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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins. He had been referred by his family physician and is concerned about the appearance of his legs. He experiences heaviness and aching in his legs. As a professional athlete, he often wears shorts during games and is worried that his condition might affect his performance.

      After being informed of the risks associated with varicose vein surgery, he decides to proceed with the operation. However, during his follow-up appointment, he reports a loss of sensation over the lateral foot and posterolateral leg.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Superficial fibular nerve

      Correct Answer: Sural nerve

      Explanation:

      During varicose vein surgery, there is a potential for damage to the sural nerve, which innervates the posterolateral leg and lateral foot. Additionally, the saphenous nerve, responsible for sensation in the medial aspect of the leg and foot, and the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which innervates the lateral thigh, may also be at risk.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing, he is diagnosed with helicobacter pylori infection. Later, he experiences an episode of haematemesis and faints. Which blood vessel is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      It is probable that he has a duodenal ulcer located at the back. Such ulcers can penetrate the gastroduodenal artery and result in significant bleeding. While gastric ulcers can also invade vessels, they are not typically associated with major bleeding of this type.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On your first contact with him, you notice that he is very unwell.

      His observations are show below :

      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 36 breaths per minute
      Temperature 37.6Âș
      Oxygen saturations 97%

      Select the most appropriate option that correctly explains the abnormality detected on observation

      Your Answer: Hyperventilating to compensate for hypoxia

      Correct Answer: Direct stimulation of the medullary respiratory centres by aspirin resulting in hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      The option of a panic attack is unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with a panic attack and there are no signs of hypoxia mentioned in the stem. Therefore, this option is incorrect. While hospitalization can cause anxiety in patients, it is unlikely to be the correct answer as we already know the underlying cause of the patient’s anxiety. Similarly, while overdosing on drugs can lead to feelings of guilt and anxiety, we know the exact cause of the patient’s hyperventilation, making this answer incorrect.

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are consulting with a 25-year-old woman in a genetics clinic. During the...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 25-year-old woman in a genetics clinic. During the discussion of family planning, she reveals that her brother and maternal uncle have been diagnosed with Fabry disease, and her uncle passed away in his 30s due to heart disease. She is currently in a relationship and considering starting a family in the near future. Apart from her well-controlled epilepsy, she has no other health issues and feels healthy overall. Her parents are also in good health. What is the likelihood that she has inherited the gene for Fabry disease?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fabry Disease

      Fabry disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is caused by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A, an enzyme that breaks down a type of fat called globotriaosylceramide. This leads to the accumulation of this fat in various organs and tissues, causing a range of symptoms.

      One of the earliest symptoms of Fabry disease is burning pain or paraesthesia in childhood, particularly in the hands and feet. Other common features include angiokeratomas, which are small red or purple spots on the skin, and lens opacities, which can cause vision problems. Proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine, is also a common finding in people with Fabry disease.

      Perhaps the most serious complication of Fabry disease is early cardiovascular disease, which can lead to heart attacks and strokes. This is thought to be due to the accumulation of globotriaosylceramide in the walls of blood vessels, causing them to become stiff and narrow.

      Overall, Fabry disease is a complex condition that can affect many different parts of the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center who is experiencing decreased sensation in her fingers and toes. She has just commenced vincristine therapy and is curious if her symptoms could be related to the medication.

      During which phase of the cell cycle does this drug exert its action?

      Your Answer: Prometaphase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      During metaphase, Vincristine, a dimeric catharanthus alkaloid, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubules in actively dividing cells. This action makes it an effective treatment for cancers such as leukaemias, lymphomas, and advanced-stage breast cancer. However, its use is limited by its neurotoxicity, which mainly manifests as peripheral neuropathy. Vincristine’s toxicity affects small sensory fibres and causes axonal neuropathy due to the disruption of microtubules within axons and interference with axonal transport. Paraesthesia in the fingertips and feet is usually the earliest symptom experienced by patients, and almost all patients experience some degree of neuropathy.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in statistical hypothesis testing is correct?

      Your Answer: 1 - (p-value) is the probability of the alternative hypothesis being true

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected if the p-value is smaller than or equal to the significance level

      Explanation:

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What characteristic do Entamoeba histolytica and Aspergillus fungi have in common? ...

    Incorrect

    • What characteristic do Entamoeba histolytica and Aspergillus fungi have in common?

      Your Answer: Unicellular

      Correct Answer: Membrane-bound nucleus

      Explanation:

      Protozoa vs Fungi: the Differences

      Protozoa and fungi are two distinct groups of organisms that share some similarities but also have significant differences. Protozoa are unicellular and mostly motile, while fungi are multicellular and mostly immobile. Both groups are eukaryotic, meaning they have a membrane-bound nucleus, but protozoa have an anal pore and pseudopods that are not found in fungi.

      The anal pore in protozoa is used for excretion of substances, while pseudopods are projections of membrane used to engulf substances for uptake. These structures are not present in fungi, which have a cell wall instead. Aspergillus, for example, is a multicellular fungus with a cell wall, while most protozoa, including Entamoeba, do not have a cell wall.

      the differences between protozoa and fungi is important for various fields, including medicine, agriculture, and ecology. For instance, protozoa can cause diseases such as malaria, while fungi can be used for food production or as biocontrol agents against pests. By studying the unique characteristics of these organisms, we can better appreciate their diversity and complexity in the natural world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood. He had been out drinking heavily with friends and had vomited multiple times, with the last episode containing a significant amount of blood.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared intoxicated and had a pulse of 96 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/74 mmHg. Abdominal examination revealed no abnormalities.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic gastritis

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Mallory Weiss Tear and Alcoholic Gastritis

      Repeated episodes of vomiting due to alcohol consumption can lead to a Mallory Weiss tear, which is a mucosal tear in the esophagus. This tear can cause hematemesis, which is vomiting of blood. This is a common occurrence in habitual drinkers who suffer from alcoholic gastritis. Along with upper abdominal pain, this condition can cause a rise in esophageal pressures, leading to mucosal tears. However, most patients only lose small amounts of blood, and symptoms can often be resolved with minimal intervention. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.

