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  • Question 1 - A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance

      Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.

      However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.

      If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down...

    Correct

    • You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down syndrome. The mother mentions 'white speckles on his eyes'. Upon examination, you find a bilateral red reflex and no abnormalities. What is the mother describing?

      Your Answer: Brushfield spots

      Explanation:

      Brushfield spots, which are small grey or brown spots found on the outer edge of the iris, are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. Cataracts, on the other hand, involve clouding of the lens and are not likely present in this patient as their red reflex appears normal. Coloboma, a congenital defect that causes a gap in the lens, iris, or retina, is associated with Patau syndrome rather than Down syndrome. While there have been links between Down syndrome and congenital glaucoma, the patient’s history does not suggest this condition. A squint, or deviation in the gaze of an eye, is a separate issue altogether.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful joint swelling. The haematology laboratory results are normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Diseases: Symptoms and Management

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), Acute lymphocytic leukaemia, Alport’s syndrome, and Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are some of the common pediatric diseases that require prompt diagnosis and management. HSP is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that often affects children and is associated with IgA dominant immune complexes. ALL is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, causing symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and joint pain. Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that can lead to chronic kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. JRA is characterized by swollen joints, fever, and joint pain. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in these diseases, which may require supportive treatment, pain relief, and monitoring for potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
      Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis

      When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.

      The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
      Fever PAIN score
      Fever – 1
      Pus – 1
      Attenuates quickly – 1
      Inflamed tonsils – 1
      No cough – 1
      A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.

      In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A newborn boy is born via emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and...

    Correct

    • A newborn boy is born via emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and 5 days due to fetal tachycardia and thick meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The mother received intrapartum antibiotics as she was known to be colonized with group B streptococcus. The infant presents with cyanosis, tachypnea, and chest wall retraction. A chest X-ray reveals patchy infiltrates and atelectasis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meconium aspiration syndrome

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn does not exhibit cyanosis or chest X-ray changes. Preterm deliveries are usually associated with surfactant deficiency.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated...

    Correct

    • You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR = 32 ml/min per 1.73m2) with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed on mid-stream urine culture and sensitivity:
      Escherichia coli: heavy growth
      resistant to trimethoprim
      sensitive to nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav
      Which of the following antibiotics is it most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Antibiotic for a UTI: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) and a urine culture confirms the presence of bacteria. However, the causative organism is resistant to the first-line agents nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim, and the patient’s renal function contraindicates the use of nitrofurantoin.

      The next best option would be to use amoxicillin, as long as the organism is susceptible to it. Other suitable options include pivmecillinam and fosfomycin, if there is a high risk of resistance. Ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav are not appropriate for the treatment of a lower UTI.

      In summary, choosing the best antibiotic for a UTI requires consideration of the patient’s renal function and the susceptibility of the causative organism. Amoxicillin, pivmecillinam, and fosfomycin are suitable alternatives when first-line agents are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man has been taking warfarin for 2 years due to paroxysmal...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been taking warfarin for 2 years due to paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent DC cardioversion and is now in sinus rhythm after consulting with his cardiologist. His CHAD-VASC score is 4. Assuming he remains in sinus rhythm, what is the best course of action for his anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Continue anticoagulation lifelong

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulation should be continued long-term, even if sinus rhythm is maintained, following elective DC cardioversion for AF in high-risk patients. The correct answer is to continue anticoagulation lifelong, with regular evaluation of bleeding risk. The options of continuing anticoagulation for 4 weeks or 6 months then stopping are incorrect for this patient who has a high CHAD-VASC score. One week of low molecular weight heparin is not the appropriate answer in this case, although it may be used for thromboprophylaxis in some post-surgical patients.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats and hot flashes for the past year. She had her last menstrual period 20 months ago. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with tamoxifen for breast cancer. She reports no other symptoms but would like to receive medication to alleviate her hot flashes. What is the most suitable prescription for her?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      For patients with active hormone-responsive breast cancer, hormonal methods like HRT and tibolone are not recommended. Instead, non-hormonal methods like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and venlafaxine may be used to alleviate vasomotor symptoms of menopause. Topical estrogen can also be used to alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy, but it does not help with vasomotor symptoms. COCP is not a suitable treatment for menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of feeling tired and having...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of feeling tired and having palpitations for the last few days. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and beats at a rate of 123 bpm. His blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg and his chest is clear. An ECG confirms that he has atrial fibrillation. What medication should be prescribed to manage his heart rate?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When considering a rate control strategy for atrial fibrillation, factors such as age and symptoms should be taken into account. According to NICE guidelines, beta-blockers or rate limiting calcium channel blockers (excluding amlodipine) are preferable options.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.

