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  • Question 1 - You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to...

    Correct

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
      What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?

      Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.9
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.

      On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.

      What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents

      Introduction:
      A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.

      Myocardial Infarction:
      Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.

      Duodenal Ulcer:
      A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.

      Acute Gastritis:
      Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.

      Pancreatitis:
      Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.

      Ischaemic Bowel:
      Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level...

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    • An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.

      In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.

      Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.

      Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and started on a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and started on a medication to lower her blood pressure. She then stopped taking the medication as she reported ankle swelling. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 160/110 mmHg. She denies any headache, palpitation, chest pain, leg claudication or visual problems. She was diagnosed with osteoporosis with occasional back pain and has been admitted to the hospital for a hip fracture on two occasions over the last 3 years. There is no history of diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease or stroke. She has no known drug allergy. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 is loud. The S2 is normal. There is an S4 sound without a murmur, rub or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium and chloride), creatinine and urea nitrogen are within normal range.
      What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis. Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk, propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old man, a bus driver, with a history of angina, is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man, a bus driver, with a history of angina, is admitted to hospital with chest pain. He is diagnosed and successfully treated for a STEMI, and discharged one week later.
      Which of the following activities is permitted during the first month of his recovery?

      Your Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Correct Answer: Drinking alcohol (up to 14 units)

      Explanation:

      Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Precautions: Guidelines for Alcohol, Machinery, Driving, Sex, and Exercise

      After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, it is crucial to take precautions to prevent further complications. Here are some guidelines to follow:

      Alcohol Consumption: Patients should be advised to keep their alcohol consumption within recommended limits, which is now 14 units per week for both men and women.

      Operating Heavy Machinery: Patients should avoid operating heavy machinery for four weeks post MI.

      Bus Driving: Patients should refrain from driving a bus or lorry for six weeks post MI. If the patient had angioplasty, driving is not allowed for one week if successful and four weeks if unsuccessful or not performed.

      Sexual Intercourse: Patients should avoid sexual intercourse for four weeks post MI.

      Vigorous Exercise: Patients should refrain from vigorous exercise for four weeks post MI.

      Following these guidelines can help prevent further complications and aid in the recovery process after a myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
      Investigation Patient Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
      Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: CT angiogram of renal arteries

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio

      Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man reports the pain as crushing in nature, exacerbated by exertion, particularly when climbing stairs in his home. The pain is typically relieved by rest, but he has experienced several episodes while watching television in the past two weeks. He has no other medical history and is generally in good health.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Send for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

      Correct Answer: Refer to hospital for admission for observation and urgent elective angiogram

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management for a Patient with Unstable Angina

      Unstable angina is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. In the case of a patient displaying textbook signs of unstable angina, such as crushing chest pain occurring at rest, admission to the hospital is necessary. Sending the patient home with only glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not appropriate, as the patient is at high risk of having a myocardial infarction (MI). Instead, the patient should be seen by Cardiology for consideration of an urgent elective angiogram.

      Prescribing ramipril and simvastatin is not indicated unless there is evidence of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, including exercise recommendation, is also not appropriate for a patient with unstable angina. The immediate problem should be addressed first, which is the need for an angiogram.

      It is important to differentiate between unstable and stable angina. Unstable angina presents with symptoms at rest, indicating a significant worsening of the patient’s cardiac disease. On the other hand, stable angina only presents with symptoms on exertion.

      Sending the patient for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is not necessary unless there is evidence of an MI. The pain experienced due to angina will alleviate itself most commonly at rest, unless the angina is unstable. Therefore, an urgent elective angiogram is the appropriate management for a patient with unstable angina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.6
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip (lead II) performed in the Emergency Department. It reveals one P wave for every QRS complex and a PR interval of 240 ms.
      What does this rhythm strip reveal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First-degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Heart Block

      Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart block, each with its own characteristic features.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. This type of heart block is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment.

      Second-degree heart block can be further divided into two types: Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach’s phenomenon, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Mobitz type 2, on the other hand, is characterized by intermittent P waves that fail to conduct to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped QRS complexes. This type of heart block often progresses to complete heart block.

      Complete heart block, also known as third-degree heart block, occurs when there is no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The ventricular rate is often slow, reflecting a ventricular escape rhythm as the ventricles are no longer controlled by the sinoatrial node pacemaker. This type of heart block requires immediate medical attention.

      Understanding the different types of heart block is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of heart block, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (5/9) 56%
Passmed