00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is your suspicion regarding the male remand prisoner's condition based on his...

    Correct

    • What is your suspicion regarding the male remand prisoner's condition based on his inconsistent responses during the interview, despite retaining core details about his identity and awareness of his surroundings?

      Your Answer: Ganser's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ganser’s syndrome is a disputed diagnosis that typically involves vague responses, confusion, physical symptoms without a clear medical explanation, false perceptions, and memory loss for the time when the symptoms were present. It is commonly observed in incarcerated individuals awaiting trial and seems to be a manifestation of their perception of what a psychotic disorder entails. As a result, some experts argue that it is a type of feigning illness. The condition is classified as a dissociative disorder.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following treatment options for acute mania has been found to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following treatment options for acute mania has been found to be less effective than a placebo?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Antimanic Drugs: Efficacy and Acceptability

      The Lancet published a meta-analysis conducted by Cipriani in 2011, which compared the efficacy and acceptability of various anti-manic drugs. The study found that antipsychotics were more effective than mood stabilizers in treating mania. The drugs that were best tolerated were towards the right of the figure, while the most effective drugs were towards the top. The drugs that were both well-tolerated and effective were considered the best overall, including olanzapine, risperidone, haloperidol, and quetiapine. Other drugs included in the analysis were aripiprazole, asenapine, carbamazepine, valproate, gabapentin, lamotrigine, lithium, placebo, topiramate, and ziprasidone. This study provides valuable information for clinicians in selecting the most appropriate antimanic drug for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the closest estimate of the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the closest estimate of the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?

      Your Answer: 2 per 1000 / year

      Correct Answer: 0.2 per 1000 / year

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about complex post traumatic stress disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about complex post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Significant problems in affect regulation are an essential feature in the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Complex PTSD includes all the necessary criteria for PTSD, but it also involves severe challenges in regulating emotions, persistent negative self-beliefs, and ongoing struggles in maintaining relationships. While some individuals with Complex PTSD may also meet the criteria for a personality disorder, it is not considered a personality disorder itself.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      423
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What are the typical features of post-traumatic stress disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What are the typical features of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Exaggerated startle response

      Explanation:

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who...

    Incorrect

    • A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who is taking atazanavir. They are considering prescribing an antidepressant but are concerned about potential contraindications. Which antidepressant should be avoided due to its contraindication with atazanavir?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: St John's Wort

      Explanation:

      It is important to remember that St John’s Wort should not be taken with most antiretroviral drugs as it can reduce their efficacy.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder and a history of severe mania...

    Correct

    • A young woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder and a history of severe mania has been effectively managed on lithium during her pregnancy. As she approaches her due date, she is eager to discuss the plan for her medication as she plans to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer?

      Your Answer: Switch from lithium to olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Consider prescribing olanzapine of quetiapine as prophylactic medication for women with bipolar disorder who stop taking lithium during pregnancy of plan to breastfeed, according to the Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines 13th edition. These medications can also be considered for post-partum initiation.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A middle-aged patient is referred to secondary care due to issues with depression....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient is referred to secondary care due to issues with depression. You see the man several times and his depression responds well to treatment with an SSRI.

      During consultations, you are struck by the man’s excessive formality and seriousness. On further enquiry you identify that he has significant difficulties at work. He explains that he is overworked and feels he can't ask colleagues for help as they are unable to do the job properly. He feels that despite all his hard work he is still underperforming in his job. He reports also feeling that he is an inadequate father and reports that his children complain about his refusal to spend money and enjoy himself.

      Which of the following ICD-11 conditions do you most suspect?:

      Your Answer: Personality disorder with anankastic

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)

      Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.

      The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.

      The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.

      Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not a recommended intervention for panic disorder according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recommended intervention for panic disorder according to NICE?

      Your Answer: Self help

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT)...

    Correct

    • Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels?

      Your Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin, an AED, is recognized for its ability to decrease AST and ALT levels, but it is also associated with the development of visual field impairments.

      Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs

      Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.

      One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.

      Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.

      AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.

      TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.

      Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).

      Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs

      Correct Answer: Indifference to praise and criticism

      Explanation:

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with...

    Correct

    • What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with an antipsychotic for patients with schizophrenia if clozapine is not effective?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family of personal history of major mental disorder, gradually began to experience obsessive thinking centered around the thought that she was harmful to her husband before he passed away 5 years ago. She also had the thought that she should kill herself to avoid further troubles. She was not actually unhappy in her marriage and was, in fact, helpful to her husband. These obsessive thoughts occurred to her automatically, without apparent relation to her actual circumstances.

      Two months later, her symptoms worsened, and she was brought to the outpatient clinic by her daughter, suffering from depressed mood, guilt, suicidal ideation, insomnia, loss of appetite, loss of interest, psychomotor retardation, anxiety and paranoid symptoms. Furthermore, the ideas about her previous conduct towards her husband had progressed to the point of being delusional. Her BMI was within normal range and although her appetite was reduced, her fluid intake was normal.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline in combination with olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with psychotic depression and the recommended treatment is a combination of TCA and antipsychotic medication. While ECT has been shown to be effective, it is not necessary at this time as the patient’s condition is not life-threatening. There is some evidence, although limited, to suggest that ketamine and mifepristone may also be beneficial in treating this condition.

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      120.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended initial medication treatment for an adult patient with obsessive compulsive disorder who prefers pharmacological therapy over psychological therapy?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Both the NICE Guidelines and the Maudsley Guidelines suggest using SSRIs as the primary treatment for OCD, with the Maudsley also mentioning clomipramine as an option. However, the Maudsley advises trying SSRIs first due to potential tolerability concerns with clomipramine. It is recommended to follow both sets of guidelines consistently whenever feasible.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 70-year-old male who is an inpatient detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act on a geriatric unit. Nursing staff are concerned as he fell earlier, and has been refusing all medication. He has a diagnosis of dementia, and agitation. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. He has lost 2 kg in the past week, and on examination is unable to stand without assistance. You arrange several urgent investigations.
      Which of the following results would be most alarming?

      Your Answer: Glucose 3.0

      Correct Answer: Urea 20

      Explanation:

      1. Dehydration can lead to medical crisis and urgent medical assessment is necessary.
      2. Oral replacement is preferable, but parenteral fluids may be required if the patient is refusing to drink.
      3. A white cell count of >4 and neutrophils >1.5 is not normally a cause for concern.
      4. Chronic low potassium levels (down to 1.5) in purging are common, but acute changes are more dangerous.
      5. An albumin level of 36 is not normally a cause for concern.
      6. Glucose levels of 3.0 may be concerning, but immediate action is required if levels drop below 2.5.
      7. The Mental Health Act may be used to provide treatment for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most common factor associated with suicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common factor associated with suicide?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      103.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The following  drug should be avoided in people with epilepsy who develop depression?...

    Incorrect

    • The following  drug should be avoided in people with epilepsy who develop depression?

      Your Answer: Moclobemide

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Compared to the other options, bupropion is classified as high risk for individuals with epilepsy. The remaining options are considered low risk of likely low risk.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What signs of symptoms would indicate a borderline personality diagnosis instead of bipolar...

    Correct

    • What signs of symptoms would indicate a borderline personality diagnosis instead of bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Reports of identity disturbance

      Explanation:

      The presence of self-destructive cutting behavior is a strong indicator for a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder.

      Bipolar Disorder Versus BPD

      Bipolar disorder and borderline personality disorder (BPD) can be distinguished from each other based on several factors. Bipolar disorder is characterized by psychomotor activation, which is not typically seen in BPD. Additionally, self-destructive cutting behavior is rare in bipolar disorder but common in BPD. BPD is often associated with sexual trauma, while bipolar disorder has a lower prevalence of sexual trauma. Other BPD features such as identity disturbance and dissociative symptoms are not typically seen in bipolar disorder. Finally, bipolar disorder is highly heritable, while BPD has a lower genetic loading. Understanding these differences is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum...