      During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.

      Where is this location?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.

      Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old man is having a radical nephrectomy performed through a posterior approach....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is having a radical nephrectomy performed through a posterior approach. What is the structure that is most likely to be encountered during the surgical procedure?

      Your Answer: 10th rib

      Correct Answer: 12th rib

      Explanation:

      During a posterior approach, the kidneys may come across the 11th and 12th ribs which are located at the back. It is important to note that a potential complication of this surgery is the occurrence of a pneumothorax.

      Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys

      The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.

      The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).

      At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man complains of epigastric discomfort and experiences migratory thrombophlebitis. During examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man complains of epigastric discomfort and experiences migratory thrombophlebitis. During examination, he displays mild jaundice. A CT scan reveals a mass in the pancreatic head and peri hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is adenocarcinoma of the pancreas, which is often accompanied by migratory thrombophlebitis. Squamous cell carcinoma is a rare occurrence in the pancreas.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction for the past 6 weeks. He also mentions that his nipples have been lactating. You inform him that these symptoms could be a result of his body producing too much prolactin hormone and suggest testing his serum prolactin levels. Which part of the body secretes prolactin?

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland releases prolactin, which can cause hyperprolactinaemia. This condition can lead to impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea in men, and amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea in women. The hypothalamus, parathyroid glands, adrenal gland, and posterior pituitary gland also release hormones that play important roles in maintaining homoeostasis. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused by various factors, including certain medications.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic for her week 28 anti-D injection...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic for her week 28 anti-D injection during her first pregnancy. Blood tests were conducted, and the following outcomes were obtained:

      pH 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PO2 10 kPa (11 - 15)
      PCO2 4.0 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
      Bicarbonate 20 mmol/L (22 - 29)

      What pregnancy-related physiological alteration is accountable for these findings?

      Your Answer: Increase in plasma and red cell count

      Correct Answer: Increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume

      Explanation:

      A haemoglobin level of 105 g/L is considered normal at 28 weeks of pregnancy, with the non-pregnant reference range being 115-165 g/L.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
      Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.

      What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid bone

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament

      Explanation:

      Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports

      Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.

      Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old male presents to the hospital with a chief complaint of central...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male presents to the hospital with a chief complaint of central chest pain, accompanied by nausea and sweating that has been ongoing for two hours. After eight hours of the onset of the pain, the following result is obtained:
      Troponin T 30.8 ug/L (<10)
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Elevated Troponin T as a Marker of Cardiac Injury

      This patient’s troponin T concentration is significantly elevated, indicating cardiac injury. Troponin T is a component of the cardiac myocyte and is normally undetectable. Elevated levels of troponin T are highly specific to cardiac injury and are more reliable than creatinine kinase, which is less specific. Troponin T levels increase in acute coronary syndromes, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction.

      In this patient’s case, the elevated troponin T suggests a myocardial infarction (MI) due to the symptoms presented. Troponin T can be detected within a few hours of an MI and peaks at 14 hours after the onset of pain. It may peak again several days later and remain elevated for up to 10 days. Therefore, it is a good test for acute MI but not as reliable for recurrent MI in the first week. CK-MB may be useful in this case as it starts to rise 10-24 hours after an MI and disappears after three to four days.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include aortic dissection, which causes tearing chest pain that often radiates to the back with hypotension. ECG changes are not always present. Myocarditis causes chest pain that improves with steroids or NSAIDs and a rise in troponin levels, with similar ECG changes to a STEMI. There may also be reciprocal lead ST depression and PR depression. Pulmonary embolism presents with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, hypoxia, and hemoptysis. Pericardial effusion presents with similar symptoms to pericarditis, with Kussmaul’s sign typically present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center where he is receiving treatment for alcohol addiction. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with hypomagnesaemia. What are the possible symptoms that can arise due to this condition?

      Your Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia, or low levels of magnesium in the blood, is a common electrolyte disturbance among inpatients. It can lead to serious complications, particularly cardiac arrhythmia, which can result in cardiac arrest. The condition is often caused by gastrointestinal loss of magnesium due to vomiting, high output stomas, fistulae, and malabsorption disorders. Poor nutritional input, renal losses of magnesium, and primary renal diseases can also contribute to hypomagnesaemia.

      Mild magnesium deficiency usually results in few or no symptoms, but severe deficiency can cause hypokalaemia and hypocalcaemia, as well as overlapping clinical features with hypocalcaemia and hypokalaemia. These symptoms include tetany, neuromuscular excitability, hypertonicity, palpitations, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.

