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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Transmural involvement
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis
Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
His blood test results are shown below.
Investigation Results Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps
Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.
Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis
When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.
Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.
In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness. He has lost 6 kg in weight over the past 3 months. There is no other past medical history of note. On examination, he looks very thin and there is a palpable epigastric mass.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 140 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 68 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a smooth mass in the body of the stomach with normal-looking mucosa overlying it. Multiple biopsies: spindle cell tissue, cells undergoing multiple mitoses.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours (GISTs) vs Other Gastric Conditions
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are the most common tumours of mesenchymal origin in the gastrointestinal tract, with approximately 50-70% occurring in the stomach. They are histologically characterized by spindle cells, epithelioid-like cells, or mixed spindle-epithelioid cells. GISTs tend to occur in individuals above the age of 40 and are equally common in men and women. Biopsy specimens are stained with DOG1 for identification, and surgical resection is the preferred treatment option. Systemic chemotherapy with imatinib is an alternative for patients who cannot undergo complete surgical resection. Disease survival rates at the 5-year stage range from 30-60%.
Other gastric conditions, such as gastric carcinoma, Helicobacter pylori gastritis, gastric leiomyosarcoma, and gastric lipoma, may present with similar symptoms but have different endoscopic and histological findings. Gastric carcinomas are most often adenocarcinomas, while Helicobacter pylori gastritis is the most common cause of gastritis worldwide. Gastric leiomyosarcoma is a differential diagnosis for GISTs, but GISTs are more common. Gastric lipomas would not present with the same combination of findings seen in GISTs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding. He reports a recent loss of appetite and occasional abdominal pain over the past few months. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 130 – 180 g/l
Mean corpuscular value (MCV) 93 fl 80 –100 fl
What is the most suitable test to conduct for the diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms that suggest a blockage in their bowel and potential signs of cancer, such as a loss of appetite and anemia. Therefore, the most important initial investigation is a colonoscopy. A colonic transit study is not appropriate as it is used for slow colonic transit and this patient has symptoms of obstruction. An abdominal X-ray can be used to investigate faecal impaction and rectal masses, but a colonoscopy should be used first-line for detailed information about colonic masses. While a CT abdomen may be needed, a colonoscopy should be performed as the initial investigation for intestinal luminal obstruction and potential malignancy. Checking thyroid function may be useful if there is suspicion of a secondary cause of constipation, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest colonic obstruction and cancer, making a thyroid function test an inappropriate initial investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and progressive weight loss over the past 3 months. During examination, he appears cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He does not exhibit jaundice and his liver function tests are normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatoma
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Liver Metastases: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Liver metastases are a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, with the most frequent primary sites being the bowel and breast. While palpable metastases may not affect liver function, obstruction to the biliary tract or involvement of over half of the liver can lead to impaired function and the presence of ascites. Autopsy studies have shown that 30-70% of cancer patients have liver metastases, with the frequency depending on the primary site. Most liver metastases are multiple and affect both lobes.
When considering a differential diagnosis, cirrhosis can be ruled out as it is the end-stage of chronic liver disease and would typically present with elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Hepatoma is less common than metastases and lymphoma may present with evidence of involvement in other sites, such as lymphadenopathy. Myelofibrosis, which is associated with bone marrow fibrosis and abnormal stem cell appearance in the liver and spleen, may be asymptomatic in its early stages or present with leuko-erythroblastic anemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats. However, it is much less common than liver metastases.
In summary, liver metastases should be considered as a potential cause of nodular hepatomegaly, particularly in patients with a history of cancer. A thorough differential diagnosis should be conducted to rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Left gastric artery
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old man, who is a heavy drinker, presents with massive haematemesis. His vital signs are: pulse = 110 bpm, blood pressure = 80/40 mmHg, temperature = 36.8 °C and respiratory rate = 22 breaths per minute. On physical examination in the Emergency Department, he is noted to have gynaecomastia and caput medusae.
Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the haematemesis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Conditions: Understanding Oesophageal Varices, Hiatus Hernia, Mallory-Weiss Tear, Barrett’s Oesophagus, and Oesophageal Stricture
Gastrointestinal conditions can cause discomfort and even life-threatening complications. Here are five conditions that affect the oesophagus:
Oesophageal Varices: These are enlarged veins in the lower third of the oesophagus that can rupture and cause severe bleeding. They are often caused by portal hypertension, which is associated with chronic liver disease.
Hiatus Hernia: This condition occurs when the diaphragmatic crura separate, causing the stomach to protrude above the diaphragm. There are two types: axial and non-axial. Bleeding with a hiatus hernia is usually not severe.
Mallory-Weiss Tear: This condition is characterized by tears in the oesophageal lining caused by prolonged vomiting. It presents with bright red haematemesis.
Barrett’s Oesophagus: This condition is associated with reflux, inflammation, and possible ulceration. Bleeding is not usually severe.
Oesophageal Stricture: This condition results from scarring, typically caused by reflux or scleroderma. It is a chronic process that does not usually cause severe bleeding.
Understanding these conditions can help individuals recognize symptoms and seek appropriate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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