-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding pneumococcal vaccine is true for individuals?
Your Answer: Diet-controlled diabetics require the pneumococcal vaccine
Correct Answer: Adults should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine rather than the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
Explanation:The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after being exposed to her mother who has been diagnosed with facial shingles one day ago.
She was unaware of what the rash was and had examined the rash closely two days ago before her mother was diagnosed. She informs you that she is unaware of ever having Chickenpox.
What is the most appropriate action that should be taken for this patient?Your Answer: She should be tested immediately for IgG antibodies to Varicella zoster
Explanation:Management of VZV Exposure in a Non-Immune Patient
The patient has a significant history of exposure to Varicella zoster virus (VZV), which puts her at risk of acquiring Chickenpox if she is non-immune. However, it is possible that she may have had VZV infection as a child. Therefore, the first step in managing this situation is to measure IgG antibodies to VZV. If the antibodies are present, no further action is required, and the patient can be relatively reassured.
On the other hand, if the patient is non-immune, she will likely need to be treated with VZ immunoglobulin. This treatment has been shown to reduce the severity of the infection and prevent fetal infection. It is important to note that prompt management of VZV exposure in non-immune patients is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she be offered annually in primary care?
Your Answer: Cardiovascular risk factor monitoring
Correct Answer: All of the options listed
Explanation:Managing HIV in Primary Care: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with HIV are at an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and antiretroviral therapy can further increase the risk of diabetes and dyslipidaemia. Women with HIV are also more susceptible to human papillomavirus-related diseases and should undergo annual cervical screening. To ensure good sexual health and maintain protective sexual behavior, patients should have access to staff trained to carry out a sexual history and sexual health assessment, as well as counseling and support. Additionally, patients should be offered a full sexual health screen annually. Despite concerns about contraindications, the influenza vaccine is safe for patients with HIV as it is an inactivated virus. These guidelines aim to support primary care teams in managing the unique considerations and risks associated with HIV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Behcet's disease
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.
Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.
Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.
Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.
It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.
Understanding Chancroid
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She has been feeling unwell since her return, experiencing shortness of breath and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears pale and a blood test reveals iron-deficiency anemia. A stool sample is positive for hookworm and she begins treatment. Her mother is worried that the rest of the family may have contracted the infection.
Select the only accurate statement regarding the transmission of hookworm.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Walking barefoot is a risk factor for the disease
Explanation:Hookworm Infestation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hookworm infestation is a parasitic infection caused by a nematode worm that lives in the small intestine of its host. It is acquired through eating contaminated food or walking barefoot on contaminated ground. The worms migrate through the body to the lungs, where they are coughed up and swallowed, completing their life cycle in the digestive tract and excreted in faeces.
Most hookworm infections are asymptomatic, but the most significant risk is anaemia due to loss of iron and protein in the gut. The worms suck blood and damage the mucosa, but the blood loss is occult. Larval invasion of the skin can cause intense, local itching, usually on the foot or lower leg, followed by lesions that look like insect bites. They can also cause the serpiginous lesions of cutaneous larva migrans.
Diagnosis is made by finding characteristic worm eggs on microscopic examination of the stools, and there may also be eosinophilia. Albendazole is the most effective medication for treatment. Relying on adequately cooked food will prevent faeco-oral but not percutaneous transmission.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). She is aware of the link with cervical cancer and is concerned.
Select from the list the type of HPV infection that is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asymptomatic infection
Explanation:Understanding Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and its Association with Cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a virus that infects the skin and mucosae of the upper respiratory and anogenital tracts. With about 100 types of HPV, 40 of them infect the genital tract. HPV is classified as either ‘high-risk’ or ‘low-risk’ types, depending on their association with cancer. HPV16 is responsible for over 50% of all cervical cancers, while HPV18 is responsible for over 15%. Although most high-risk infections are transient and cause no clinical problems, persistent infection by a high-risk HPV type is the most important factor for the development of cancer. Types 6 and 11 are associated with anogenital warts and are included in one of the HPV vaccines (Gardasil®) along with types 16 and 18. It is recommended that individuals receive the HPV vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy
Explanation:To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.
Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.
What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy
Explanation:Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers
Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.
In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests
Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.
Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.
It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and a cough. He is starting to develop a maculopapular rash on his face and upper trunk and has a temperature of 39oC.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles
Measles is characterized by a 4-day prodrome with cough and conjunctivitis, which is not seen in any other condition. While rubella has a similar prodrome, it is milder and fever is not as high. Parvovirus B19’s rash appears in the convalescent phase, while infectious mononucleosis presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and malaise. The rash in primary HIV is macular, erythematous, and truncal, and is accompanied by painful oral ulceration and lymphadenopathy. However, if a patient presents with cough and conjunctivitis, measles should be considered as a possible diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)