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Question 1
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman reports experiencing watery stools and fecal urgency after undergoing gastrointestinal surgery to treat chronic bowel inflammation. While she suspects she may have developed irritable bowel syndrome, further investigation suggests that she may be suffering from bile acid malabsorption as a result of her surgery.
Where is the most likely site of this patient's surgery?Your Answer: Terminal ileum
Explanation:The primary role of the large intestine is to absorb water and create solid waste.
Bile is a liquid that is produced in the liver at a rate of 500ml to 1500mL per day. It is made up of bile salts, bicarbonate, cholesterol, steroids, and water. The flow of bile is regulated by three factors: hepatic secretion, gallbladder contraction, and sphincter of oddi resistance. Bile salts are absorbed in the terminal ileum and are recycled up to six times a day, with over 90% of all bile salts being recycled.
There are two types of bile salts: primary and secondary. Primary bile salts include cholate and chenodeoxycholate, while secondary bile salts are formed by bacterial action on primary bile salts and include deoxycholate and lithocholate. Deoxycholate is reabsorbed, while lithocholate is insoluble and excreted.
Gallstones can form when there is an excess of cholesterol in the bile. Bile salts have a detergent action and form micelles, which have a lipid center that transports fats. However, excessive amounts of cholesterol cannot be transported in this way and will precipitate, resulting in the formation of cholesterol-rich gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with persistent constipation visits his doctor seeking a laxative prescription. Despite having a good appetite and hydration, he has no notable medical history except for constipation. He is a non-alcoholic but occasionally smokes when socializing with friends.
The doctor intends to prescribe a laxative to alleviate the patient's constipation, but like any other medication, laxatives have side effects that must be taken into account before prescribing.
What is the laxative that has been demonstrated to have carcinogenic properties?Your Answer: Senna
Correct Answer: Co-danthramer
Explanation:Co-danthramer is a genotoxic laxative that should only be prescribed to patients receiving palliative care due to its potential to cause cancer. Other laxatives should be considered first for patients with constipation. However, if constipation is not improved by other laxatives, co-danthramer may be prescribed to palliative patients. It is important to note that a high-fibre diet, adequate fluid intake, and exercise are recommended for all patients with constipation. Fruits and vegetables high in fibre and sorbitol, as well as fruit juices high in sorbitol, can also be helpful in preventing and treating constipation.
Understanding Laxatives
Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.
Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.
Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.
In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe epigastric pain that extends to her back. The patient displays clinical signs of jaundice. She reports drinking only one small glass of red wine per week and no other alcohol intake. What is the probable reason for acute pancreatitis in this patient?
Your Answer: Autoimmune
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:The leading causes of pancreatitis are gallstones and heavy alcohol use. However, in the case of this patient with sickle cell disease, pigment gallstones are the most probable cause of their acute pancreatitis. Although autoimmune diseases like polyarteritis nodosa can also lead to pancreatitis, it is less common than gallstones. Additionally, the patient’s alcohol consumption is not significant enough to be a likely cause of their condition.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and undergoes an upper GI endoscopy, which reveals the presence of Helicobacter pylori. A duodenal ulcer is found in the first part of the duodenum, and biopsies are taken. The biopsies show epithelium that resembles cells of the gastric antrum. What is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Duodenal dysplasia
Correct Answer: Duodenal metaplasia
Explanation:Metaplasia refers to the conversion of one cell type to another. Although metaplasia itself does not directly cause cancer, prolonged exposure to factors that trigger metaplasia can eventually lead to malignant transformations in cells. In cases of H-Pylori induced ulcers, metaplastic changes in the duodenal cap are commonly observed. However, these changes usually disappear after the ulcer has healed and eradication therapy has been administered.
