure or acute kidney injury due to dehydration. The slightly elevated levels of calcium and phosphate indicate haemoconcentration, while the significantly increased urea levels compared to creatinine suggest AKI. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is common in AKI, but in a patient with stable chronic kidney disease, it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.

      It is important to note that chronic kidney disease often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism in compensation for hypocalcaemia), and anaemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Therefore, the absence of these indicators in the patient’s blood work supports the diagnosis of dehydration-induced AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.4
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  • Question 9 - An older woman is brought to the Emergency department with sudden chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman is brought to the Emergency department with sudden chest pain and coughing up blood. She has been experiencing fatigue, weakness, and weight loss for the past six weeks. Prior to this, she had occasional nosebleeds and hearing loss. Upon admission, she is confused and has a fever of 37.7°C, high blood pressure of 165/102 mmHg, and acute kidney injury with elevated potassium, urea, and creatinine levels. Her albumin is low, CRP is high, and she is anemic with an elevated ESR. A urine dipstick test shows blood and protein, and an ultrasound reveals normal-sized kidneys without obstruction or hydronephrosis. A chest X-ray shows widespread rounded opacities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pulmonary Renal Syndrome: Considerations and Differential Diagnoses

      When a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, it is important to consider the possible diagnoses as the treatments differ. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a multisystem disorder that presents with a combination of pulmonary and renal symptoms, as well as nodular lesions on chest radiographs and ENT symptoms. Other immune-mediated causes of pulmonary renal syndrome include Anti-GBM disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia. Non-immune mediated causes include acute kidney injury with pulmonary edema, severe pneumonia leading to acute tubular necrosis, respiratory infections causing acute interstitial nephritis, and thrombotic events.

      eGPA or Churg-Strauss disease is more likely to present with an asthma-like background and less likely to cause acute kidney injury. Anti-GBM disease tends to present with acute pulmonary hemorrhage rather than nodular lesions and has no ENT associations. Disseminated malignancy may be suspected from nodular lesions on x-ray and a history of hemoptysis and weight loss, but this is less likely given the rapid onset of renal failure in this case. The presence of blood and protein on dipstick suggests an active glomerulonephritis, and hypertension fits with an acute glomerulonephritis rather than sepsis.

      In summary, when a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, the combination of symptoms and diagnostic tests can help narrow down the possible causes. It is important to consider both immune-mediated and non-immune mediated causes, as well as the patient’s medical history and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      42
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin for a week. She also requests a refill of her oral contraceptive pill, bendroflumethiazide, lansoprazole, and naproxen, which she has been taking for the past nine months due to a skiing injury.

      After three weeks, she returns to the doctor with joint pains and a mild rash. Blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 356 µmol/L and an eosinophilia of 1.7 ×109/L (NR 0-0.4). The doctor refers her to renal services with a suspected diagnosis of tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Which medication is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis in this case is amoxicillin, which can cause acute inflammation of the tubules and interstitium of the kidney. TIN can also be caused by other drugs, infections, and autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves removing the causative agent and using oral steroids to dampen inflammation. Chronic TIN can lead to end stage renal failure. Drug-induced TIN is usually due to hypersensitivity reactions and is characterized by raised IgE levels and eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      19.3
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  • Question 11 - A 47-year-old patient arrives at the dialysis center for their thrice-weekly haemodialysis. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient arrives at the dialysis center for their thrice-weekly haemodialysis. They have end stage renal failure caused by membranous glomerulonephritis and no other health issues. The patient reports feeling fatigued but is otherwise in good health. During routine blood work, their haemoglobin level is found to be 89 g/L (115-165). If the anaemia is a result of their renal disease, what is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: No intervention

      Correct Answer: Intravenous iron plus or minus parenteral erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      Patients with end stage kidney disease have poor iron absorption and lack endogenous erythropoietin, making parenteral iron replacement and erythropoietin the best management. Anaemia is common in these patients due to poor oral iron absorption and GI blood loss. Acute packed red cell transfusion is extreme and renal transplant may be an option, but the patient’s haemoglobin can be modified with increased IV iron and epo doses. Oral iron tablets are poorly absorbed and tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.3
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with end stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy underwent a kidney transplant from a deceased brainstem donor and experienced successful primary graft function. After being discharged eight days post-surgery, his creatinine levels stabilized at 85 umol/l with regular clinic visits. However, at seven weeks post-transplant, his creatinine levels increased to 190 umol/l despite being asymptomatic. As a result, he was admitted for further evaluation. What would be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Request a renal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sudden rise in creatinine after stent removal suggests obstruction leading to hydronephrosis. This is the most likely diagnosis, but other possibilities include acute rejection, calcineurin toxicity, infection, or surgical complications. A renal ultrasound is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other issues before a renal biopsy can be considered. Donor specific antibodies may also be tested, but a biopsy is still necessary for confirmation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      52
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  • Question 13 - A 47-year-old woman visits the renal clinic after six weeks of a triumphant...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits the renal clinic after six weeks of a triumphant renal transplant. She has some inquiries about her immunosuppression for the consultant. The doctor clarifies that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the initial utilization of an induction agent, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. What is the name of the anti-lymphocyte monoclonal antibody used as an induction agent?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus

