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  • Question 1 - An aged Parkinson's disease patient is experiencing visual hallucinations. The physician is contemplating...

    Incorrect

    • An aged Parkinson's disease patient is experiencing visual hallucinations. The physician is contemplating examining for dementia with Lewy bodies. What pathological characteristic indicates this?

      Your Answer: Amyloid aggregations after Congo stain

      Correct Answer: Abnormal collection of alpha-synuclein in neuronal cytoplasms

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies is characterized by the presence of abnormal alpha-synuclein collections in neuronal cytoplasms on histological examination. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with neurofibrillary tangles, while corticobasal degeneration is associated with astroglial inclusions. Vascular dementia and other cerebrovascular conditions are linked to cerebral blood vessel damage. Congo staining for amyloid aggregations is non-specific and can be found in Parkinson’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease, and Huntington’s disease.

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.

      Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI scan of his brain was conducted, revealing an enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. What is the probable location of the obstruction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius

      Explanation:

      The Aqueduct of Sylvius is the pathway through which the CSF moves from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 3 - A neurologist is consulted for a patient who has displayed limited visual fields...

    Incorrect

    • A neurologist is consulted for a patient who has displayed limited visual fields in one eye during an examination. Upon conducting an MRI, the neurologist discovers a tumor in the right temporal lobe, near the border with the occipital region. What type of visual impairment is the patient most likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left superior homonymous quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe lesions result in contralateral homonymous quadrantanopias, with damage to the Meyer’s loop and optic radiations causing this condition. The optic radiations receiving information from the superior quadrants are located more inferiorly while those from the inferior travel more superiorly. As the lesion is located in the lower part of the right temporal lobe near the occipital region, it is likely to affect the left superior quadrant. It is important to note that lesions on the temporal lobe correspond to superior quadrants rather than inferior, and damage to the right side of the brain affects the left visual field. Additionally, temporal lobe lesions cause quadrantanopias and not hemianopias.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 4 - Which upper limb muscle is not supplied by the radial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which upper limb muscle is not supplied by the radial nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abductor digiti minimi

      Explanation:

      The mnemonic for the muscles innervated by the radial nerve is BEST, which stands for Brachioradialis, Extensors, Supinator, and Triceps. On the other hand, the ulnar nerve innervates the Abductor Digiti Minimi muscle.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - Which of the cranial nerves listed below is least likely to carry parasympathetic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the cranial nerves listed below is least likely to carry parasympathetic fibers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - Which of the structures listed below is not a content of the carotid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the structures listed below is not a content of the carotid sheath?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - A person becomes deficient in a certain hormone and as a result, develops...

    Incorrect

    • A person becomes deficient in a certain hormone and as a result, develops cranial diabetes insipidus.

      Where in the hypothalamus is this hormone typically produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraoptic nucleus

      Explanation:

      The production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is attributed to the supraoptic nucleus located in the hypothalamus. ADH plays a crucial role in retaining water in the distal nephron, and its deficiency can lead to diabetes insipidus.

      Other functions of the hypothalamus include regulating circadian rhythms and the sleep-wake cycle through the suprachiasmatic nucleus, controlling satiety and hunger through the ventromedial and lateral nuclei respectively, and regulating body temperature through the anterior nucleus, which stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system to initiate cooling.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak for the past few months, especially towards the end of the day. She denies any changes in her sleep patterns, mood, diet, or weight. Additionally, she mentions experiencing double vision at times.

      During the examination, the doctor observes partial ptosis in both eyes, with the left eye being more affected. The patient's other cranial nerves appear normal, and her limbs have a power of 4/5. Her sensation and reflexes are intact.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by the body producing antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, leading to dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction.

      Cerebral infarction typically presents with sudden onset, unilateral neurological symptoms that do not fluctuate.

      While multiple sclerosis (MS) involves demyelination of the central nervous system, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with myasthenia gravis. MS typically presents with optic neuritis, which causes painful vision loss.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome involves demyelination of the peripheral nervous system and typically presents with progressive weakness and diminished reflexes.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family members...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family members after experiencing a funny turn at home, lasting approximately 3 minutes. She reported a metallic taste in her mouth and a metallic smell, as well as hearing her father's voice speaking to her.

      What is the probable site of the pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman needs an episiotomy during a ventouse-assisted vaginal delivery. Which nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman needs an episiotomy during a ventouse-assisted vaginal delivery. Which nerve is typically numbed to facilitate the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The posterior vulval area is innervated by the pudendal nerve, which is commonly blocked during procedures like episiotomy.