      Mild hypomagnesaemia can be treated with oral magnesium salts, while severe cases require cautious intravenous correction. It is important to monitor and correct magnesium levels to prevent the development of cardiac dysrhythmia and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon examination, his x-rays reveal dense bones with multiple cortical layers. He also has a mild normocytic anemia and low platelets, but his sclera appear white. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Correct Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Explanation:

      Osteopetrosis and its Distinction from Other Bone Disorders

      Osteopetrosis is a congenital condition that affects bone reabsorption, leading to the appearance of a ‘bone within a bone’ from multiple cortical layers. Despite the increased density, bones become brittle and prone to fracture, and there is no room for the marrow to grow, causing bone marrow failure and peripheral cytopenias. Additionally, bones expand and frequently cause neural compression symptoms.

      When diagnosing osteopetrosis, it is important to exclude non-accidental injury (NAI) due to the repeated bone injury, but NAI alone cannot account for the x-ray findings or the blood counts. However, a diagnosis of osteopetrosis does not rule out the possibility of NAI co-existing with the condition.

      Other bone disorders, such as acute lymphocytic leukemia and aplastic anemia, may present with peripheral cytopenias but not the x-ray appearances or multiple fractures. On the other hand, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a congenital condition of brittle bones susceptible to multiple fractures due to a mutation in type I collagen. The most common form, type I OI, is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition and is associated with blue sclerae and neural deafness from bone overgrowth. X-rays show reduced bone density with cortical disorganization.

      In summary, the distinct features of osteopetrosis and its differentiation from other bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.5
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  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a headache, neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. She is diagnosed with meningitis and given IV cefuroxime. What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Inhibits DNA synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cell wall formation

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime belongs to the cephalosporin group of antibiotics that hinder the formation of cell walls.

      Metronidazole acts by causing direct damage to DNA.

      Quinolones, like ciprofloxacin, function by preventing DNA synthesis.

      Rifampicin works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.

      Trimethoprim and sulphonamides work by blocking the formation of folic acid.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      51.3
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old woman comes into the emergency department with her daughter after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes into the emergency department with her daughter after experiencing shortness of breath for 2 hours. She is in poor condition with a heart rate of 128/min, blood pressure of 90/66 mmHg, O2 saturation of 94% on air, respiratory rate of 29/min, and temperature of 36.3ÂșC. Her legs are swollen up to her knees, and her JVP is visible at her ear lobe. She has a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, angina, and a smoking history of 20 packs per year.

      What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Reduced ventilation/ perfusion due to pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Reduced cardiac output

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s acute heart failure is a decrease in cardiac output, which may be due to biventricular failure. This is evidenced by peripheral edema and respiratory distress, including shortness of breath, high respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturation. These symptoms are likely caused by inadequate heart filling, leading to peripheral congestion and pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.

      The pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is not relevant to the patient’s condition, as it is not explained by her peripheral edema and elevated JVP.

      While shortness of breath in heart failure may be caused by reduced ventilation/perfusion due to pulmonary edema, this is only one symptom and not the underlying mechanism of the condition.

      The overactivity of the renin-angiotensin system is a physiological response to decreased blood pressure or increased renal sympathetic firing, but it is not necessarily related to the patient’s current condition.

      Understanding Acute Heart Failure: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Acute heart failure (AHF) is a medical emergency that can occur suddenly or worsen over time. It can affect individuals with or without a history of pre-existing heart failure. Decompensated AHF is more common and is characterized by a background history of HF. AHF is typically caused by a reduced cardiac output resulting from a functional or structural abnormality. De-novo heart failure, on the other hand, is caused by increased cardiac filling pressures and myocardial dysfunction, usually due to ischaemia.

      The most common precipitating causes of acute AHF are acute coronary syndrome, hypertensive crisis, acute arrhythmia, and valvular disease. Patients with heart failure may present with signs of fluid congestion, weight gain, orthopnoea, and breathlessness. They are broadly classified into four groups based on whether they present with or without hypoperfusion and fluid congestion. This classification is clinically useful in determining the therapeutic approach.

      The symptoms of AHF include breathlessness, reduced exercise tolerance, oedema, fatigue, chest signs, and an S3-heart sound. Signs of AHF include cyanosis, tachycardia, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a displaced apex beat. Over 90% of patients with AHF have a normal or increased blood pressure.

      The diagnostic workup for patients with AHF includes blood tests, chest X-ray, echocardiogram, and B-type natriuretic peptide. Blood tests are used to identify any underlying abnormalities, while chest X-ray findings include pulmonary venous congestion, interstitial oedema, and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram is used to identify pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade, while raised levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (>100mg/litre) indicate myocardial damage and support the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As a medical student assisting a consultant cardiologist during a percutaneous coronary angiogram...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student assisting a consultant cardiologist during a percutaneous coronary angiogram on a male patient, you are shown the patient's previous angiogram that reveals a severe occlusion in the left main stem coronary artery. The consultant then poses a question to you about atherosclerosis. Specifically, which modifiable risk factor is involved in the initial development of the atherosclerotic plaque due to its contribution to shear stress?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      The Role of Endothelial Damage in Atherosclerosis

      The development of atherosclerosis requires endothelial damage to occur. Hypertension is the most likely risk factor to cause this damage, as it alters blood flow and increases shearing forces on the endothelium. Once damage occurs, pro-inflammatory mediators are released, leading to leucocyte adhesion and increased permeability in the vessel wall. Endothelial damage is particularly atherogenic due to the release of platelet-derived growth factor and thrombin, which stimulate platelet adhesion and activate the clotting cascade.

      Diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity increase LDL levels, which infiltrate the arterial intima and contribute to the formation of atheromatous plaques. However, before LDLs can infiltrate the vessel wall, they must bind to endothelial adhesion molecules, which are released after endothelial damage occurs. Therefore, hypertension-induced endothelial damage is required for the initial development of atherosclerosis.