      Correct Answer: Alemtuzumab

      Explanation:

      Immunosuppressive Drugs and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD52 and depletes mature lymphocytes, but not stem cells. It has been found to be more effective than traditional therapy in preparing patients for renal transplantation.

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes the production of IL-2, the primary cytokine that drives T cell proliferation.

      Both azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are antimetabolites that disrupt DNA synthesis. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, which prevents purine synthesis. Azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine, triggering apoptosis.

      Sirolimus is an mTOR inhibitor that acts downstream of IL-2 signaling to promote T cell proliferation and survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      10.8
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  • Question 14 - What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B cells to quickly control ANCA associated vasculitides while sparing other lymphocytes?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin

      Correct Answer: Rituximab

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis

      ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. There are several treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity of the disease. Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are induction agents used in severe or very active disease. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that causes profound B cell depletion.

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are maintenance agents used for their steroid sparing effect. They can also be used to induce remission in mild disease, but their maximal effect takes three to four weeks. Therefore, they are not appropriate for severe or very active disease. Ciclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that blocks IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells. However, it is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the disease and the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      14
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.

      The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old patient presents to her GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents to her GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - PTH: 7.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
      - Urea: 5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D: 50 nmol/L (optimal level >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate levels. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with the first indication being an incidental finding of high calcium levels. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification. The high levels of PTH can cause enhanced bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis. Additionally, the high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can predispose patients to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can also cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually. Patients with chronic kidney disease may also have elevated PTH levels, but hypocalcaemia is more common due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. primary hyperparathyroidism and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.4
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  • Question 17 - As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five patients you have never met before. The results are as follows:

      Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.8 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L.

      Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L.

      Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L.

      Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L.

      Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L.

      Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have acute kidney injury (AKI). Take your time to carefully review the results and make an informed decision.

      Your Answer: Patient C

      Correct Answer: Patient D

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration and Kidney Function

      The biochemical indicators in a patient’s blood can provide insight into their kidney function and hydration status. In cases of dehydration leading to acute renal failure (ARF) or acute kidney injury (AKI), there may be slight elevations in calcium and phosphate levels, indicating some haemoconcentration. However, the urea level is typically significantly higher compared to a more modest increase in creatinine. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is commonly seen in AKI, whereas in stable chronic kidney disease (CKD), it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.

      CKD often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) as a compensatory response to hypocalcaemia, and anemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, such as Patient A and B, may have inappropriately high PTH levels with mild hypercalcaemia. Patient C, on the other hand, has CKD with secondary hyperparathyroidism. Finally, Patient E has normal blood indicators, suggesting no significant kidney or hydration issues.

      Overall, the biochemical indicators of dehydration and kidney function can aid in diagnosing and managing ARF, AKI, and CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 18 - A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that the first bag of the morning is often difficult to instil, and she cannot remove any fluid after the four hour dwell. Later in the day, this is better, and she can usually remove the fluid from the morning and instil the next bag and remove it after the dwell. What is the most probable reason for this issue?

      Your Answer: Catheter malposition

      Correct Answer: Catheter kinking

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Kinking of the catheter is a common issue that occurs shortly after insertion. This can cause problems with both fluid inflow and outflow, and symptoms may vary depending on the patient’s position. Catheter malposition is another early issue that can be painful and uncomfortable for the patient. If absorption of PD fluid is occurring, patients may experience signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating a need for a higher concentration of osmotic agent in the fluid. Constipation is a consistent cause of outflow obstruction, while leakage can be noticed as fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues. It is important to monitor for these common issues and address them promptly to ensure the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman who suffers from chronic back pain and takes regular doses...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who suffers from chronic back pain and takes regular doses of paracetamol and ibuprofen has been diagnosed with proteinuria at a level of 900 mg/24 hours. Upon further examination, it was discovered that her urine contains small proteins with minimal amounts of albumin. What could be the probable reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria and its Possible Causes

      Proteinuria is the presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine, which may indicate an underlying medical condition. While a small amount of protein is normally present in urine, a high level of protein in urine is a sign of a pathological cause. The possible origins of protein in urine are shown in the diagram.