      The Pudendal Nerve and its Functions

      The pudendal nerve is a nerve that originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots and exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. It then re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen. This nerve provides innervation to the anal sphincters and external urethral sphincter, as well as cutaneous innervation to the perineum surrounding the anus and posterior vulva.

      Late onset pudendal neuropathy may occur due to traction and compression of the pudendal nerve by the foetus during late pregnancy. This condition may contribute to the development of faecal incontinence. Understanding the functions of the pudendal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions related to the perineum and surrounding areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the sacrifice of the obturator nerve. Which muscle is the least likely to be affected by this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The accessory obturator nerve supplies the pectineus muscle in the population.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered a concussion. He now experiences ongoing diplopia, which is more noticeable when looking down at a book or going downstairs. Upon examination, his right eye is rotated upwards and inwards, with limited movement in depression and adduction. Both pupils are equal and reactive. What is the probable cause of his diplopia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      If you experience worsened vision while going down stairs, it may be a sign of 4th nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by limited depression and adduction of the eye, as well as persistent diplopia when looking down. It is often caused by head trauma, which can damage the long course of the trochlear nerve.

      People with 4th nerve palsy may tilt their heads away from the affected eye to compensate for the condition. This helps supply the superior oblique nerve, which aids in adduction and intorsion.

      Other conditions that can cause eye movement problems include 3rd nerve palsy, which may be caused by aneurysms or diabetes complications, and 6th nerve palsy, which prevents the affected eye from abducting. Horner syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, may also affect eye movement and is often associated with Pancoast tumors.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old man is being discharged from the geriatric ward. He was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is being discharged from the geriatric ward. He was admitted last week for the investigation of recurrent falls. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, atrial fibrillation and rheumatoid arthritis.

      The interdisciplinary team has decided to send him home this evening. The doctor in charge of organising his discharge goes through his drug chart to identify any drugs that may be making him more susceptible to having recurrent falls.

      What medication from his drug chart could be contributing to his increased risk of falls?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selegiline (monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      The use of monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitors like selegiline may lead to postural hypotension, which can increase the risk of falls, particularly in older individuals. However, fludrocortisone can be utilized to manage postural hypotension that does not respond to conservative treatments, without an associated risk of falls.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of severe headaches upon waking up for the past three days. He has also been experiencing blurred vision for the past three weeks, and has been feeling increasingly nauseated and has vomited four times in the past 24 hours. Upon ophthalmoscopy, bilateral papilloedema is observed. A CT head scan reveals dilation of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles, with a lesion obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the fourth ventricle into the cisterna magna. What is the usual pathway for CSF to flow from the fourth ventricle directly into the cisterna magna?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median aperture (foramen of Magendie)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the foramen of Magendie, also known as the median aperture.

      The interventricular foramina connect the two lateral ventricles to the third ventricle, which is located in the midline between the thalami of the two hemispheres. The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.

      CSF flows from the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct. From the fourth ventricle, CSF exits through one of four openings: the foramen of Magendie, which drains CSF into the cisterna magna; the foramina of Luschka, which drain CSF into the cerebellopontine angle cistern; the central canal at the obex, which runs through the center of the spinal cord.

      The superior sagittal sinus is a large venous sinus located along the midline of the superior cranial cavity. Arachnoid villi project from the subarachnoid space into the superior sagittal sinus to allow for the absorption of CSF.

      A patient presenting with symptoms and signs of raised intracranial pressure may have a variety of underlying causes, including mass lesions and neoplasms. In this case, a mass is obstructing the normal flow of CSF from the fourth ventricle, leading to increased pressure in all four ventricles.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - Following the discovery of a pituitary tumour in a 32-year-old woman who presented...

    Incorrect

    • Following the discovery of a pituitary tumour in a 32-year-old woman who presented with amenorrhoea, a brain MRI is conducted to fully evaluate the tumour before surgical removal. The results reveal that the tumour is starting to compress the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