Metaplasia is a reversible process where differentiated cells transform into another cell type. This change may occur as an adaptive response to stress, where cells sensitive to adverse conditions are replaced by more resilient cell types. Metaplasia can be a normal physiological response, such as the transformation of cartilage into bone. The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves the conversion of columnar cells to squamous cells, which can be caused by smoking or Schistosomiasis. In contrast, metaplasia from squamous to columnar cells occurs in Barrett’s esophagus. If the metaplastic stimulus is removed, the cells will revert to their original differentiation pattern. However, if the stimulus persists, dysplasia may develop. Although metaplasia is not directly carcinogenic, factors that predispose to metaplasia may induce malignant transformation. The pathogenesis of metaplasia involves the reprogramming of stem cells or undifferentiated mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue, which differentiate along a new pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of diverticular disease presents to the surgical assessment unit with abdominal pain and a fever. Her white blood cell count is elevated, but she is otherwise stable. The diagnosis is diverticulitis. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Analgesia and antibiotics
Correct Answer: Antibiotics, a liquid diet and analgesia
Explanation:The initial management approach for mild diverticulitis typically involves a combination of oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia.
Understanding Diverticulitis
Diverticulitis is a condition where an out-pouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This out-pouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.
Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity (especially in younger patients), and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.
Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect chest X-ray, abdominal X-ray, and CT scan may be used to diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. More severe cases may require hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.
In summary, diverticulitis is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and complications. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You come across a patient in the medical assessment unit who has been admitted with a two-day history of haematemesis. An endoscopy revealed bleeding oesophageal varices that were banded and ligated. The consultant informs you that this patient has cirrhosis of the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption.
What other vein is likely to be dilated in this patient?Your Answer: Long saphenous vein
Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein
Explanation:The Relationship between Liver Cirrhosis and Varices
Liver cirrhosis is a condition that occurs in patients with alcohol-related liver disease due to the accumulation of aldehyde, which is formed during the metabolism of alcohol. The excessive amounts of aldehyde produced cannot be processed by hepatocytes, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators. These mediators activate hepatic stellate cells, which constrict off the inflamed sinusoids by depositing collagen in the space of Disse. This collagen deposition increases the resistance against the sinusoidal vascular bed, leading to portal hypertension.
To relieve excess pressure, the portal system forces blood back into systemic circulation at portosystemic anastomotic points. These anastomoses exist at various locations, including the distal end of the oesophagus, splenorenal ligament, retroperitoneum, anal canal, and abdominal wall. The high pressure causes the systemic veins to dilate, becoming varices, because the weak thin walls do not oppose resistance and pressure.
The superior rectal vein is the only vein that forms a collateral blood supply with systemic circulation. Therefore, the pressure from the superior rectal vein is passed onto the systemic veins, causing them to dilate and leading to the formation of haemorrhoids. The other veins listed are part of systemic circulation and have no collateral anastomoses with the portal circulatory system. In summary, liver cirrhosis can lead to varices due to the increased pressure in the portal system, which forces blood back into systemic circulation and causes systemic veins to dilate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. The procedure reveals diffuse gastric and duodenal ulcers. Upon conducting a Clo test, Helicobacter pylori infection is confirmed. What is the probable cause of the ulcers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased acid production
Explanation:H-Pylori is capable of causing both gastric and duodenal ulcers, but the mechanism behind this is not fully understood. One theory suggests that the organism induces gastric metaplasia in the duodenum by increasing acid levels. This metaplastic transformation is necessary for H-Pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and cause ulcers. Therefore, only individuals who have undergone this transformation are at risk for duodenal ulcers caused by H-Pylori.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the GP with a complaint of dull abdominal pain that has been bothering her for the past 3 months. The pain is usually worse on the left side and sometimes eases after passing stool. She also reports having more diarrhea than usual. Last week, she had an episode of fresh red bleeding from the back passage. She denies any changes in her diet and has a past medical history of total abdominal hysterectomy, osteoarthritis, and basal cell carcinoma. On examination, her abdomen is mildly tender in the left iliac fossa, and rectal examination is normal. Her BMI is 27 kg/m², and she drinks a large whisky every evening. The GP urgently refers her for investigations, and she is diagnosed with diverticulosis. What feature of her history puts her at the greatest risk for diverticulosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-fibre diet
Explanation:Intestinal diverticula are more likely to develop in individuals with a low fibre diet. This patient’s diet appears to be lacking in fruits and vegetables, which increases their risk. While smoking has been linked to diverticulosis, there is no evidence to suggest that alcohol consumption is a risk factor. Although obesity is associated with an increased risk, this patient’s BMI is not in the obese range. Diverticulosis is more prevalent in men than women, and abdominal surgery is not a known risk factor.
Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.
Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.
During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.
What medication was he most likely prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestyramine
Explanation:Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.
Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.
Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.
Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol
Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.
However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the urinary diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Explanation:The measurement of 5-HIAA in urine is a crucial aspect of clinical monitoring.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and is diagnosed with self-neglect. He reports experiencing fatigue, paraesthesia in his lower limbs, and overall muscle weakness that is more pronounced in his legs for the past 3 months. He has been finding it difficult to carry out his daily activities, especially cooking, due to his inability to stand for long periods of time.
What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor as she has discovered a lump in her groin. She reports feeling well otherwise and has not experienced any changes in bowel movements or abdominal discomfort. The patient mentions that the lump tends to increase in size throughout the day, particularly when she is busy looking after her grandchildren. She has never undergone abdominal surgery. The doctor suspects a hernia and upon examination, identifies that it can be reduced and locates the hernia's neck, which is situated inferiorly and laterally to the pubic tubercle. What is the probable cause of the patient's groin lump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Femoral hernias are more prevalent in women than men, and their location at the neck of the hernia, which is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, is indicative of a femoral hernia. On the other hand, an inguinal hernia would have its neck located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle, while both direct and indirect inguinal hernias share this characteristic. Since the patient has no surgical history, this cannot be an incisional hernia. A spigelian hernia, on the other hand, occurs when there is a herniation through the spigelian fascia, which is located along the semilunar line.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is currently admitted to the female orthopedic ward following a left total hip replacement after a femoral neck fracture. The surgery was uncomplicated, and the patient is expected to be discharged in four days. However, in the evening, the patient complains of feeling unwell and experiencing pain in the left hip area. The nurse records her vital signs, which include a pulse rate of 94 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg, and a temperature of 38.1ºC (100.6 degrees Fahrenheit). The ward doctor suspects a bone infection around the hip prosthesis and initiates treatment with clindamycin while awaiting review by the orthopedic surgeon. The patient's pain and suspected bone infection eventually subside, but after two days, the patient develops severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. What is the most likely causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive anaerobic bacilli
Explanation:Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by the gram-positive bacillus Clostridium difficile, which can overgrow in the intestine following broad-spectrum antibiotic use. A patient recovering from a total hip replacement who develops signs of infection and is treated with clindamycin may develop severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, indicating a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Treatment options include metronidazole or oral vancomycin for more severe cases. Staphylococcus bacteria are gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci that can be differentiated based on coagulase positivity and novobiocin sensitivity. Listeria, Bacillus, and Corynebacterium are gram-positive aerobic bacilli, while Campylobacter jejuni, Vibrio cholerae, and Helicobacter pylori are gram-negative, oxidase-positive comma-shaped rods with specific growth characteristics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient who underwent tubal ligation presents to her general practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, flank pain, visible blood in her urine, and involuntary urinary leakage. She has a history of lithotripsy for renal calculi one year ago. A CT scan of her abdomen and pelvis reveals an intra-abdominal fluid collection. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureter injury
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and CT findings suggest that they may have suffered iatrogenic damage to their ureters, which are retroperitoneal organs. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space, causing haematuria, abdominal/flank pain, and incontinence. While calculi and lithotripsy can damage the ureter mucosal lining, they are unlikely to have caused fluid accumulation in the intra-abdominal cavity, especially since the lithotripsy was performed a year ago. Pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections can cause similar symptoms, but their CT findings would be different.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He reports passing bloody stool during a recent bowel movement. Upon examination, you observe an irregular pulse and a tender abdomen. After conducting tests, you diagnose the patient with ischaemic colitis affecting the transverse colon.
What other organ receives blood supply from the same branch of the aorta at the vertebral level L1?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4th part of the duodenum
Explanation:The splenic flexure of the colon marks the boundary between the midgut and the hindgut.