    Incorrect

    • You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine 100 µg/L

      Correct Answer: Clozapine 900 µg/L

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide can be used to slow gastric emptying

      Correct Answer: Mild transaminitis is common and often asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Eating disorders are linked to both acute and chronic pancreatitis.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative? ...

    Correct

    • Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?

      Your Answer: England

      Explanation:

      World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries

      The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.

      As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What condition is linked to the occurrence of rapid cycling bipolar disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is linked to the occurrence of rapid cycling bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an...

    Correct

    • What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an acute and transient psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the correct approach to managing generalised anxiety disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing generalised anxiety disorder?

      Your Answer: Active monitoring is suggested for those with features of self-harm

      Correct Answer: Suicidal thinking should be monitored weekly for the first month for all people under 30 prescribed SNRIs

      Explanation:

      For individuals under 30 with GAD who are prescribed SSRIs of SNRIs, it is recommended to monitor their suicidal thoughts on a weekly basis during the first month. Non-facilitated self-help typically includes limited therapist interaction, such as brief phone calls lasting no more than 5 minutes.

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      183.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which group is the focus of the MARSIPAN group's recommendations regarding physical care?...

    Incorrect

    • Which group is the focus of the MARSIPAN group's recommendations regarding physical care?

      Your Answer: Patients receiving high dose antipsychotics

      Correct Answer: Patients with anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The formation of the MARSIPAN working group was prompted by the observation that several patients with severe anorexia nervosa were being admitted to general medical units and experiencing deterioration and even death. The working group has put forth a variety of suggestions, and it is advisable to review the college report for comprehensive information (refer to the provided link).

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - How can depression manifest as a physical symptom in the body? ...

    Correct

    • How can depression manifest as a physical symptom in the body?

      Your Answer: Loss of emotional reactivity

      Explanation:

      Depression (Biological Symptoms)

      Depression can be classified into biological (physical) of psychological symptoms. The terms used to describe biological symptoms include somatic, vital, melancholic, and endogeno morphic. These terms are used interchangeably in exams, so it is important to be familiar with them.

      Biological symptoms of depression include decreased appetite, weight loss, lack of emotional reactivity, anhedonia, early morning waking, depression worse in the mornings, psychomotor changes (retardation and agitation), fatigue, reduced libido, constipation, and insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a fellow...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a fellow officer was killed in the line of duty. She describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 3 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Psychodynamic therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment approach is cognitive-behavioral therapy that specifically targets trauma.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the options below is not a NICE-recommended method for preventing bipolar...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not a NICE-recommended method for preventing bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, individuals with bipolar disorder should be considered for long-term treatment with lithium, olanzapine, quetiapine, of valproate. If symptoms are not adequately controlled with one medication, augmentation with lithium, olanzapine, of valproate may be considered. If augmentation is not effective, Lamotrigine of carbamazepine may be considered as alternative options.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is a true statement about catatonia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about catatonia?

      Your Answer: Patients with schizophrenia who develop catatonia are less likely to respond to treatment than those with mood disorders

      Explanation:

      Catatonia can occur in both functional mental illnesses like schizophrenia and general medical conditions such as infections, drug withdrawal, and endocrine disorders. The primary treatment for catatonia is benzodiazepines, with a typical response time of 3-7 days. If benzodiazepines are ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be necessary. However, patients with schizophrenia are less likely to respond to either treatment compared to those with mood disorders.

      Catatonia Treatment

      Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What...

    Incorrect

    • The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What is the estimated risk of neutropenia associated with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Mania in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Steroid-induced psychosis

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for pseudologia fantastica (pathological lying) is psychotherapy.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have...

    Correct

    • In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have the highest occurrence rate?

      Your Answer: Phobia

      Explanation:

      In the ECA, phobias were the prevalent form of anxiety disorder.

      Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey

      The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.

      However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.

      The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A woman in her 50s who has a lengthy history of schizophrenia has...