      What kind of symptom would arise from this compression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Visual impairment can occur as a result of damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), which is a part of the thalamus involved in the visual pathway. The LGN receives information from the retina and sends it to the cortex via optic radiations. Although rare, the LGN can be damaged by compression from pituitary tumors or lesions affecting the choroidal arteries. However, damage to the LGN or other parts of the thalamus will not cause auditory impairment, aphasia, or reduced facial sensation. These conditions are typically caused by damage to other regions of the brain.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She reports that his speech has been progressively harder to comprehend for the last six months. During the examination, you observe that his eyes twitch repeatedly, particularly when he gazes upwards. Based on these findings, where in his brain is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Upbeat nystagmus can be caused by a lesion in the cerebellar vermis, which can result in uncontrolled repetitive eye movements that worsen when looking upwards. Other symptoms of cerebellar lesions may include slurred speech. Downbeat nystagmus, on the other hand, can be caused by a lesion in the foramen magnum, which is often seen in Arnold Chiari malformation. Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by bradykinesia, tremors, and rigidity, can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. Lesions in the temporal lobe can result in superior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is characterized by loss of vision in the same upper quadrant of each eye, as well as changes in speech such as word substitutions and neologisms. Finally, lesions in the hypothalamus can lead to Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause ataxia, nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confabulation, and amnesia.

      Understanding Nystagmus and its Causes

      Nystagmus is a condition characterized by involuntary eye movements that can occur in different directions. Upbeat nystagmus, for instance, is associated with lesions in the cerebellar vermis, while downbeat nystagmus is linked to foramen magnum lesions and Arnold-Chiari malformation.

      Upbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move upwards and then jerk downwards, while downbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move downwards and then jerk upwards. These movements can affect vision and balance, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, vertigo, and difficulty reading or focusing on objects.

      It is important to note that not all forms of nystagmus are pathological. Horizontal optokinetic nystagmus, for example, is a normal physiological response to visual stimuli. This type of nystagmus occurs when the eyes track a moving object, such as a passing car or a scrolling text on a screen.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - A 61-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset headache, describing it as 'the worst pain in his life'. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He has been smoking for 25 years and drinks 18 units of alcohol per week.

      After a head CT scan, it is revealed that there is evidence of a bleed. The bleed has occurred below a specific layer of the meninges that is designed to protect the brain and spinal cord from impact.

      What is the name of the layer of the meninges that the bleed has occurred below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      The middle layer of the meninges is known as the arachnoid mater. If a male with a history of hypertension and heavy smoking experiences a sudden and severe headache, it may indicate a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which has a high mortality rate.

      A CT head scan can reveal the presence of blood in the subarachnoid cisterns, which would normally appear black. The arachnoid mater is responsible for protecting the brain from sudden impact and is one of three layers of the meninges, with the outermost layer being the dura mater and the innermost layer being the pia mater.

      It is important to note that the dural venous sinuses and occipital bone are not considered part of the meninges.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of vision difficulty. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of vision difficulty. She is experiencing peripheral vision loss and feels nauseous and dizzy when attempting to look towards the sides. Two months ago, she had a tingling sensation in her left foot. During physical examination, there is a limitation in adduction of both eyes and nystagmus with lateral gaze. An MRI of the brain is scheduled.

      Based on the current clinical presentation and likely diagnosis, what is the expected location of lesions on the MRI scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paramedian area of midbrain & pons

      Explanation:

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and connects cranial nerves III, IV, and VI to facilitate eye movements. Multiple sclerosis can affect this area, causing episodic neurological symptoms and bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is characterized by the inability to adduct the affected eye and results in nystagmus and double vision.

      The oculomotor nucleus, located in the midbrain, controls the movement of several eye muscles. A lesion here can cause the eye to point downward and outward, resulting in diplopia and difficulty accommodating.

      The trochlear nerve nucleus, also located in the midbrain, controls the superior oblique muscle. A lesion here can cause diplopia, especially on downward gaze, and a characteristic head tilt towards the unaffected side.

      The abducens nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the lateral rectus muscle. A lesion here can cause the affected eye to be unable to abduct, resulting in nystagmus and diplopia.

      The facial nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the muscles of the face. A lesion here can cause facial muscle palsies.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - A cyclist in his early 40s has had a fall from his bike...

    Incorrect

    • A cyclist in his early 40s has had a fall from his bike resulting in a mid-shaft fracture of his right humerus. Which nerve is at the highest risk of being damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is the nerve most commonly associated with injury in mid-shaft humeral fractures. This is because the nerve runs along the posterior of the humeral shaft in the radial groove, making it vulnerable to injury in this area.

      In contrast, the axillary nerve is less likely to be injured in mid-shaft humeral fractures as it is located more proximally in the arm. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus or shoulder dislocations are more commonly associated with axillary nerve injury.

      The median nerve is situated along the medial side of the arm and is not typically at risk of injury in mid-shaft humeral fractures. Instead, it is more commonly affected in supracondylar fractures of the humerus.

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively well protected as it travels between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, and is therefore unlikely to be injured in mid-shaft humeral fractures.