      In cases where there is tubulointerstitial damage, chronic use of analgesics and/or anti-inflammatory drugs, particularly NSAIDs, is the likely cause. This type of damage impairs the reabsorption of filtered low molecular weight proteins, leading to tubular proteinuria. This type of proteinuria typically results in the non-selective loss of relatively small proteins in the urine. the possible causes of proteinuria can help in the diagnosis and treatment of underlying medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman who leads an active lifestyle visits her doctor for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who leads an active lifestyle visits her doctor for a routine work-related health check-up. During the check-up, her urinalysis shows a positive result for protein (+) and a 24-hour urine collection is ordered. The results reveal a urine protein level of 25 mg/24 hours. What recommendations should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: This result makes it likely that he will develop kidney disease in the future

      Correct Answer: This result is within normal limits

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria and its Significance in Patient Assessment

      Proteinuria is a condition where protein is present in the urine, which can be an indicator of kidney disease or other underlying health issues. When assessing a patient with suspected proteinuria, it is important to consider their age, activity levels, and the presence of diseases such as diabetes.

      Urine albumin levels of 30-300 mg/24 hours are considered microalbuminuria, which is a marker of cardiovascular risk and can predict chronic kidney disease, especially in patients with diabetes. This is usually estimated using the albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), where an ACR of >3.5 mg/mmol in women or >2.5 mg/mmol in men is considered abnormal. Albuminuria is defined as >300 mg/24 hours or an ACR of >30 mg/mmol.

      In some patients, particularly young adults, low-level proteinuria (140 mg – 1 g /24 hours) can be normal and may be caused by factors such as exercise, postural changes, or a high protein diet. However, urine microscopy should be done to exclude casts or cells. Proteinuria levels of 1-2 g/24 hours are more concerning and can be a sign of developing kidney disease such as glomerulonephritis.

      If proteinuria levels exceed 3 g/24 hours, it is diagnostic of nephrotic syndrome and requires admission to the hospital for further investigation and management. Some authorities use a cut-off of 3.5 g/24 hours in this case. the significance of proteinuria levels is crucial in patient assessment and can aid in the early detection and management of kidney disease and other underlying health issues.

      Overall, proteinuria levels should be carefully monitored and evaluated in the context of the patient’s overall health and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old male visits his doctor two days after finishing a marathon. He...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male visits his doctor two days after finishing a marathon. He expresses worry about the reddish-brown hue of his urine and his overall feeling of illness. What is the pigment responsible for the urine discoloration?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria

      Rhabdomyolysis is a common condition that occurs after extreme physical exertion, such as running a marathon. It is characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, which releases myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin is a small molecule that is normally found in muscle cells, but when released into the circulation, it can cause urine to turn a dark color.

      There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injuries, ischemia, severe electrolyte imbalances, bacterial and viral infections, and inherited metabolic disorders like McArdle’s disease. In rare cases, certain drugs like barbiturates and statins can also cause rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine, as it can lead to serious complications like kidney failure if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as rehydration and electrolyte replacement, and may require hospitalization in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      9.7
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever. Upon examination by an ENT specialist, she was found to have serous otitis media. Further tests revealed protein +++ and 20 RBC/hpf in her urine, while her serum rheumatoid factor was negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a disease that can develop slowly or suddenly, and its full range of symptoms may take years to appear. The initial symptoms of GPA include severe nosebleeds, sinusitis, nasal ulcers, ear infections, hearing loss, coughing, and chest pain. Renal involvement is also common, with glomerulonephritis causing proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

      Symptoms of GPA can be varied and may take time to develop fully. Renal involvement is a common feature of the disease, and proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts are often seen. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the ESR is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of ANCA are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.6
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  • Question 23 - A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD...

    Incorrect

    • A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?

      Your Answer: S. aureus

      Correct Answer: Coagulase negative staph

      Explanation:

      Causes of PD Peritonitis

      PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and overweight...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and overweight presents to his GP with severe hypertension. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is a risk factor for the development of renal artery stenosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and its Risk Factors

      Renal artery stenosis is a common cause of hypertension that occurs when the renal arteries become narrowed, reducing blood flow to the kidneys. This condition can be unilateral or bilateral and can lead to the release of renin, which stimulates aldosterone production through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

      Individuals with a history of COPD are likely to have a smoking history of at least 20-pack years, if not more. Although COPD can be caused by other factors such as alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency or coal mining, the presence of COPD in a patient’s medical history should raise suspicion of a smoking history.