      Smoking is also a risk factor for atherosclerosis, but the mechanism is not well understood. It is believed that free radicals and aromatic compounds in tobacco smoke inhibit the production of nitric oxide, leading to endothelial damage. Overall, the role of endothelial damage in atherosclerosis can help identify effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of weakness and frequent muscle cramps...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of weakness and frequent muscle cramps that have been ongoing for the past two weeks. Upon examination, you observe widespread hyporeflexia. A blood test reveals hypokalaemia, but the cause has not yet been determined. Which of the following conditions is linked to hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, can lead to hypertension, hypernatraemia, and hypokalemia. This condition is caused by an excess of aldosterone, which is responsible for maintaining potassium balance by activating Na+/K+ pumps. However, in excess, aldosterone can cause the movement of potassium into cells, resulting in hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining potassium balance, along with other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone. On the other hand, congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis are all causes of hyperkalaemia, which is an excess of potassium in the blood. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, which can lead to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis can also cause hyperkalaemia by causing positively charged hydrogen ions to enter cells while positively charged potassium ions leave cells and enter the bloodstream.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses. She has been experiencing double vision for a few weeks now, and notes that it is more pronounced in the evenings and absent in the mornings. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports that her diplopia improves after resting her eyes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      The main characteristic of myasthenia gravis is muscle weakness that worsens with use and improves with rest, without causing pain. This condition often affects the oculomotor nerve and is more prevalent in women. Diagnosis is typically confirmed through single fibre electromyography, which has a high level of sensitivity.

      While migraines can also cause double vision, they usually come with additional symptoms such as pain and nausea. A classic migraine may include a visual aura or sensitivity to light. Additionally, the patient’s age of 45 is older than the typical age of onset for migraines.

      Diabetic neuropathy can also lead to double vision, but it typically presents with a loss of sensation in the hands and feet. There is no indication that this patient has diabetes.

      Multiple sclerosis often first presents with vision problems affecting the optic nerve. Optic neuritis, for example, can cause pain, central scotoma, and colour vision loss.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      15.3
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack. The procedure is successful with no complications. However, the patient develops new hoarseness of voice and loss of effective cough mechanism post-surgery. There are no notable findings upon examination of the oral cavity.

      Which structure has been affected by the surgery?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve XII

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      Speech is innervated by the vagus (X) nerve, so any damage to this nerve can cause speech problems. Injuries to one side of the vagus nerve can result in hoarseness and vocal cord paralysis on the same side, while bilateral injuries can lead to aphonia and stridor. Other symptoms of vagal disease may include dysphagia, loss of cough reflex, gastroparesis, and cardiovascular effects. The facial nerve (VII) may also be affected during carotid surgery, causing muscle weakness in facial expression. However, the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is not involved in speech and would not be damaged during carotid surgery. The accessory nerve (XI) does not innervate speech muscles and is rarely affected during carotid surgery, causing weakness in shoulder elevation instead. Hypoglossal (XII) palsy is a rare complication of carotid surgery that causes tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion, but not voice hoarseness.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A G2P1 woman visits her obstetrician for a routine antenatal check-up. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A G2P1 woman visits her obstetrician for a routine antenatal check-up. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy so far. She denies any symptoms of fatigue, easy bleeding, or bruising.

      During the check-up, her physician orders routine blood tests, and her complete blood count results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 110 * 109/L (150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 13 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Physiological changes of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being evaluated on postoperative day...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being evaluated on postoperative day 2. She reports multiple episodes of vomiting and passing urine only once since the operation. Her medical history includes poorly controlled hypertension on dual therapy. She is currently taking fenoldopam, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, atorvastatin, and paracetamol. On physical examination, she has dry mucous membranes and a BMI of 31 kg/mÂČ. Her vital signs show a mean arterial pressure of 80 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. Laboratory results reveal:

      Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Creatinine 160 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most important medication that should be discontinued in this patient?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial to identify and treat the underlying cause. However, it is important to note that ACE inhibitors should be discontinued as they can worsen renal function by causing efferent arteriolar vasodilation, leading to a decrease in GFR. On the other hand, atorvastatin should not be stopped as it does not accumulate and worsen renal function, but frequent monitoring is necessary. If AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis, then statins should be immediately discontinued. Calcium channel blockers do not exacerbate renal impairment, but it is advisable to reduce the dose and withhold them if clinical signs appear. Fenoldopam, on the other hand, does not impair kidney function but rather increases blood flow to the renal cortex and medullary regions by decreasing systemic vascular resistance.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      35.7
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is normal, what percentage of calcium filtered by the glomerulus will be reabsorbed by the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea while in a supine position. Despite having a normal ejection fraction, what could be a potential cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: He has systolic dysfunction

      Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      When there is systolic dysfunction, the ejection fraction decreases as the stroke volume decreases. However, in cases of diastolic dysfunction, ejection fraction is not a reliable indicator as both stroke volume and end-diastolic volume may be reduced. Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the heart’s compliance is reduced.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      If the cause of her positive trendelenburg's sign is neurological, which nerve is affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Left superior gluteal

      Correct Answer: Right superior gluteal

      Explanation:

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. This nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles, which are important for abducting and medially rotating the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For example, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive proper innervation, leading to instability and a drop in the left pelvis when standing on the right leg. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which are responsible for extending the thigh and performing lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.1
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old woman presents with abdominal bloating and agrees to undergo blood tests....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with abdominal bloating and agrees to undergo blood tests. The results reveal iron deficiency anemia and a high CA125 level. You suspect ovarian cancer and recommend that she see a gynecologist.