      The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of fainting. He reports feeling lightheaded while jogging. His father recently passed away suddenly due to a heart condition. Upon examination, he has an irregular pulse, a forceful cardiac impulse, and a mid-systolic murmur.

      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose the ONE best option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic disorder with autosomal dominant transmission that is the most common form of inherited cardiomyopathy. It has a prevalence of about 100 per 100,000 and can present with symptoms similar to aortic stenosis, but with a jerky pulse. Sudden death can be the first symptom, especially during or after physical activity. Risk factors for sudden death in HCM include a history of previous cardiac arrest or sustained ventricular tachycardia, recurrent syncope, adverse genotype and/or family history, exercise-induced hypotension, multiple episodes of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia on ambulatory ECG, and a marked increase in the thickness of the left ventricular wall. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, but given the patient’s family history, jerky pulse, and collapse on exercise, it is not the most likely cause. Mitral valve prolapse tends to present with palpitations, dyspnoea, low BMI, chest pain, and syncope, with a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness, syncope, and angina, but the family history makes HCM more likely than AS. Pericarditis tends to cause central chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward and worsened by coughing or straining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain, dark urine, and pale stools that have been present for the past 24 hours. He reports being a part-time teacher and smoking 10 cigarettes daily. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his sclera are yellow, and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What investigation would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of abdomen

      Explanation:

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa pain. She reports the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a medical history of endometriosis and type 2 diabetes mellitus and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her last menstrual period was 35 days ago, and she is concerned about being pregnant. She has a 4-year-old daughter, and her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Based on her history, what is a potential risk factor for her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Having endometriosis increases the risk of experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This patient’s symptoms and positive pregnancy test suggest a likely diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy. Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, fallopian tube damage, and IVF. However, multiparity, previous pre-eclampsia, twin pregnancy, and type 2 diabetes mellitus are not associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man with a 25 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a 25 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a check-up. He was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (secondary to diabetes) 7 years ago and has experienced a gradual decline in renal function since. His current medications include lisinopril 20 mg daily, amlodipine 5mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, and NovoRapid insulin twice daily.

      His most recent renal function tests reveal the following results:
      - Sodium: 140 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 5.1 mmol/L
      - Urea: 9.8 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 130 µmol/L
      - eGFR: 38 mL/min/1.73m²

      During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 154/90 mmHg and this is confirmed on a second reading. What adjustments should be made to his blood pressure medication?

      Your Answer: Add indapamide

      Explanation:

      When hypertension is poorly controlled despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, adding a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In patients with diabetic nephropathy, achieving tight blood pressure control is crucial. Although ACE inhibitors are the most evidence-based treatment, if blood pressure remains high, the NICE guidelines suggest adding a thiazide-based diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to avoid spironolactone and angiotensin II receptor blockers as they may increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath. She states that this occurred while walking up a flight of stairs and stopped once she sat down. The patient states that over the past few months she has been progressively unable to climb stairs due to shortness of breath and occasional central chest heaviness which occur when she starts climbing. She has a past medical history of diabetes and smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Her parameters are stable, with oxygen saturations of 97%, blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 90 bpm. A chest X-ray is done which comes back as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Correct Answer: Angina pectoris

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Chest Pain: Angina Pectoris, Anxiety Attack, COPD Exacerbation, Pneumothorax, and Unstable Angina

      Chest pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and it is crucial to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest angina pectoris, which is characterized by constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, triggered by physical exertion and relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). However, diabetic patients may present with dyspnea instead of typical anginal pain. The patient’s cardiovascular risk factors, including diabetes, smoking, and hypertension, further support the diagnosis of angina.

      Anxiety attacks can also cause chest pain, along with palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremors, and urinary frequency. Therefore, anxiety should be considered as a possible diagnosis after ruling out life-threatening conditions such as ischemic heart disease.

      Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is another potential cause of chest pain, especially in smokers. However, the absence of a known COPD diagnosis and normal oxygen saturation levels make this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can also cause chest pain, but a normal chest X-ray makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Finally, unstable angina is a severe form of angina that can occur unexpectedly and at rest, lasting longer than stable angina and not relieved by rest. It requires emergency treatment as it can quickly progress to a heart attack. However, in this case, the patient’s symptoms occur during exercise and resolve with rest, suggesting stable angina rather than unstable angina.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for chest pain includes angina pectoris, anxiety attack, COPD exacerbation, pneumothorax, and unstable angina. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, risk factors, and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3800.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      The presentation points towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This is due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.6
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency

      Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      835.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for her annual medication review....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for her annual medication review. Her regular medications are metformin 500 mg, lisinopril 10 mg and she has recently completed a course of ibuprofen tablets. She has been feeling tired and sluggish recently with frequent headaches. Examination reveals she has gained 2 kg since her last review, blood pressure is 142/78 mmHg, pulse is 88 bpm and she has a dry skin.
      Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests are normal. Her thyroid-function test (TFT) results are:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
      Free T4 10.0 pmol/l 12.0–22.0 pmol/l
      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce levothyroxine dose

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing hyperthyroidism due to an excess of levothyroxine replacement. It is important to reduce the dose of levothyroxine and monitor the patient with regular blood tests until they become euthyroid again. Starting carbimazole or increasing the dose of levothyroxine is not recommended as it could lead to further complications. Propylthiouracil is only used in cases of thyrotoxic storm and radio-iodine therapy is not necessary in this case as the hyperthyroidism is due to over-replacement of levothyroxine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
      Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      Negative for HBsAg
      Positive for Anti-HBs
      Negative for Anti-HBc
      Positive for Anti-HCV
      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.

      Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.

      Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.

      In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with left-sided weakness. She takes warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with left-sided weakness. She takes warfarin for deep vein thrombosis and her international normalised ratio (INR) is usually in the therapeutic range of 2–3. Her INR is measured on admission to hospital and is 1.1. She has recently started a new medication.
      Which of the following medications is this patient most likely to have recently started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome P450 Enzyme Inducers and Inhibitors and their Effects on Warfarin Metabolism

      Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and prevent bleeding complications. However, certain medications can affect the metabolism of warfarin by inducing or inhibiting cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver.

      One example of a cytochrome P450 enzyme inducer is carbamazepine, which can increase warfarin metabolism and reduce its effectiveness. This can result in a decreased INR and potentially increase the risk of blood clots. On the other hand, cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors such as cimetidine, erythromycin, ketoconazole, and sulfamethoxazole can reduce warfarin metabolism and increase its potency, leading to an increased INR and higher risk of bleeding complications.

      To remember these medications, a helpful mnemonic is PC BRAS for enzyme inducers and SICKFACES.COM for enzyme inhibitors. Patients starting these medications should be closely monitored for changes in their INR and warfarin dosages may need to be adjusted accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear, accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of pressure in the affected ear. What results would you anticipate from the Rinne and Weber tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weber: louder in the right ear: Rinne air conduction louder than bone in the left ear

      Explanation:

      To diagnose sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne and Weber tests can be used. In this type of hearing loss, air conduction will be louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test will lateralise away from the affected ear. However, before making a diagnosis, it is important to correctly identify the symptoms. For example, sudden hearing loss accompanied by dizziness and pressure in the ear may indicate Meniere’s disease, which causes sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. If the symptoms suggest sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, the results of the tests should show air conduction louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test lateralising away from the left ear. If the results show different patterns, they may suggest conductive or mixed hearing loss in one or both ears.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 23 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor regarding a patient who is five days old and displaying symptoms of cyanosis, tachypnoea, and weak peripheral pulses. Your suspicion is that the patient has a duct dependent cardiac lesion. Once this is confirmed, what would be the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins can maintain the patency of a patent ductus arteriosus, which can be beneficial in cases of duct dependent cardiac lesions such as tetralogy of Fallot, Ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia, and pulmonary stenosis. These conditions may be diagnosed before birth or present with symptoms such as cyanosis, tachypnea, and weak peripheral pulses at birth. While surgery is often the definitive treatment, keeping the duct open with prostaglandins can provide time for appropriate management planning. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome, which can cause liver and brain edema and be fatal. Indomethacin and other medications may also be used to close the duct.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 24 - After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option...

    Incorrect

    • After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:

      Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.

      HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.

      Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.

      HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.

      Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner has tested positive for Chlamydia and she needs treatment as a contact. The doctor prescribes a single dose of azithromycin 1g and screens her for infection. When is it appropriate to conduct a test of cure (TOC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      For symptomatic men with Chlamydia, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. As for women and asymptomatic men, all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent partner should be notified. Pregnant women should undergo a test of cure (TOC) 6 weeks after infection, according to BASHH guidelines. Performing a TOC earlier than 6 weeks may result in a false positive due to the presence of nonviable Chlamydia DNA on the NAAT. However, uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in men and non-pregnant women does not require a routine TOC.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross haematuria. She reports that her sister recently underwent a kidney transplant and that her mother passed away due to renal failure. During physical examination, a significant mass is palpated in the left lumbar region, and a smaller mass is felt in the right flank. Elevated levels of blood urea and serum creatinine are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Common Kidney Disorders and their Clinical Presentations

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a progressive disorder characterized by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Patients may experience pain in the abdomen, flank or back, and hypertension is a common early manifestation. Palpable, bilateral flank masses are present in advanced ADPKD.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
      RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. It may remain clinically occult for most of its course, with only 10% of patients presenting with the classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and unilateral palpable flank mass. RCC presents with hypercalcaemia manifestations in 5% of cases and with varicocele in 2% of men.

      Renal Calculi
      Renal calculi, or nephrolithiasis, classically present with sudden onset of severe pain originating in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. On examination, there is dramatic costovertebral angle tenderness.

      Prostatic Carcinoma
      Most cases of prostate cancer are identified by screening in asymptomatic men. Symptoms include urinary complaints or retention, back pain, and haematuria. Findings in patients with advanced disease include bony tenderness, lower-extremity oedema or deep venous thrombosis, and an overdistended bladder due to outlet obstruction.

      Renal Amyloidosis
      Patients with renal amyloidosis typically present with proteinuria and/or hypertension, followed by progressive renal failure. Haematuria is not a feature.

      Clinical Presentations of Common Kidney Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard release isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 28 - You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He struggles to stand up, using his arms to assist him in rising from a squat. What is this maneuver called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gower's sign

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dystrophinopathies

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in connecting the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both of the binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other common symptoms include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene. This mutation preserves both binding sites, resulting in a less severe form of the disorder. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 10 years, and intellectual impairment is much less common in patients with Becker muscular dystrophy.

      Overall, understanding dystrophinopathies is important for early diagnosis and management of these disorders. While there is currently no cure for dystrophinopathies, early intervention and supportive care can help improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of itching around her vulva and anus for the past 3 days. Upon examination, the area appears red and the skin on her vulva is broken from excessive scratching. Her mother has been applying sudocrem but it has not provided relief. There are no other individuals at home with similar symptoms. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the household and give hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for threadworm is mebendazole. In this case, as the patient is showing symptoms of threadworm, it is important to treat all members of the household with a single dose of mebendazole and provide hygiene advice. While a ‘Scotch tape test’ can be used to confirm the presence of eggs or worms, treatment is often based on symptoms. It is not appropriate to only treat the daughter and provide hygiene advice, as other members of the household may also be infected. Additionally, prescribing 7 days of mebendazole for the daughter alone is incorrect, as a single dose is recommended and a second dose should be taken 14 days later. Piperazine is only recommended for children under 2 years old, so it is not appropriate to prescribe 14 days of piperazine for the daughter in this case.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a lack of which vitamin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a lack of which vitamin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Vitamins and their Deficiencies: Understanding the Role of Thiamine, B12, Nicotinic Acid, Folic Acid, and Vitamin D

      Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, plays a crucial role in preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition caused by thiamine deficiency. This deficiency can result from inadequate dietary intake, reduced gastrointestinal absorption, decreased hepatic storage, and impaired utilization. Individuals with alcohol-use disorders are at high risk and should receive thiamine supplementation.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency, on the other hand, causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia and various neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy. However, it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Nicotinic acid, also known as vitamin B3 or niacin, deficiency causes pellagra, a disease characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

      Folic acid, or vitamin B9, deficiency causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia similar to that caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, but not the peripheral neuropathy caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. It is important to check if a patient with megaloblastic anemia and folic acid deficiency is also lacking vitamin B12, as treating only with folic acid replacement can worsen neurological symptoms.

      Vitamin D is involved in calcium metabolism and mainly affects bone homeostasis. Severe deficiency can cause cognitive impairment in older adults, but it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Understanding the role of these vitamins and their deficiencies can help in the prevention and treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
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