      The most common cause of renal artery stenosis is atherosclerotic disease, which shares similar risk factors with cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease. These risk factors include smoking, hypertension, female gender, hypercholesterolemia with low HDL cholesterol and high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, and peripheral vascular disease and erectile dysfunction, which are indicative of arteriopathy/atherosclerosis.

      In summary, renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to hypertension and is commonly caused by atherosclerotic disease. Individuals with a history of COPD should be evaluated for smoking history, and those with risk factors for cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease should be monitored for the development of renal artery stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of glomerulonephritis is scheduled to undergo a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of glomerulonephritis is scheduled to undergo a 24-hour urinary protein collection. What is the recommended starting time for the collection?

      Your Answer: Start with the last void before bed

      Correct Answer: Start after the first morning void

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Accurate 24 Hour Urine Collection

      Twenty four hour urine collections are essential for measuring urinary protein levels and diagnosing various conditions. However, the accuracy and reproducibility of the test can be limited due to the difficulty in performing it correctly. To ensure accurate results, laboratories provide guidelines to patients for the procedure of taking a 24 hour urine collection.

      The guidelines advise patients to use the correct bottle for the test and to read the leaflet about dietary requirements during the test. Some analytes can be affected by diet before and during the test, so it is important to follow the instructions carefully. Patients should also be aware that some bottles contain acid, which prevents degradation of certain analytes and prevents false negative results. If there is a small amount of liquid already in the bottle, patients should not throw it out as it is usually there as a preservative.

      To start the collection, patients should begin after the first void of the day and collect all urine for 24 hours, including the first void the following day. Although the start time does not technically matter, starting after the first void tends to be at a similar time on consecutive days, minimizing error.

      The main errors made in urine collections are overcollection and undercollection. Overcollection occurs when patients collect for more than 24 hours, leading to a falsely high urine protein result. Patients should consider overcollection if urine volumes are greater than 3-4L/day. Undercollection occurs when patients collect for less than 24 hours, leading to a falsely low result. Patients should suspect undercollection if urine volumes are less than 1 L/day. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure accurate and reliable results from their 24 hour urine collection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney disease of unknown origin. He is experiencing general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. His GFR has remained stable at 15 with a baseline creatinine of 385 μmol/L (and urea of 21 mmol/L) for over a year. However, recent blood work shows abnormal levels of Na, K, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, Ca, Phos, Hb, and MCV.

      Which medication would be the most beneficial to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      Recommended Treatment for a Patient with CKD Stage 5

      Of the drugs listed, erythropoietin is the most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 who is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath due to low hemoglobin levels. However, it is important to check the patient’s haematinics to ensure that iron, B12, or folate supplementation would not be more beneficial. Alfacalcidol is typically used to treat hyperparathyroidism, but it is not necessary for CKD stage 5 patients until their parathyroid hormone levels rise above 28 pmol/L, according to the Renal Association Guidelines. Since the patient’s bicarbonate levels are normal, oral supplementation is not required. Calcichew D3 and sevelamer are phosphate binders that prevent hyperphosphataemia, but they are not necessary for this patient. For further information, refer to the Renal Association Clinical Practice Guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.5
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.

      Investigations showed:

      - Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
      - White cell Count 11 ×109/L (3.5-10)
      - Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-450)
      - ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)

      Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis Nodosa

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.

      One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man visits the clinic with his 35-year-old son, who has been...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits the clinic with his 35-year-old son, who has been diagnosed with IgA nephropathy and is in CKD stage 5. The man wishes to be evaluated as a potential live kidney donor for his son. He has a history of mild hypertension that is managed with 2.5 mg of ramipril daily. He has never had any surgeries, does not smoke, and only drinks alcohol in moderation.

      As part of the consent process for kidney donation, what advice should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: There is no significant increase in hypertension in donors compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      The Health Benefits and Risks of Being a Kidney Donor

      Surprisingly, being a kidney donor can have health benefits. Studies have shown that live donors have lower long-term morbidity and mortality rates than the general population. This is likely due to the rigorous screening process that selects only those with excellent overall health.

      While reducing renal mass could potentially lead to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate and an increased risk of end-stage renal failure or hypertension, large-scale studies with up to 35 years of follow-up have shown no increased risk compared to the general population. However, potential donors should be warned about the possibility of end-stage renal failure, particularly those with borderline GFR for donation.