      Despite being informed of the possible diagnosis, the patient refuses any further treatment or investigations, including imaging. She states that whatever will be, will be and that she will die when it is her time. After a lengthy conversation, she still refuses and demonstrates an understanding of the risks and benefits of her decision. You determine that she has the capacity to make this decision.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Accept and respect her decision as she has full capacity

      Explanation:

      The main concern in this situation is the patient’s right to decline treatment. It is evident that the patient is capable of making her own decision. According to the GMC, patients have the complete right to refuse treatment, even if their decision seems irrational. As a healthcare professional, you can express your concerns and inform them of the potential consequences of their decision. However, it is strictly prohibited to coerce them into following your advice.

      Furthermore, it is not appropriate to violate the patient’s confidentiality by contacting her daughter or other healthcare providers.

      Understanding Consent and Capacity in Healthcare

      Consent is an essential aspect of healthcare that involves obtaining permission from a patient before any medical procedure or treatment is carried out. There are three types of consent: informed, expressed, and implied. In the UK NHS, there are different consent forms for different situations, such as for competent adults, adults consenting on behalf of children, and adults who lack capacity to provide informed consent.

      Capacity is another important factor in obtaining consent. Patients must have the ability to understand and retain information, believe the information to be true, and weigh the information to make a decision. All patients are assumed to have capacity unless proven otherwise.

      When it comes to minors, young children and older children who are not Gillick competent cannot provide consent for themselves. In British law, the biological mother can always provide consent, while the father can only consent if the parents are married (and the father is the biological father) or if the father is named on the birth certificate. If the parents are not married and the father is not named on the birth certificate, the father cannot provide consent.

      In summary, understanding consent and capacity is crucial in healthcare to ensure that patients are fully informed and able to make decisions about their own medical care. It is important to follow the appropriate consent procedures and to consider the legal requirements for obtaining consent from minors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a significantly elevated level of creatine kinase in his blood. What is the role of creatine kinase in the body?

      Your Answer: To aid the mitosis of muscle tissue

      Correct Answer: To regenerate ATP for muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Creatine Kinase: An Enzyme for Muscle Contraction

      Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in muscle tissue. Its main function is to catalyze the regeneration of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and creatine phosphate after muscle contraction. This process allows for further muscle contraction and supports sustained exertion. CK is present in many tissues, but it is most active in striated and cardiac muscle. Other tissues with CK activity include the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      The body’s tissues contain a dimeric form of CK, which is made up of two subunits. Each subunit of CK can be made from a genetic area on chromosome 14 (CK-B) or chromosome 19 (CK-M). There are three dimeric forms (isoforms) of CK: CK-MM, CK-MB, and CK-BB. CK-MM is abundant in striated muscle tissue, while CK-MB is abundant in cardiac muscle tissue. CK-BB is abundant in the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      In patients with muscle diseases such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, CK-MM is released and will be the main form of CK measured. CK-MB has been widely used in the past as an aid in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction and other diseases affecting the heart muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.3
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  • Question 31 - What is the highest level of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based...

    Correct

    • What is the highest level of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?

      Your Answer: A well-conducted meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials

      Explanation:

      The Hierarchy of Evidence in Healthcare

      In healthcare, evidence-based practice is crucial in making informed decisions about patient care. The hierarchy of evidence is a framework used to determine the strength and reliability of research studies. At the top of the hierarchy is a meta-analysis, which combines data from multiple studies to provide the most comprehensive and reliable evidence. Randomised controlled trials follow, which are considered the gold standard in clinical research. Cohort studies and case-control studies are next in the hierarchy, followed by case series. At the bottom of the hierarchy is expert opinion, which is based on the experience and knowledge of healthcare professionals.

      It is important to note that an evidence-based guideline is not included in the hierarchy of evidence, as it relies on the hierarchy to determine the strength of the evidence used to create the guideline. By following the hierarchy of evidence, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about patient care based on the most reliable and trustworthy evidence available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.3
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  • Question 32 - A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 ”mol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The 30S ribosomal unit is the target of aminoglycosides, which hinder protein synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      19
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  • Question 34 - A 82-year-old female presents to her physician with a 5-month history of passing...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old female presents to her physician with a 5-month history of passing fresh red blood per rectum and tenesmus. During general examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor bilaterally. Upon digital rectal examination, a firm, irregular mass is detected in the posterior aspect of the rectum. An urgent flexible sigmoidoscopy is ordered, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the rectum below the pectinate line. In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to initially occur?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      Rectal cancer that occurs below the pectinate line is known to spread to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. This is because the superficial inguinal nodes are responsible for draining the lymphatic system of the rectum below the pectinate line, as well as the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva.

      It is important to note that the inferior mesenteric nodes are not involved in this process, as they primarily drain the hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the rectum. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes are not involved, as they drain the inferior portion of the rectum, the anal canal superior to the pectinate line, and the pelvic viscera.

      Para-aortic nodes are also not involved in the spread of rectal cancer below the pectinate line, as this portion of the rectum does not drain directly to these nodes. Instead, the testes/ovaries drain directly into the para-aortic nodes. Finally, popliteal nodes are not involved, as they only provide lymphatic drainage for the legs.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.7
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  • Question 35 - A 59-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of lower back pain, weight...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of lower back pain, weight loss, an abdominal mass, and visible haematuria. The GP eliminates the possibility of a UTI and refers him through a 2-week wait pathway. An ultrasound reveals a tumour, and a biopsy confirms renal cell carcinoma. From which part of the kidney does his cancer originate?