      Finally, the ulnar nerve is most commonly associated with injury at the elbow, either due to a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus or as part of cubital tunnel syndrome.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department after falling two days ago....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department after falling two days ago. She is now experiencing double vision and haziness in her right eye. She tripped on a carpet in her living room and hit her head, but did not lose consciousness. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica, stable angina, bilateral cataract surgeries, and one previous transient ischaemic attack. There is no family history of genetic conditions.

      During the examination, she is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. No peripheral focal neurology is found, and Romberg's test is negative. Her right eye has reduced visual acuity, but her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and her eye movements are unimpaired. The conjunctiva is not injected, and ophthalmoscopy shows normal visualization of the retina on the left and difficulty on the right due to light reflecting from behind the iris.

      Blood tests reveal an ESR of 34mm/h (1-40mm/h) and CRP of 3 mg/L (<5 mg/L). What is the most likely cause of her visual symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dislocated intraocular lens (IOL)

      Explanation:

      Inherited connective tissue disorders can lead to natural lens dislocation, while replacement lenses may become dislodged after cataract surgery. Temporal arteritis is a rare condition that affects small to medium arteries and is typically accompanied by a headache, blurred vision, and jaw claudication. Transient ischaemic attacks cause focal neurology and resolve within 24 hours. Although rare, complications of cataract surgery can include infection, damage to the capsule, posterior cataract formation, and glaucoma. Lens dislocation can occur due to trauma, uveitis, previous vitreoretinal surgery, or congenital connective tissue disorders such as Marfan’s syndrome. Acute angle-closure crisis, also known as acute glaucoma, presents with a red, painful eye with mid-dilated and poorly reactive pupils.

      Causes of Lens Dislocation

      Lens dislocation can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common causes is Marfan’s syndrome, which causes the lens to dislocate upwards. Another cause is homocystinuria, which leads to the lens dislocating downwards. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is also a contributing factor to lens dislocation. Trauma, uveal tumors, and autosomal recessive ectopia lentis are other causes of lens dislocation. It is important to identify the underlying cause of lens dislocation to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains a neck injury. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he presents with a drooping left eyelid, a constricted and non-reactive left pupil, and visible sweating on the right side of his face but not on the left.

      Which nervous structures are likely to have been damaged in the altercation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis, which result from the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck due to damage to the cervical sympathetic chain located in the neck. In contrast, damage to the facial nerve would cause facial paralysis, while damage to the vagus nerve would affect autonomic and speech functions but not the face. Damage to the oculomotor nerve would result in an inability to move the eye and a dilated pupil, and a brachial plexus injury would only affect the arm.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old female comes to the GP after a recent fall resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female comes to the GP after a recent fall resulting in a right knee injury. She reports difficulty in lifting her right foot. During the clinical examination, you observe a lack of sensation on the dorsum of her right foot and the lower lateral area of her right leg.

      What nerve is most likely to have been affected by the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      A common peroneal nerve lesion can result in the loss of sensation over the lower lateral part of the leg and the dorsum of the foot, as well as foot drop. In contrast, a femoral nerve lesion would cause sensory loss over the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg, while a lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh lesion would cause sensory loss over the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. An obturator nerve lesion would result in sensory loss over the medial thigh, and a tibial nerve lesion would cause sensory loss over the sole of the foot.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following antibody tests, the diagnosis of Lambert-Eaton syndrome is confirmed. Which receptors are targeted by the autoimmune antibodies in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      The antibodies involved in Lambert-Eaton syndrome attack the voltage-gated calcium channels. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by muscle weakness, but a unique aspect is that muscle strength improves with repeated contractions, unlike in myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. It can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. The condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

      The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly seen in this condition. Muscle strength may increase with repeated contractions, but this is only seen in 50% of patients and eventually decreases with prolonged muscle use.

      An incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is seen on electromyography (EMG). Treatment of the underlying cancer is important, and immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine may be beneficial. 3,4-diaminopyridine is currently being trialled as a treatment option. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be helpful in managing the symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 24 - Are the muscles of the thenar eminence supplied by the median nerve and...

    Incorrect

    • Are the muscles of the thenar eminence supplied by the median nerve and is atrophy of these muscles a characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence, and carpal tunnel syndrome is characterized by the atrophy of these muscles.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old female presents to her physician complaining of tingling in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to her physician complaining of tingling in her left arm and double vision for the past three days. She reports feeling fatigued for the past six months. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. She smokes five cigarettes per day, drinks one bottle of wine per week, and works as a journalist.