      As with any surgery, there are risks involved in kidney donation. The risk of death is quoted at 1 in 3000, and there is a 1-2% risk of major complications such as pneumothorax, injury to other organs, renovascular injury, DVT, or PE. There is also a 20% risk of minor complications such as post-operative atelectasis, pneumonia, wound infection, hematoma, incisional hernia, or urinary tract infection.

      To ensure the safety of potential donors, they undergo thorough screening, including a comprehensive medical history, family history, and physical examination. They also undergo extensive investigations of cardiovascular, respiratory, and psychological fitness, as well as multiple tests of renal function and anatomy to determine if it is safe to proceed and select the kidney to be removed.

      In conclusion, kidney donation can have health benefits for the donor, but it is not without risks. Only the healthiest individuals are selected as donors, and they undergo rigorous screening to ensure their safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain, weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain, weight loss, a vasculitic rash, and overall fatigue. Upon examination, she has elevated inflammatory markers, blood and protein in her urine, and positive MPO ANCA antibodies. She is urgently referred to renal physicians and undergoes a renal biopsy, which reveals crescentic glomerulonephritis. The diagnosis is microscopic polyangiitis. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis

      In patients with a new diagnosis of ANCA vasculitis and multi-organ involvement, it is crucial to start reducing inflammation as soon as possible. The most appropriate initial therapy is IV steroids due to their rapid onset of action. Azathioprine is used for maintenance therapy and preventing relapse, but it takes several weeks to have its full effect and is not suitable for organ-threatening disease. Cyclophosphamide is the next choice of treatment and is often used in combination with IV steroids. Plasma exchange is used in severe cases, but its benefit over other therapies is still unclear. Rituximab is becoming more popular as an alternative to cyclophosphamide and has been shown to be as effective at inducing remission. However, all patients will receive IV steroids before receiving a definitive agent such as cyclophosphamide or rituximab. In patients with pulmonary haemorrhage or rapid deterioration, plasma exchange should be considered as a means of reducing antibody titres. Proper treatment is essential for managing ANCA vasculitis and preventing further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute cellular rejection

      Correct Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy

      Explanation:

      Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients

      Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.

      BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.

      Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 31 - Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?

    Patient A:
    Adjusted calcium -...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 145 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.0 mmol/L
      PTH - 4.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 50 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 280 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 367 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient D

      Correct Answer: Patient A

      Explanation:

      Renal Impairment and Calcium Homeostasis

      Although interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without information about body habitus and muscle mass, Patient A likely has CKD3 based on their creatinine level of 145. It is important to have a general of the severity of renal impairment based on creatinine levels. Patients with an eGFR of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2 are classified as having CKD3. This classification applies to men and women between the ages of 20 and 80 years old.

      Patients B, C, and D have more advanced renal disease, and depending on the clinical context, patients B and D may have acute renal failure. Patient E, on the other hand, does not have any renal impairment.

      Patients with kidney disease often experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. At the CKD3 stage, most patients have normal plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate. However, as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4, more subtle abnormalities may arise, such as a slight increase in PTH due to reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase.

      Although Patient A has suboptimal levels of vitamin D, this is not uncommon. Risk factors for vitamin D insufficiency include old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old woman undergoing haemodialysis for end stage renal failure caused by vesico-ureteric...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman undergoing haemodialysis for end stage renal failure caused by vesico-ureteric reflux is experiencing a dry, flaky skin and an itchy rash. What is the probable complication of end stage renal failure responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperphosphataemia and Itching in End Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Patients with end stage renal failure often experience hyperphosphataemia, which is caused by the loss of renal control over calcium/phosphate balance. This occurs because the kidneys are no longer able to excrete phosphate and produce activated vitamin D. As a result, calcium levels decrease, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which maintains calcium levels but at the expense of raised phosphate levels. Hyperphosphataemia can cause itching and dermatitis, making it important to restrict dietary phosphate intake and use phosphate binders taken with meals to prevent phosphate absorption.

      While anaemia is common in dialysis patients, it does not typically cause itching. Polycythaemia, which can occur in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to excessive erythropoietin production, can cause itching, but this is unlikely to be the cause of itching in this patient with end stage renal failure. Hypovolaemia may cause dry skin, but it is unlikely to cause an itchy rash. Hypophosphataemia is also extremely unlikely in renal patients and does not tend to cause itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 34 - Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The...

    Correct

    • Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
      Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
      Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
      Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
      Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
      Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
      Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120

      Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Bella Barnard

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.

      The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 35 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?