      Your Answer: Proximal renal tubular epithelium

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, while the other options, such as blood vessels, distal renal tubular epithelium, and glomerular basement membrane, are all parts of the kidney but not the site of origin for renal cell carcinoma. Transitional cell carcinoma, on the other hand, arises from the transitional cells in the lining of the renal pelvis.

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium and is commonly associated with smoking and conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and tuberous sclerosis. The clear cell subtype is the most prevalent, comprising 75-85% of tumors.

      Renal cell cancer is more common in middle-aged men and may present with classical symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, and an abdominal mass. Other features include endocrine effects, such as the secretion of erythropoietin, parathyroid hormone-related protein, renin, and ACTH. Metastases are present in 25% of cases at presentation, and paraneoplastic syndromes such as Stauffer syndrome may also occur.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on tumor size and extent of invasion. Management options include partial or total nephrectomy, depending on the tumor size and extent of disease. Patients with a T1 tumor are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 may be used to reduce tumor size and treat metastases. Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib have shown superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha.

      In summary, renal cell cancer is a common primary renal neoplasm that is associated with various risk factors and may present with classical symptoms and endocrine effects. Management options depend on the extent of disease and may include surgery and targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A surprised 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room with a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A surprised 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room with a possible diagnosis of Staphylococcus aureus toxic shock syndrome. What is one of the parameters used to diagnose systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?

      Your Answer: CRP (C reactive protein)

      Correct Answer: White blood cell count

      Explanation:

      Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

      Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is a condition that is diagnosed when a combination of abnormal parameters are detected. These parameters can be deranged for various reasons, including both infective and non-infective causes. Some examples of infective causes include Staph. aureus toxic shock syndrome, while acute pancreatitis is an example of a non-infective cause. The diagnosis of SIRS is based on the presence of a constellation of abnormal parameters, which include a temperature below 36°C or above 38.3°C, a heart rate exceeding 90 beats per minute, a respiratory rate exceeding 20 breaths per minute, and a white blood cell count below 4 or above 12 ×109/L.

      It is important to note that the systolic blood pressure is not included in the definition of SIRS. However, if the systolic pressure remains below 90 mmHg after a fluid bolus, this would be considered a result of septic shock. the criteria for SIRS is crucial for healthcare professionals to identify and manage patients with this condition promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24.3
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  • Question 37 - As a general practice registrar, you are reviewing a patient who was referred...

    Correct

    • As a general practice registrar, you are reviewing a patient who was referred to ENT and has a history of acoustic neuroma on the right side. The patient, who is in their early 50s, returned 2 months ago with pulsatile tinnitus in the left ear and was diagnosed with a left-sided acoustic neuroma after undergoing an MRI scan. Surgery is scheduled for later this week. What could be the probable cause of this patient's recurrent acoustic neuromas?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 2 is commonly linked to bilateral acoustic neuromas (vestibular schwannomas). Additionally, individuals with this condition may also experience benign neurological tumors and lens opacities.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false?

      Your Answer: The sural nerve lies medial to the Achilles tendon at its point of insertion

      Explanation:

      The distal fibula is located in front of the sural nerve. Subtalar movements involve inversion and eversion. When passing behind the medial malleolus from front to back, the structures include the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial artery, nerve, and flexor hallucis longus.

      Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

      The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.

      The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.

      Reference:
      Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.6
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  • Question 39 - A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer game. During the examination, the physician flexes the knee to a 90-degree angle with the foot resting on the exam table. Using both hands to grasp the proximal tibia, the doctor applies an anterior force followed by a posterior force. The physician detects laxity during the anterior movement, indicating possible damage to the anterior cruciate ligament. What is the test called?

      Your Answer: Drawer test

      Explanation:

      The drawer test is used to check for cruciate ligament rupture in the knee. The examiner flexes the hip and knee, holds the tibia, and attempts to pull it forward or backward. Excessive displacement indicates a rupture of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 68-year-old man presented to the emergency department with sudden onset double vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented to the emergency department with sudden onset double vision on rightward gaze. He had a history of ischaemic heart disease and hypercholesterolemia, and smoked 10 cigarettes per day.

      Upon examination, his gait and peripheral neurological examination were normal. However, his left eye did not adduct on rightward gaze and his right eye exhibited nystagmus. The pupils were equal and reactive to light.

      To rule out a possible stroke, an urgent MRI of the brain was arranged. Where is the neurological lesion that could explain this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Right oculomotor nucleus

      Correct Answer: Left medial longitudinal fasciculus

      Explanation:

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which affects conjugate eye movements. The MLF connects the abducens nucleus to the contralateral oculomotor nucleus. A lesion in the MLF results in a failure of conjugate gaze and diplopia. Horizontal nystagmus of the affected eye is explained by Hering’s law of equal innervation. Lesions of the abducens or oculomotor nuclei would result in more profound ophthalmoplegias. The patient is at high risk for a stroke.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      When alveolar haemorrhage takes place, the TLCO typically rises as a result of the increased absorption of carbon monoxide by haemoglobin within the alveoli.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.3
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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a lesion in the cerebellopontine angle. Which cranial...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a lesion in the cerebellopontine angle. Which cranial nerve is expected to be affected initially?