      During the neurological examination, the physician observed reduced sensation in the patient's left upper limb. Additionally, the patient's right eye failed to adduct and her left eye demonstrated nystagmus on left lateral gaze. Based on these findings, where is the anatomical location of the lesion causing the eye signs on examination likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the medial longitudinal fasciculus, which is a myelinated structure located in the brainstem responsible for conjugate eye movements. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest a diagnosis of internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is a disorder of conjugate lateral gaze caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The affected eye fails to adduct when attempting to look contralaterally, and the contralateral eye demonstrates nystagmus. Mamillary bodies, neuromuscular junction, and optic nerve are not the likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 26 - A 3-month-old infant is seen by their pediatrician due to their mother's concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old infant is seen by their pediatrician due to their mother's concern about their hand being fixed in an unusual position. The infant had a difficult delivery with shoulder dystocia, but has been healthy since birth and meeting developmental milestones.

      During the exam, the pediatrician observes that the infant's fingers on the left hand are permanently flexed, resembling a claw. There is also muscle wasting in the left forearm. Additionally, the pediatrician notes left-sided miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms in this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klumpke paralysis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is Klumpke paralysis, which is often caused by shoulder dystocia during birth or traction injuries. The patient presents with a claw-like deformity in their hand, indicating damage to the C8 and T1 branches of the brachial plexus. This condition is also associated with Horner’s syndrome, which the patient is experiencing.

      Bell’s palsy, C8 radiculopathy, and Erb-Duchenne paralysis are all incorrect diagnoses for this patient. Bell’s palsy only affects the facial nerve and would not cause the other symptoms seen in this patient. C8 radiculopathy would not result in the claw-like deformity or T1 dermatome involvement. Erb-Duchenne paralysis affects a different part of the brachial plexus and presents differently from this patient’s symptoms.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe, central abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe, central abdominal pain that is radiating to his back. He has vomited twice and on examination you find he has hypotension and tachycardia. He is a current smoker with a past medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. You suspect a visceral artery aneurysm and urgently request a CT scan to confirm. The CT scan reveals an aneurysm in the superior mesenteric artery.

      From which level of the vertebrae does this artery originate from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The common iliac veins come together at

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 28 - Which statement is false about the foramina of the skull? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false about the foramina of the skull?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The foramen spinosum is at the base of the medial pterygoid plate.

      Explanation:

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducens nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense shooting pain on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense shooting pain on one side of his face that is aggravated by chewing. Which of the following accurately identifies the location where the maxillary (V2) and mandibular nerves (V3) exit the skull?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: V2 - foramen rotundum, V3 - foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal nerve branches exit the skull with Standing Room Only:
      V1 – Superior orbital fissure
      V2 – Foramen rotundum
      V3 – Foramen ovale

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery following a car accident that resulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery following a car accident that resulted in a fractured tibia. After 12 hours of the operation, the patient reports experiencing severe pain and tingling sensations. Upon examination, the anterior leg appears red, swollen, and feels cooler than the rest of the limb. The patient's ability to dorsiflex the foot is impaired, and there is a loss of sensation over the first and second toes. The intracompartmental pressure of the anterior leg compartment is 40mmHg. Which nerve is responsible for the patient's abnormal sensations and impaired movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal (fibular) nerve is responsible for supplying the anterior leg compartment and runs alongside the anterior tibial artery. It enables dorsiflexion by supplying the extensor muscles of the leg, which explains why the patient is unable to perform this movement. If there is increased pressure in this leg compartment, it can compress this nerve and cause the patient’s symptoms.

      The lateral plantar nerve, which is a branch of the tibial nerve, travels in the posterior leg compartment and is unlikely to be affected in this case. Additionally, it supplies the lateral part of the foot and does not contribute to dorsiflexion, so it cannot explain the patient’s symptoms.

      The tibial nerve also travels in the posterior compartment of the leg and is unlikely to be affected in this case.

      Answer 3 is incorrect because there is no such thing as an anterior tibial nerve; there is only an anterior tibial artery.

      The superficial peroneal nerve runs in the lateral compartment of the leg and is responsible for foot eversion and sensation over the lateral dorsum of the foot. If this nerve is compromised, the patient may experience impaired foot eversion and reduced sensation in this area.

      The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions

      The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.

      After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 31 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his wife. According...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his wife. According to her, he has experienced sudden hearing loss and is currently unable to perceive any sounds. A stroke is suspected, and he is sent for an MRI scan which reveals a thalamic lesion.

