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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman comes in for a routine eye exam and is found...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes in for a routine eye exam and is found to have a reproducible peripheral vision defect in her left eye. She reports no noticeable changes in her vision. Tonometry shows intraocular pressure of 17 mmHg in the left eye and 19 mmHg in the right eye (normal range is 10-21 mmHg). Direct ophthalmoscopy reveals a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.8 (increased) in the left eye. Gonioscopy is normal and she has no significant medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Chronic open-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is chronic open-angle glaucoma, which can sometimes occur even with normal intraocular pressure. The patient’s symptoms, such as gradual peripheral vision loss, and the increased cup-to-disc ratio seen on investigations point towards this diagnosis. Gonioscopy also revealed a normal drainage angle, confirming that this is open-angle glaucoma.

      Dry age-related macular degeneration is an incorrect diagnosis in this case, as it typically presents with central vision loss and drusen on ophthalmoscopy, not changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.

      Hypertensive retinopathy is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is often asymptomatic and associated with a medical history of hypertension. Additionally, it has a characteristic appearance on ophthalmoscopy that does not include changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.

      Optic neuritis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with painful vision loss and other symptoms such as loss of color vision or acuity. It is also often associated with multiple sclerosis, which would present with additional symptoms such as sensory or motor deficits or other cranial nerve palsies.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      66.1
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29
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  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and right eye pain that started 5 hours ago while he was watching a movie in the cinema. He also experienced blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting once. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is identified by symptoms such as eye pain, reduced visual clarity, aggravation with mydriasis (e.g. in a dark cinema), and haloes around lights. It may also cause a general feeling of illness. Migraine with aura is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not involve eye pain. Sudden painless loss of vision is a symptom of vitreous haemorrhage. While optic neuritis can cause eye pain, it typically does not worsen with mydriasis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      48.8
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally. She has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years and has found little relief with frequent use of lubricating eye drops. Upon examination, both eyelids were crusted and had irregular margins. The meibomian orifices on both lids were obstructed with oily material. What is the underlying cause of this woman's dry eye condition?

      Your Answer: Meibomian blepharitis

      Explanation:

      When the tarsal glands are chronically infected, they can hinder the production of the precorneal tear film, which is responsible for slowing down the evaporation of tears. This can ultimately lead to dry eyes.

      The tarsal glands, also known as Meibomian glands, produce an oily substance that forms the outer layer of the precorneal tear film. This oily substance helps to prevent tear evaporation, while also improving tear stability and spreading. However, when Meibomian blepharitis occurs, the production of this oil is reduced, causing excessive water from the tear film to evaporate and resulting in dry eyes. None of the other options listed are relevant to this issue, as they do not involve dysfunction of the Meibomian glands.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      62.7
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 97% on air
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      1788
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  • Question 6 - A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
    Which of the following findings...

    Correct

    • A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
      Which of the following findings is more suggestive of acute conjunctivitis than anterior uveitis?

      Your Answer: Profuse discharge

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Acutely Painful Red Eye

      A red eye can be a sign of various eye conditions, including conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, and more. One of the most common symptoms of conjunctivitis is profuse discharge, which can cause the eyelids to stick together on waking. On the other hand, anterior uveitis can cause blurred vision, small pupil, and photophobia. Scleritis, an inflammatory disease that affects the sclera, can cause severe pain that worsens with eye movement and may radiate to the forehead or jaw. It’s essential to seek medical attention promptly if you experience any of these symptoms, as they can indicate a serious underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 7 - A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision...

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He denies any associated eye pain or headaches and is otherwise feeling well. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, the patient has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil shows poor response to light, but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: A Rare Cause of Sudden Vision Loss

      Central retinal artery occlusion is a rare condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. It is typically caused by a blood clot or inflammation in the artery that supplies blood to the retina. This can be due to atherosclerosis or arteritis, such as temporal arteritis. Symptoms may include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina. Unfortunately, the prognosis for this condition is poor, and management can be difficult. Treatment may involve identifying and addressing any underlying conditions, such as intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis. In some cases, intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted, but the results of this treatment are mixed. Overall, central retinal artery occlusion is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      254.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?

      Your Answer: Diabetic maculopathy

      Explanation:

      Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. Upon examination of the left eye, there are multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages with a swollen optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein

      Explanation:

      Sudden painless vision loss and severe retinal hemorrhages observed on fundoscopy are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (8/10) 80%
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