      Your Answer: CN V

      Explanation:

      An acoustic neuroma is the most probable type of lesion to develop in the cerebellopontine angle. The trigeminal nerve is typically affected first, with a wide base of involvement. The initial symptoms may be subtle, such as the loss of the corneal reflex on the same side. Additionally, hearing loss on the same side is likely to occur. If left untreated, the lesion may progress and eventually impact multiple cranial nerve roots in the area.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      7.3
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  • Question 44 - A 33-year-old female patient has a confirmed pregnancy. One of the significant changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient has a confirmed pregnancy. One of the significant changes that occur during pregnancy is the relaxation of the myometrium, which is facilitated by several hormones, including progesterone. What is the arachidonic acid metabolite that is primarily linked to this process?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin (PGI2)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Prostacyclin (PGI2). PGI2 is a metabolite of arachidonic acid that is known for its ability to relax smooth muscles, including the myometrium, which leads to decreased uterine tone.

      Oxytocin is an incorrect answer. It is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is not related to arachidonic acid metabolism.

      Leukotriene C4 is also an incorrect answer. Although it is an arachidonic acid metabolite, it is not involved in controlling uterine tone but rather in bronchoconstriction.

      Prostaglandin (PGE2) is another incorrect answer. PGE2 is associated with increased uterine tone and is actually used to induce labor by stimulating the cervix and uterus. It can be administered as a gel, tablet, or pessary.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find the adrenal gland situated?

      Your Answer: On the contralateral side

      Correct Answer: In its usual position

      Explanation:

      If the kidney is present, the adrenal gland will typically develop in its normal location instead of being absent.

      The adrenal cortex, which secretes steroids, is derived from the mesoderm of the posterior abdominal wall and is first detected at 6 weeks’ gestation. The fetal cortex predominates throughout fetal life, with adult-type zona glomerulosa and fasciculata detected but making up only a small proportion of the gland. The adrenal medulla, which is responsible for producing adrenaline, is of ectodermal origin and arises from neural crest cells that migrate to the medial aspect of the developing cortex. The fetal adrenal gland is relatively large, but it rapidly regresses at birth, disappearing almost completely by age 1 year. By age 4-5 years, the permanent adult-type adrenal cortex has fully developed.

      Anatomic anomalies of the adrenal gland may occur, such as agenesis of an adrenal gland being usually associated with ipsilateral agenesis of the kidney. Fused adrenal glands, whereby the two glands join across the midline posterior to the aorta, are also associated with a fused kidney. Adrenal hypoplasia can occur in two forms: hypoplasia or absence of the fetal cortex with a poorly formed medulla, or disorganized fetal cortex and medulla with no permanent cortex present. Adrenal heterotopia describes a normal adrenal gland in an abnormal location, such as within the renal or hepatic capsules. Accessory adrenal tissue, also known as adrenal rests, is most commonly located in the broad ligament or spermatic cord but can be found anywhere within the abdomen, and even intracranial adrenal rests have been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 37-year-old woman presents with blurring of vision on lateral gaze. She had...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with blurring of vision on lateral gaze. She had a previous episode of pain on eye movement and difficulty seeing red colors six months ago, which resolved on its own after a week.

      She sought consultation with a neurologist who conducted an examination. The left eye failed to adduct on rightward gaze, while the right eye exhibited nystagmus. Leftward, upward, and downward gazes were unremarkable. The pupils were equal and reactive to light.

      Peripheral examination yielded no significant findings. An MRI brain scan was ordered, and the results are pending.

      Based on this presentation, where is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis, as she is presenting with internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This highly myelinated tract coordinates eye movements by communicating information from the vestibular nucleus to the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nuclei. Her previous episode of optic neuritis further supports a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis, which affects the axonal myelin sheath and commonly affects highly myelinated areas.

      A lesion of the optic chiasm would present with bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision, without affecting eye movements. A lesion of the optic radiation would cause homonymous hemianopia or quadrantanopia, but eye movement control is confined to the brainstem nuclei. Periventricular lesions commonly cause numbness and impaired motor function, but do not involve cranial nerves. Lesions of the oculomotor nerve would cause a more significant ophthalmoplegia with ptosis and mydriasis in the affected eye, and the eye in the ‘down and out’ position, but this presentation does not fit the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.1
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  • Question 47 - A 57-year-old man comes to the diabetes clinic for a check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the diabetes clinic for a check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is currently managed with metformin and sitagliptin, and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. His recent blood tests show an increase in HbA1c from 51mmol/L to 59mmol/L. He has not experienced any hypoglycaemic events and reports good adherence to his medication and blood glucose monitoring. He expresses interest in trying an additional antidiabetic medication and is prescribed tolbutamide after receiving counselling on hypoglycaemic awareness.

      What is the mechanism of action of tolbutamide?

      Your Answer: Increases insulin release by mimicking the binding of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) to its receptor

      Correct Answer: Binds to and shuts pancreatic beta cell ATP-dependent K+ channels, causing membrane depolarisation and increased insulin exocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).

      While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.

      It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You are completing some paperwork during your break and come across a letter...

    Incorrect

    • You are completing some paperwork during your break and come across a letter from an oncologist regarding a patient in her mid-thirties. She has been diagnosed with advanced melanoma after presenting with a skin lesion. The oncologist recommends starting treatment with a drug called ipilimumab.

      What classification of drug does ipilimumab belong to?