      Which specific nucleus of the thalamus is most likely affected by the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hearing impairment can result from damage to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, which is responsible for relaying auditory signals to the cerebral cortex. Similarly, damage to other regions of the thalamus can affect different types of sensory and motor functioning, such as visual loss from damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus, facial sensation from damage to the medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus, and motor functioning from damage to the ventral anterior nucleus.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 32 - A 75-year-old man is brought to his family doctor by his wife, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to his family doctor by his wife, who reports that her husband has been misplacing items around the house, such as putting his wallet in the fridge. She also mentions that he has gotten lost on two occasions while trying to find his way home. The man has difficulty remembering recent events but can recall his childhood and early adulthood with clarity. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations or issues with his mobility. The wife notes that her husband's behavioral changes have been gradual rather than sudden. A CT scan reveals significant widening of the brain sulci. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man, and what is the underlying pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extracellular amyloid plaques and intracellular fibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is caused by the deposition of insoluble beta-amyloid protein, leading to the formation of cortical plaques, and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein, resulting in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. This disease is characterized by a gradual onset of memory and behavioral problems, as well as brain atrophy visible on CT scans. Vascular dementia, on the other hand, is caused by multiple ischemic insults to the brain, resulting in a stepwise decline in cognition. Prion disease, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, is characterized by the presence of insoluble beta-pleated protein sheets. Lacunar infarcts, caused by obstruction of small penetrating arteries in the brain, can be detected by MRI or CT scans. Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular Lewy bodies, along with symptoms of dementia and Parkinson’s disease.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 33 - You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but has been stabbed in the back after an attack. A puncture wound measuring 3 cm is observed just to the right of the T5 vertebrae. During the examination, a reduction in fine touch sensation is detected on the right side.

      Where would you anticipate detecting a decrease in temperature sensation, if any?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left side, below the lesion

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla within the brain. Quick response stimuli such as pain and temperature cross over first.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is a result of the body’s unique anatomy. Understanding which types of nerve fibers cross over at the spinal level versus within the brain is crucial in diagnosing this syndrome.

      Pain and temperature are carried in the spinothalamic tract, which crosses over at the spinal level it enters at. Therefore, a hemisection of the cord will result in contralateral loss of these functions. On the other hand, the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway, and spinocerebellar tract all cross over above the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral loss of these functions with a hemisection.

      In the case of a puncture wound on the right side, the contralateral loss would present on the left side below the lesion, as the fibers run in a caudocranial direction. Bilateral loss would only occur with a complete severing of the cord.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 34 - A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department with recent involuntary movements. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department with recent involuntary movements. During the examination, it is observed that he has unmanageable thrashing movements of his left arm and leg, which cannot be diverted. A CT scan reveals a fresh acute infarct.

      What part of the brain has been impacted by this infarct, causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subthalamic nucleus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the subthalamic nucleus (STN) within the basal ganglia can result in a hemiballismus, characterized by uncontrollable thrashing movements. The STN plays a role in unconscious motor control by providing excitatory input to the globus pallidus internus (GPi), which then acts in an inhibitory way on motor outflow from the cortex. When the STN is damaged, there is less activity within the GPi and relative hyperactivity of the motor cortex, leading to excessive movements.

      In contrast, lesions of the caudate nucleus within the basal ganglia can cause behavioral changes and agitation. The caudate processes motor information from the cortex and provides an excitatory input to the globus pallidus externus (GPe), which then has an excitatory input to the STN. Lesions of the caudate result in motor hyperactivity, but this manifests as a restless state rather than uncontrolled movements. The caudate also plays a role in the neural circuits underlying goal-directed behaviors, and lesions can result in personality and behavioral changes.

      Lesions of the medial pons can cause hemiplegia and hemisensory loss or locked-in syndrome, depending on the level of disruption to the motor and sensory pathways. Lesions above the level of the trigeminal and facial motor nuclei can result in a full locked-in syndrome, while lesions below these nuclei result in hemiplegia and hemisensory loss but with preservation of facial sensation and movement.

      Lesions of the substantia nigra result in Parkinsonism, as the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra have an inhibitory effect on the outflow of the striatum. This prevents motor information from leaving the cortex, resulting in the bradykinesia characteristic of Parkinsonism.