When a blood clot travels to the abdominal arteries and blocks the blood supply to a section of the gut, it can lead to ischaemic colitis. This condition is more prevalent in older individuals, and those with atrial fibrillation (as indicated by the patient’s irregular pulse) are at a higher risk. The area most commonly affected is the watershed region of the colon, where blood supply transitions from one artery to another. This region is the junction between the midgut and the hindgut.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut, which includes the proximal transverse colon.
The foregut-derived organs, such as the 1st part of the duodenum, spleen, and liver, are supplied by the coeliac trunk.
The hindgut includes the descending colon, which is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply
The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.
The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She denies the presence of blood. There is no history of recent travel. The diarrhoea is stopping her from going to work, and so she has been forced to take unpaid leave. She wants to return to work as she is the sole breadwinner for the family.
On examination, she is apyrexial but looks clinically dehydrated.
After ruling out infection and inflammatory bowel disease, you prescribe a short course of loperamide to help slow down her bowel movements.
What is the mechanism of action of the prescribed anti-diarrhoeal medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agonist of μ-opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine
Explanation:The myenteric plexus of the large intestine’s μ-opioid receptors are targeted by loperamide.
Antidiarrhoeal Agents: Opioid Agonists
Antidiarrhoeal agents are medications used to treat diarrhoea. Opioid agonists are a type of antidiarrhoeal agent that work by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which reduces the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. Two common opioid agonists used for this purpose are loperamide and diphenoxylate.
Loperamide is available over-the-counter and is often used to treat acute diarrhoea. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the intestines, which reduces the contractions of the muscles in the intestinal wall. This slows down the movement of food and waste through the intestines, allowing more time for water to be absorbed and resulting in firmer stools.
Diphenoxylate is a prescription medication that is often used to treat chronic diarrhoea. It works in a similar way to loperamide, but is often combined with atropine to discourage abuse and overdose.
Overall, opioid agonists are effective at treating diarrhoea, but should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. They can cause side effects such as constipation, dizziness, and nausea, and may interact with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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During a splenectomy, which structure will need to be divided in a 33-year-old man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short gastric vessels
Explanation:When performing a splenectomy, it is necessary to cut the short gastric vessels located in the gastrosplenic ligament. The mobilization of the splenic flexure of the colon may also be required, but it is unlikely that it will need to be cut. This is because it is a critical area that would require a complete colonic resection if it were divided.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen
The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.
The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his doctor with a complaint of dysphagia that has been going on for three months. Initially, he could swallow some solid foods, but now he is only able to eat pureed foods. He has no difficulty swallowing liquids. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol consumption and is currently taking omeprazole for heartburn. He has lost a significant amount of weight due to his reduced caloric intake.
What is the likely cause of his dysphagia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is likely a structural disorder of the oesophagus
Explanation:If a person has difficulty swallowing only solids, it is likely due to a structural disorder in the oesophagus such as cancer, strictures, or webs/rings. On the other hand, if they have difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids, it is probably due to a motility disorder in the oesophagus such as achalasia, scleroderma, or nutcracker oesophagus.
If the dysphagia is progressive, it may indicate cancer as the cause, as the ability to swallow foods that were previously manageable becomes increasingly difficult over time. Weight loss could also be a result of either cancer or reduced food intake.
It is important to note that although GORD can cause heartburn, it is not a likely cause of dysphagia.
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the oesophagus, including cancer, oesophagitis, candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, and globus hystericus. These conditions have distinct features that can help in their diagnosis, such as weight loss and anorexia in oesophageal cancer, heartburn in oesophagitis, dysphagia of both liquids and solids in achalasia, and anxiety in globus hystericus. Dysphagia can also be classified as extrinsic, intrinsic, or neurological, depending on the underlying cause.
To diagnose dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, a full blood count, and fluoroscopic swallowing studies. Additional tests, such as ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies, may be needed for specific conditions. It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. By understanding the causes and features of dysphagia, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient in her 50s has been diagnosed with duodenal ulcers caused by excessive gastric acid secretion. Upon reviewing her pancreatic function, the consultant found that her S cells are not functioning properly, resulting in decreased secretion of secretin. How will this impact her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid
Explanation:The secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells is increased by secretin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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