    Correct

    • A woman in her 50s who has a lengthy history of schizophrenia has experimented with various antipsychotics before and is now interested in trying a new one. She cannot remember the names of the ones she has taken in the past but remembers being informed that she experienced anticholinergic side-effects and wants to avoid them at all costs. Which of the following choices is most probable to lead to anticholinergic side-effects?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine exhibits significant anticholinergic effects, resulting in both xerostomia and excessive salivation.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following traits does not align with the diagnosis of dependent...

    Correct

    • Which of the following traits does not align with the diagnosis of dependent personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Excessive need for admiration and acclaim

      Explanation:

      Narcissistic personality disorder may be indicated by an excessive desire for admiration.

      Dependent Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals excessively rely on others for support and fear abandonment. This disorder falls under Cluster C personality disorders. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder includes exhibiting five of more of the following behaviors: difficulty making decisions without input from others, requiring others to take on responsibilities, fear of disagreement, difficulty starting projects without support, excessive need for nurturance and support, feeling vulnerable and helpless when alone, seeking new relationships when one ends, and having an unrealistic fear of being left alone and unable to care for oneself. The ICD-11 removed the specific diagnosis of Dependent Personality Disorder, but individuals can still be diagnosed with a general personality disorder if they exhibit dependent features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which statement accurately describes the monitoring process for Clozaril? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the monitoring process for Clozaril?

      Your Answer: The manufacturer requires that the patient must have regular plasma clozapine levels

      Correct Answer: Blood monitoring must be done weekly for the first 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established on lithium carbonate, once daily, for prophylaxis of recurrent depression for several years and has had stable levels. She also suffers from ankylosing spondylitis for which she has been prescribed celecoxib for many years. Her lithium level was checked three days prior to her appointment and was 0.6 mmol/L.

      When should her next lithium levels be checked?

      Your Answer: In six months

      Correct Answer: In three months

      Explanation:

      Patients taking lithium should be cautious when using celecoxib, an NSAID that has the potential to elevate lithium levels.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient tells you that they are extremely frightened of the dentist. When...

    Correct

    • A patient tells you that they are extremely frightened of the dentist. When they think of going they get palpitations and become breathless. They haven't visited a dentist for 10 years and have very poor dental hygiene.

      What diagnosis is indicated?

      Your Answer: Specific phobia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Specific Phobia: Diagnosis, Course, and Treatment

      A specific phobia is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear of anxiety about a particular object of situation that is out of proportion to the actual danger it poses. This fear of anxiety is evoked almost every time the individual comes into contact with the phobic stimulus, and they actively avoid it of experience intense fear of anxiety if they cannot avoid it. Specific phobias usually develop in childhood, with situational phobias having a later onset than other types. Although most specific phobias develop in childhood, they can develop at any age, often due to traumatic experiences.

      Exposure therapy is the current treatment of choice for specific phobias, involving in-vivo of imaging approaches to phobic stimuli of situations. Pharmacotherapy is not commonly used, but glucocorticoids and D-cycloserine have been found to be effective. Systematic desensitization, developed by Wolpe, was the first behavioral approach for phobias, but subsequent research found that exposure was the crucial variable for eliminating phobias. Graded exposure therapy is now preferred over flooding, which is considered unnecessarily traumatic. Only a small percentage of people with specific phobias receive treatment, possibly due to the temporary relief provided by avoidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A man who has recently turned 60 and is still taking medication for...

    Correct

    • A man who has recently turned 60 and is still taking medication for hypertension develops mania. He fails to respond to olanzapine. Considering the fact that he is taking medication for hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What is the most consistently identified risk factor for the development of schizophrenia?...

    Correct

    • What is the most consistently identified risk factor for the development of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Family history

      Explanation:

      A family history of schizophrenia is the most significant and extensively documented risk factor associated with the onset of the disorder.