      Thalamic lesions most commonly cause hemisensory loss, as the thalamus acts as a sensory gateway that allows processing of sensory information before relaying it to the relevant primary cortex. Lesions disrupt this pathway and prevent information from reaching the cortex.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old man has his impacted 3rd molar surgically removed. After the procedure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has his impacted 3rd molar surgically removed. After the procedure, he experiences numbness on the anterolateral part of his tongue. What is the probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Injury to the lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      A lingual neuropraxia may occur in some patients after surgical extraction of these teeth, resulting in anesthesia of the front part of the tongue on the same side. The teeth are innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve.

      Lingual Nerve: Sensory Nerve to the Tongue and Mouth

      The lingual nerve is a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the mucosa of the presulcal part of the tongue, floor of the mouth, and mandibular lingual gingivae. It arises from the posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve and runs past the tensor veli palatini and lateral pterygoid muscles. At this point, it is joined by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve.

      After emerging from the cover of the lateral pterygoid, the lingual nerve proceeds antero-inferiorly, lying on the surface of the medial pterygoid and close to the medial aspect of the mandibular ramus. At the junction of the vertical and horizontal rami of the mandible, it is anterior to the inferior alveolar nerve. The lingual nerve then passes below the mandibular attachment of the superior pharyngeal constrictor and lies on the periosteum of the root of the third molar tooth.

      Finally, the lingual nerve passes medial to the mandibular origin of mylohyoid and then passes forwards on the inferior surface of this muscle. Overall, the lingual nerve plays an important role in providing sensory information to the tongue and mouth.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP complaining of an 8-week cough and an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP complaining of an 8-week cough and an unintentional weight loss of 7kg. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. The GP observes some alterations in his left eye, which are indicative of Horner's syndrome.

      The man is referred to the suspected cancer pathway and is subsequently diagnosed with a Pancoast tumour.

      What symptom is this individual most likely to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anhidrosis

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos, and may also present with anhidrosis. Anhidrosis is a common symptom in preganglionic and central causes of Horner’s syndrome, while postganglionic causes do not typically result in anhidrosis. Exophthalmos is not associated with Horner’s syndrome, but rather with other conditions. Hypopyon and mydriasis are also not symptoms of Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 37 - A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother complaining of ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother complaining of ear pain. He experienced the pain last night and was unable to sleep. As a result, he stayed home from school today. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. During the examination, he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid level, indicating a middle ear infection. The nerve to tensor tympani arises from which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The mandibular nerve is the correct answer. It is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibers. The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and has two components for balance and hearing. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and has various functions, including taste and sensation from the tongue, pharyngeal wall, and tonsils. The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibers. The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve and supplies the muscles of facial expression and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Tensor tympani is a muscle that dampens loud noises and is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve. The patient’s ear pain is likely due to otitis media, which is confirmed on otoscopy.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 38 - A 72-year-old male visits the neurology clinic with a complaint of experiencing difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male visits the neurology clinic with a complaint of experiencing difficulty in walking over the last three months. During the clinical examination, you conduct the finger-to-nose test and observe that he has a tremor that intensifies as his finger approaches his nose.

      Which part of the brain is the most probable site of damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      An intention tremor can be caused by cerebellar disease, which is evident in this patient’s presentation. Other symptoms associated with cerebellar disease include ataxia and dysdiadochokinesia.

      Resting tremors are more commonly associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

      Alzheimer’s disease is linked to lesions in the hippocampus.

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome, characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, and visual agnosia, is more likely to occur when the amygdala is affected.

      Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which presents with nystagmus, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, amnesia, and confabulation, is more likely to occur when the hypothalamus is affected.

      Tremor: Causes and Characteristics

      Tremor is a common neurological symptom that can be caused by various conditions. The table below lists the main characteristics of the most important causes of tremor. Parkinsonism is characterized by a resting, ‘pill-rolling’ tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, flexed posture, short, shuffling steps, micrographia, ‘mask-like’ face, and common depression and dementia. Essential tremor is a postural tremor that worsens if arms are outstretched, but improves with alcohol and rest, and often has a strong family history. Anxiety is often associated with a history of depression, while thyrotoxicosis is characterized by usual thyroid signs such as weight loss, tachycardia, and feeling hot. Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with a history of chronic liver disease, while carbon dioxide retention is associated with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Cerebellar disease is characterized by an intention tremor and cerebellar signs such as past-pointing and nystagmus. Other causes of tremor include drug withdrawal from alcohol and opiates. Understanding the characteristics of different types of tremor can help in the diagnosis and management of patients with this symptom.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 39 - A healthy woman in her 30s has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy woman in her 30s has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg and an intra cranial pressure of 17 mmHg. What is the estimated cerebral perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 76 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To calculate cerebral perfusion pressure, subtract the intra cranial pressure from the mean arterial pressure. The mean arterial pressure can be determined using the formula MAP= Diastolic pressure+ 0.333(Systolic pressure- Diastolic pressure). For example, if the mean arterial pressure is 93 and the intra cranial pressure is 17, the cerebral perfusion pressure would be 76.