      Your Answer: Leak from catheter site

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 36 - A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. They have previously been diagnosed with a condition by their former GP. The GP orders blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Adjusted calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      Phosphate 2.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      PTH 12.53 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      Urea 22.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      Creatinine 540 µmol/L (60-120)
      25 OH Vit D 32 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute renal failure

      Correct Answer: CKD 5

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chronic Kidney Disease from Acute Renal Failure

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and acute renal failure (ARF) can both result in elevated creatinine levels, but other factors can help differentiate between the two conditions. In the case of a patient with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, CKD is more likely than ARF. These metabolic changes are commonly seen in CKD 4-5 and are not typically present in ARF of short duration. Additionally, the relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea suggests CKD rather than ARF, which can be caused by dehydration and result in even higher urea levels.

      This patient likely has CKD and may already be dependent on dialysis or under regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients begin dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      15.5
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  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his three-hour session. These cramps persist throughout the evening after dialysis and gradually subside. What substance are we removing excessively that could be causing these cramps?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Correct Answer: Fluid

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing cramps due to too much fluid being removed during dialysis, leading to hypoperfusion of muscles. Hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia can also cause cramps, but are less likely to be the cause in this case. Removal of urea is unlikely to cause any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 38 - As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental...

    Correct

    • As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:

      Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: +++
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative
      Ketones: +

      What could be the possible explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.

      It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 39 - A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right leg that has been bothering him for a week. Upon examination, the GP observes a foot drop on the right side with 3/5 power for dorsiflexion, as well as a bilateral sensory peripheral neuropathy that is worse on the right side. The GP also notices weakness of wrist extension on the left, which the patient had not previously mentioned. The patient's chest, heart, and abdomen appear normal, and his urine dipstick is clear. His medical history is significant only for asthma, which was diagnosed four years ago.

      The patient's FBC reveals a white cell count of 6.7 x109/l (normal range: 4 - 11), with neutrophils at 4.2 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 7), lymphocytes at 2.3 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 4), and eosinophils at 2.2 x109/l (normal range: 0.04 - 0.4). His ESR is 68mm/hr (normal range: 0 - 15), and his biochemistry is normal except for a raised CRP at 52 mg/l. Nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitude sensory signals bilaterally and patchy axonal degeneration on the right side with reduced motor amplitude.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Mononeuritis Multiplex

      Mononeuritis multiplex is a condition characterized by the inflammation of multiple nerves, resulting in both sensory and motor symptoms. While several conditions can cause this, eGPA is the most likely diagnosis for this patient due to his history of adult onset asthma and significantly raised eosinophil count. The painful loss of function, raised inflammatory markers, and reduced amplitude nerve conduction studies also suggest an inflammatory cause of his neuropathy.

      While amyloidosis is a possibility, the patient has no history of a disorder that might predispose to secondary amyloid, and no signs of systemic amyloidosis. B12 deficiency and diabetes mellitus are unlikely causes of mononeuritis multiplex, as they do not typically present with this pattern of neuropathy. Lyme disease is also unlikely, as the patient has no rash or arthritis and no history of tick bite.

      In summary, while several conditions can cause mononeuritis multiplex, the patient’s history and test results suggest eGPA as the most likely diagnosis. It is important to consider other possibilities, such as amyloidosis, but the inflammatory nature of the patient’s symptoms points towards eGPA as the primary cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 40 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department feeling generally ill. The laboratory...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department feeling generally ill. The laboratory contacts you to report dangerously low serum sodium levels before you can see him. After diagnosis, it is discovered that he has a hormone excess. Which hormone could be the cause?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Imbalances and Their Effects on Sodium Levels

      Hormones play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including water and sodium balance. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) allows for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, independent of sodium. However, an excess of ADH can lead to hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is commonly caused by dehydration, but can also be due to medications, tumours, or lung diseases.

      On the other hand, aldosterone is responsible for tubular Na+ and Cl- reabsorption, water retention, and K+ excretion. In excess, one would expect hypernatraemia, or high levels of sodium in the blood. However, the elevation in plasma sodium is usually mild, as the increased sodium is balanced by water retention.

      When ADH is excessively produced, it is known as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). This results in net retention of water and a decrease in sodium levels. In mild cases, this can cause confusion and unsteadiness, but in severe cases, it can lead to coma and even death.

      It is important to note that hyponatraemia is a common finding in hospitalized patients, and inappropriate ADH secretion is often blamed. However, this should only be considered in the context of a euvolaemic patient, meaning they are not dehydrated or overloaded. Correction of this imbalance should be prioritized before seeking other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What is a frequently occurring complication of this condition?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome and its Complications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by three main symptoms: hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and edema. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk of developing complications such as thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also a possible complication of nephrotic syndrome, although not all patients with the condition will have a history of established renal disease prior to presentation. The risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome.