      Your Answer: A type of oral chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: An immune checkpoint inhibitor

      Explanation:

      An immune checkpoint inhibitor, Ipilimumab is a type of drug that is used as an alternative to cytotoxic chemotherapy. However, it is currently only prescribed for solid tumours and is administered through intravenous injection.

      Understanding Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors

      Immune checkpoint inhibitors are a type of immunotherapy that is becoming increasingly popular in the treatment of certain types of cancer. Unlike traditional therapies such as chemotherapy, these targeted treatments work by harnessing the body’s natural anti-cancer immune response. They boost the immune system’s ability to attack and destroy cancer cells, rather than directly affecting their growth and proliferation.

      T-cells are an essential part of our immune system that helps destroy cancer cells. However, some cancer cells produce high levels of proteins that turn T-cells off. Checkpoint inhibitors block this process and reactivate and increase the body’s T-cell population, enhancing the immune system’s ability to recognize and fight cancer cells.

      There are different types of immune checkpoint inhibitors, including Ipilimumab, Nivolumab, Pembrolizumab, Atezolizumab, Avelumab, and Durvalumab. These drugs block specific proteins found on T-cells and cancer cells, such as CTLA-4, PD-1, and PD-L1. They are administered by injection or intravenous infusion and can be given as a single-agent treatment or combined with chemotherapy or each other.

      However, the mechanism of action of these drugs can result in side effects termed ‘Immune-related adverse events’ that are inflammatory and autoimmune in nature. This is because all immune cells are boosted by these drugs, not just the ones that target cancer. The overactive T-cells can produce side effects such as dry, itchy skin and rashes, nausea and vomiting, decreased appetite, diarrhea, tiredness and fatigue, shortness of breath, and a dry cough. Management of such side effects reflects the inflammatory nature, often involving corticosteroids. It is important to monitor liver, kidney, and thyroid function as these drugs can affect these organs.

      In conclusion, the early success of immune checkpoint inhibitors in solid tumors has generated tremendous interest in further developing and exploring these strategies across the oncology disease spectrum. Ongoing testing in clinical trials creates new hope for patients affected by other types of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.6
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  • Question 49 - A 46-year-old patient visits his doctor 5 days after his last appointment, worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old patient visits his doctor 5 days after his last appointment, worried about passing very small amounts of urine for the past 4 days. He was prescribed gentamicin for an infection during his last visit. The doctor suspects gentamicin-induced nephrotoxicity and conducts an examination, finding no abnormalities and normal blood pressure and temperature. The patient's fractional excretion of urine is greater than 4%, and a urine sample is sent to the lab for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. What would be observed on microscopy if the doctor's suspicion is correct?

      Your Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

      Correct Answer: Brown granular casts

      Explanation:

      The clinical significance of various laboratory findings is summarized in the table below:

      Laboratory Finding Clinical Significance

      Elevated creatinine and BUN Indicates impaired kidney function
      Low serum albumin Indicates malnutrition or liver disease
      Elevated liver enzymes Indicates liver damage or disease
      Elevated glucose Indicates diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance
      Elevated potassium Indicates kidney dysfunction or medication side effect
      Elevated sodium Indicates dehydration or excessive sodium intake
      Elevated nitrites Indicates urinary tract infection
      Elevated white blood cells Indicates infection or inflammation
      Elevated red blood cells Indicates dehydration or kidney disease
      Elevated platelets Indicates clotting disorder or inflammation

      Different Types of Urinary Casts and Their Significance

      Urine contains various types of urinary casts that can provide important information about the underlying condition of the patient. Hyaline casts, for instance, are composed of Tamm-Horsfall protein that is secreted by the distal convoluted tubule. These casts are commonly seen in normal urine, after exercise, during fever, or with loop diuretics. On the other hand, brown granular casts in urine are indicative of acute tubular necrosis.

      In prerenal uraemia, the urinary sediment appears ‘bland’, which means that there are no significant abnormalities in the urine. Lastly, red cell casts are associated with nephritic syndrome, which is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. By analyzing the type of urinary casts present in the urine, healthcare professionals can diagnose and manage various kidney diseases and disorders. Proper identification and interpretation of urinary casts can help in the early detection and treatment of kidney problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      17.1
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old obese male presents with recurrent episodes of colicky pain and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old obese male presents with recurrent episodes of colicky pain and bloating in the left iliac fossa. The patient has no significant medical history but has been a smoker for 25 years and does not consume alcohol. He works at a fast-food restaurant and usually eats his meals there.

      Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37ÂșC, respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99% on air, heart rate of 60 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 125/70 mmHg. Abdominal and digital rectal examination reveal no significant findings. A colonoscopy was subsequently performed, which revealed multiple diverticula along the sigmoid colon.

      What is the most appropriate course of management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Encourage low-fibre diet

      Correct Answer: Encourage high-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      The development of intestinal diverticula is strongly linked to a low fibre diet, making it a major risk factor. To manage mild symptoms, patients are advised to modify their diet by gradually increasing fibre intake over several weeks and staying hydrated.

      IV antibiotics and fluids are not necessary for diverticular disease, as it is not the same as diverticulitis.

      Surgery is not recommended for uncomplicated diverticular disease.

      While encouraging smoking cessation is important, dietary modification is the most suitable option for this patient.

      Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.

      Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      25.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/5) 20%
General Principles (1/8) 13%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/6) 0%
Renal System (2/5) 40%
Endocrine System (2/5) 40%
Reproductive System (0/2) 0%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (4/6) 67%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/3) 67%
Haematology And Oncology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
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