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 15-year-old boy is brought for review. He is normally fit and well...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought for review. He is normally fit and well and hasn't seen a doctor for over five years. His mother has been increasingly concerned about his behaviour in the past few weeks. She describes him staying up late at night, talking quickly and being very irritable. Yesterday he told his mother he was planning to 'take-over' the company meeting and give 'constructive criticism' to his bosses in front of the other employees. He feels many of his colleagues are 'underperforming' and need to be 'retaught' their jobs by him. He admits to trying cannabis once around six months ago and has drunk alcohol 'a few times' in the past year, the last time being two weeks ago. Prior to his deterioration a few weeks ago his mother describes him as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young man.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol use, considering the significant amount of time that has passed since he last consumed those substances.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism? ...

    Correct

    • What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: Simpson-Angus scale

      Explanation:

      The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What does the standardized mortality ratio indicate for individuals with schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the standardized mortality ratio indicate for individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 5-Jun

      Correct Answer: 2-Mar

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Mortality

      Schizophrenia is associated with a reduced life expectancy, according to a meta-analysis of 37 studies. The analysis found that people with schizophrenia have a mean SMR (standardised mortality ratio) of 2.6, meaning that their risk of dying over the next year is 2.6 times higher than that of people without the condition. Suicide and accidents contribute significantly to the increased SMR, while cardiovascular disease is the leading natural cause of death. SMR decreases with age due to the early peak of suicides and the gradual rise in population mortality. There is no sex difference in SMR, but patients who are unmarried, unemployed, and of lower social class have higher SMRs. The majority of deaths in people with schizophrenia are due to natural causes, with circulatory disease being the most common. Other linked causes include diabetes, epilepsy, and respiratory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is a true statement about self-harm? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about self-harm?

      Your Answer: There is a higher incidence of self-harm in people from sexual minorities

      Explanation:

      Self-harm has become more common in the UK over the past two decades, but this trend differs from the patterns seen in completed suicides. Women and girls are more likely to engage in self-harm than men and boys, while completed suicides are more common among the latter group. Certain populations, such as prisoners, asylum seekers, veterans, those bereaved by suicide, and individuals from cultural of sexual minority groups, also have a higher incidence of self-harm. It’s important to note that self-harm does not always indicate an attempt of desire to commit suicide, and may even serve as a means of self-preservation.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case...

    Incorrect

    • Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case management system?

      Your Answer: NEMESIS

      Correct Answer: UK700

      Explanation:

      UK700 Trial on Assertive Community Treatment

      Assertive community treatment was created to assist patients who have difficulty staying out of the hospital to live more successfully in the community. The UK700 case management trial aimed to determine if enhanced outcomes could be achieved under CPA by reducing case-load size. The trial tested the hypothesis that reducing CPA case-loads to 10-15 patients (intensive case management) would result in less hospitalization. However, the findings did not support the hypothesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the recommended pharmacological intervention for insomnia in a pregnant woman, as...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended pharmacological intervention for insomnia in a pregnant woman, as advised by NICE?

      Your Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends that promethazine may be considered for pregnant women experiencing insomnia, but only after non-medication options such as sleep hygiene measures and psychological interventions have been attempted. It is important to note that promethazine is licensed for sedation and not specifically for insomnia in pregnancy, except in cases where it is associated with urticaria of pruritus. Therefore, its use for insomnia in pregnancy would be considered off-label, although it is supported by NICE.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      156.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania? ...

    Correct

    • What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania?

      Your Answer: Delusions of grandeur

      Explanation:

      While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is a true statement about hypnotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about hypnotics?

      Your Answer: Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics such as zolpidem are more effective in the treatment of insomnia than benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Zopiclone is more likely to impair driving than benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      The Z drugs, such as zopiclone and zolpidem, were heavily marketed as being more effective than benzodiazepines and less likely to cause dependence. However, this has been proven to be untrue. While there are some differences between the two types of drugs, zopiclone has been found to impair driving more than benzodiazepines. Initially, NICE rejected the idea that z-drugs were superior to benzodiazepines, but now recommends them without clear reasoning. Barbone’s study in 1998 found a link between benzodiazepine use and road-traffic accidents.

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      107.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania? ...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP complaining of depression. The GP decides to prescribe an antidepressant. What medication should the GP steer clear of due to its interaction with Tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Moclobemide

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.

      Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (29/50) 58%
Passmed