      One unusual complication of nephrotic syndrome is hypercalcemia, which is not commonly seen in this condition. Abnormal plasma protein proportions can cause changes in the binding of electrolytes, drugs, and other solutes, leading to low ionized calcium levels. In severe cases, this may result in symptoms of hypocalcemia. However, in CKD, hypocalcemia is a common occurrence and can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      In summary, the symptoms and complications of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for proper management and treatment of the condition. While hypercalcemia is not a common complication, patients with nephrotic syndrome are at an increased risk of developing thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Additionally, the risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after being found on the floor following a night out. There are suspicions that he may have taken drugs, although the exact substance is unknown. Upon examination, he is found to be semi-conscious with a rapid respiratory rate. A catheterisation procedure yields 25 mls of dark brown coloured urine which tests positive for haemoglobin using urinalysis.

      What potential blood and electrolyte imbalances should be anticipated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia with acidosis

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with several biochemical abnormalities, including elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), potassium, urate, and myoglobinuria. Additionally, calcium levels may be elevated intracellularly in myocytes, but normal or low in the blood during the early stages of the disease. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels in the blood may increase. Acidosis is also a common symptom of rhabdomyolysis.

      Early and aggressive treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis. Rehydration and managing hyperkalemia can help reduce the likelihood of developing complications such as arrhythmias due to electrolyte disturbance, renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and compartment syndrome. By the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals with rhabdomyolysis can receive the necessary treatment to manage the condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. During the examination, her urine test shows positive results for protein. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is discovered that this is the first time she has had proteinuria. What further tests should be conducted to investigate this finding?

      Your Answer: ACR and 24 hour urine protein collection

      Correct Answer: ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) and microbiology

      Explanation:

      Investigating Proteinuria in Diabetic Patients

      Proteinuria or microalbuminuria is a significant finding in diabetic patients. It indicates an increased risk of developing diabetic nephropathy in type 1 diabetes and an additional risk factor for cardiovascular disease in type 2 diabetes. When a diabetic patient presents with proteinuria, it is crucial to rule out infection, which is a common cause of increased urinary protein excretion. A urine microbiology test can identify the presence of infection, while an albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) can quantify the degree of proteinuria and allow for future monitoring. Although HbA1c, serum urea/creatinine, and plasma glucose are standard tests for monitoring diabetic patients, they do not help quantify urinary protein loss or exclude infection. A high HbA1c in this situation could indicate longstanding poor glycemic control or poor glycemic control for several weeks due to infection. Therefore, ACR and urine microbiology are the most useful investigations to investigate proteinuria in diabetic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      - PTH 15.21 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      - Urea 4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine 81 µmol/L (60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D 12 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Deficiency and its Effects on the Body

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can be caused by a lack of dietary vitamin D or insufficient exposure to sunlight. This deficiency is more common in certain populations, such as the elderly, institutionalized patients, and ethnic groups with dark skin tones. Additionally, reduced sunlight exposure due to cultural dress codes, poor intake of dairy foods, and malabsorption states affecting fat-soluble vitamins can also contribute to vitamin D deficiency.

      When the kidneys are functioning normally, they activate vitamin D through the 1-alpha hydroxylase mechanism. The actions of 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D have various effects on the body. It has a direct effect on the gut, increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate. It also has a direct effect on the kidney, inhibiting its own synthesis by reducing 1-alpha hydroxylase activity. Furthermore, it has a direct effect on the parathyroids, inhibiting PTH synthesis. At high concentrations, activated vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity, promoting bone resorption.

      In conclusion, the risk factors and effects of vitamin D deficiency is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing related conditions. Adequate exposure to sunlight and a balanced diet can help prevent vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 45 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg and grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. She has no known medical history. What clinical or biochemical finding could indicate a potential diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperaldosteronism: A Common Cause of Hypertension

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a prevalent cause of hypertension that typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it is often asymptomatic in its early stages and may not be diagnosed until several decades later. This condition may account for approximately 10% of hypertension cases and is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, onset of hypertension at a young age, and hypertension that is difficult to control with more than three medications.

      The primary cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is either adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia, which preferentially affects the zona glomerulosa. Adrenal adenomas are usually unilateral, but bilateral adenomas can occur in a minority of cases. On the other hand, adrenal hyperplasia typically causes bilateral disease. Despite the decreased occurrence of hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis in primary hyperaldosteronism, it remains a significant contributor to hypertension and should be considered in patients with uncontrolled hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.

      Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years, he experienced hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primary osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Avascular Necrosis and Its Causes

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the bones is temporarily or permanently lost. This can be caused by various factors, including trauma or vascular disease. Some of the conditions that can lead to AVN include hypertension, sickle cell disease, caisson disease, and radiation-induced arthritis. Additionally, certain factors such as corticosteroid therapy, connective tissue disease, alcohol abuse, marrow storage disease (Gaucher’s disease), and dyslipoproteinaemia can also be associated with AVN in a more complex manner.

      Of all the cases of non-traumatic avascular necrosis, 35% are associated with systemic (oral or intravenous) corticosteroid use. It is important to understand the causes of AVN in order to prevent and manage the condition effectively. By identifying the underlying factors that contribute to AVN, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and help patients manage their symptoms. With proper care and management, individuals with AVN can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 48 - What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What distinguishes haemodialysis from haemofiltration as methods of renal replacement therapy?

      Your Answer: Haemofiltration requires much smaller volumes to be filtered to clear solutes

      Correct Answer: Haemodialysis removes solutes by osmosis

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis vs Haemofiltration

      Haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two methods of renal replacement therapy used to treat patients with kidney failure. Haemodialysis involves removing blood at a high flow rate and passing it through a dialyser with dialysis fluid running in the opposite direction. This creates a constant diffusion gradient, allowing solutes to diffuse across and be removed from the blood. Haemodialysis is administered intermittently and is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient.

      On the other hand, haemofiltration is less efficient and requires high volumes to achieve the same degree of solute clearance. It works by passing the blood at low flow rates but high pressures through the dialyser without dialysate fluid. Instead, a transmembrane pressure gradient is created, allowing fluid to be squeezed out. However, it is less efficient at solute clearance. Haemofiltration requires replacement fluid to be administered to avoid hypovolaemia due to the large volumes filtered.

      In summary, haemodialysis and haemofiltration are two different methods of renal replacement therapy. Haemodialysis is highly effective at solute removal due to the high flow rates and constant diffusion gradient, while haemofiltration is more efficient at clearing fluid but less efficient at solute clearance. Both methods have their advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of therapy depends on the patient’s individual needs and medical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 49 - As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five patients you have never met before. Your task is to review the results and identify which patient is likely to have nephrotic syndrome. The results are as follows:

      Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L.

      Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L.

      Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L.

      Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L.

      Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L.

      It is important to note that the normal values for each of these parameters are also provided. With this information, you must determine which patient is likely to have nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Patient C

      Correct Answer: Patient E

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by heavy proteinuria, low serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition may also have severe hyperlipidemia and altered clotting due to the loss of clotting factors in the urine. It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology.

      One of the key indicators of nephrotic syndrome is proteinuria, which is the presence of excessive protein in the urine. Patients with this condition typically have proteinuria greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours. Additionally, low serum albumin levels, which are less than 25 g/L, are also common in patients with nephrotic syndrome. Peripheral edema, or swelling in the extremities, is another hallmark of this condition.

      Patients with nephrotic syndrome may also experience severe hyperlipidemia, which is characterized by high levels of total cholesterol, often exceeding 10 mmol/L. The loss of clotting factors in the urine can also cause altered clotting, leading to a procoagulant effect. This can be treated with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.

      Overall, the key features of nephrotic syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Further investigation, such as urinalysis, may be necessary to confirm the presence of heavy proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 50 - A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident....

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident. The duration of his lying there is uncertain. Upon the arrival of paramedics, his GCS is 10, and his blood pressure is 92/66 mmHg with a pulse of 96 bpm. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, his blood test results reveal a urea level of 44 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5 - 7.5) and a creatinine level of 620 µmol/l (normal range: 60 - 110). A catheterization procedure produces 50 mls of brown-colored urine. What additional blood test should be requested to determine the cause of his kidney dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis and Compartment Syndrome

      Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that can occur as a result of various factors, including trauma, crush injury, compartment syndrome, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders, and certain drugs. In order to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, a CK test should be requested.

      One of the common causes of rhabdomyolysis is trauma, such as a road traffic accident. In such cases, it is important to rule out compartment syndrome, which can develop due to the effects of rhabdomyolysis on muscle fibres. Compartment syndrome is characterized by a disruption to the oxygen supply to the muscle, leading to ATP depletion and a build-up of intracellular calcium. This can cause myocyte swelling and impaired function, leading to hypovolaemia and excess fluid sequestration.

      Restoring the blood supply can cause reperfusion injury, which can further damage the myocytes and cause them to swell further, leading to the development of compartment syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to address compartment syndrome in trauma patients in order to improve their clinical picture. By the causes and effects of rhabdomyolysis and compartment syndrome, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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