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  • Question 1 - A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness and...

    Correct

    • A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable substitute medication?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.

      Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension

      When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:

      – Amisulpride
      – Aripiprazole
      – Haloperidol
      – Sulpiride
      – Trifluoperazine

      These medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for the council's concern about a man who has made multiple claims about his neighbors harassing him and has been relocated twice before for similar reasons?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with borderline personality disorder may have conflicts with their neighbors, but it is unlikely that they would need to relocate multiple times as a result. On the other hand, those with paranoid personality disorder frequently engage in disputes with their neighbors.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - What is a known factor that can lead to drug-induced mania? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can lead to drug-induced mania?

      Your Answer: Levodopa

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.

      Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.

      The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.

      In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - How should a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI of 14 be...

    Incorrect

    • How should a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI of 14 be managed appropriately?

      Your Answer: 24 hour bed rest

      Correct Answer: Unsupervised use of toilet facilities

      Explanation:

      The MARSIPAN group has provided specific recommendations for managing the physical health issues of patients with anorexia nervosa. These recommendations vary depending on the patient’s BMI, with different management plans suggested for those with a BMI below 15 and those with a BMI below 13. For patients with a BMI below 15, the group suggests allowing unsupervised use of the toilet, but advises that fluid balance monitoring may be necessary. The other options mentioned in the question are relevant for patients with a BMI below 13. The MARSIPAN guidelines were published in October 2010 as the College Report CR162 by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and Royal College of Physicians in London.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - What potential adverse effect on the neonate may be linked to the use...

    Correct

    • What potential adverse effect on the neonate may be linked to the use of SSRIs after 20 weeks of gestation?

      Your Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      According to the 13th edition of Maudsley, taking SSRIs after 20 weeks of pregnancy may be linked to a higher chance of persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns. However, the risk is relatively low and may only be present if the exposure occurs in late pregnancy. It’s important to note that this increased risk is based on comparisons with the general population, not women who have depression, for whom the risk is unknown.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A patient in their 60s on Clozaril receives an amber result from the...

    Correct

    • A patient in their 60s on Clozaril receives an amber result from the CPMS. What course of action should be taken in response?

      Your Answer: The patient should continue taking clozapine but should have another blood test in two days time and then twice weekly until the result becomes normal

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - Who is responsible for introducing eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing? ...

    Correct

    • Who is responsible for introducing eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing?

      Your Answer: Francine Shapiro

      Explanation:

      EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD

      EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about self-harm? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about self-harm?

      Your Answer: There is a higher incidence of self-harm in people from sexual minorities

      Explanation:

      Self-harm has become more common in the UK over the past two decades, but this trend differs from the patterns seen in completed suicides. Women and girls are more likely to engage in self-harm than men and boys, while completed suicides are more common among the latter group. Certain populations, such as prisoners, asylum seekers, veterans, those bereaved by suicide, and individuals from cultural of sexual minority groups, also have a higher incidence of self-harm. It’s important to note that self-harm does not always indicate an attempt of desire to commit suicide, and may even serve as a means of self-preservation.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - What is the correct approach to treating insomnia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to treating insomnia?

      Your Answer: Modified-release melatonin is licensed for the management of primary insomnia of short-term duration (<4 weeks)

      Correct Answer: Dependence is more likely to develop when the patient has a history of anxiety problems

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (8/10) 80%
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