      Understanding Cerebral Perfusion Pressure

      Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) refers to the pressure gradient that drives blood flow to the brain. It is a crucial factor in maintaining optimal cerebral perfusion, which is tightly regulated by the body. Any sudden increase in CPP can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP), while a decrease in CPP can result in cerebral ischemia. To calculate CPP, one can subtract the ICP from the mean arterial pressure.

      In cases of trauma, it is essential to carefully monitor and control CPP. This may require invasive methods to measure both ICP and mean arterial pressure (MAP). By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that the brain receives adequate blood flow and oxygenation, which is vital for optimal brain function. Understanding CPP is crucial in managing traumatic brain injuries and other conditions that affect cerebral perfusion.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 40 - Which one of the following is not a branch of the posterior cord...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior cord gives rise to mnemonic branches, including the subscapular (upper and lower), thoracodorsal, axillary, and radial nerves. On the other hand, the musculocutaneous nerve is a branch originating from the lateral cord.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

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  • Question 41 - A 79-year-old man with no prior medical history presents with symptoms of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man with no prior medical history presents with symptoms of an ischaemic stroke. During the neurological examination in the emergency department, he is alert and able to answer questions appropriately. His limbs have normal tone, power, reflexes, and sensation, but he displays some lack of coordination. When asked to perform a finger-nose test, he accuses the examiner of cheating, claiming that he cannot see their finger or read their name tag. Which specific area of his brain is likely to be damaged, causing his visual deficits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      Damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus can cause visual impairment, while damage to other brain regions such as the brainstem, medial geniculate nucleus, postcentral gyrus, and prefrontal cortex produce different neurological deficits. Understanding the functions of each brain region can aid in localising strokes.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent slurring of speech that worsens when she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent slurring of speech that worsens when she continues to talk. She also reports feeling tired constantly, is occasionally short of breath and has experienced some double vision that gets worse when reading or watching TV. Her symptoms have progressively deteriorated over the past 4 months and she has intermittent weakness in her legs and arms, she feels as though her legs will give way when she gets up from her chair and has difficulty combing her hair.

      On examination the patient appears well, there appears to be mild ptosis bilaterally and also a midline neck lump. The patient was referred to the neurology team and is due for further investigation.

      What is the initial test that should be done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibody analysis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman who is a primigravida at 15 weeks gestation presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is a primigravida at 15 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with drooped features on the left side of her face and a runny nose. She noticed this in the morning when washing her face. There is no limb weakness, visual disturbance, or dysphagia noted.

      What other symptoms would be indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Bell’s palsy, which is an acute, unilateral, and idiopathic facial nerve paralysis. It is believed to be linked to the herpes simplex virus and is most commonly seen in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The patient’s facial droop is unilateral with lower motor neuron involvement and hyperacusis in the ear on the affected side. Loss of taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side may also be present.

      Hyperlacrimation is not typically associated with Bell’s palsy, and patients may experience dry eyes due to reduced blinking on the affected side. Loss of smell sensation is not usually seen in Bell’s palsy and may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as a neurodegenerative syndrome. Pins and needles in the limbs are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy, and if present, alternative diagnoses should be considered.

      The presence of a vesicular rash around the ear strongly suggests Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. It presents with auricular pain, facial nerve palsy, a vesicular rash around the ear, and vertigo/tinnitus.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

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  • Question 44 - A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall. She has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, and is a smoker with a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her family history includes high cholesterol in her father and older sister, who both passed away due to a heart attack.

      The patient denies any head trauma from the fall and has a regular pulse of 78 bpm. Upon conducting a full neurological examination, it is discovered that her left arm and left leg have a power of 3/5. Additionally, her smile is asymmetrical and droops on the left side.

      What is the most probable underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emboli caused by atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Intracerebral haemorrhage is not the most probable cause of all strokes. Hence, it is crucial to conduct a CT head scan to eliminate the possibility of haemorrhagic stroke before initiating treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

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  • Question 45 - After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination....

    Incorrect

    • After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination.

      During the examination:

      The patient can smile and show their teeth, but they struggle to clench their teeth.
      There are no issues with eyebrow movement or pupillary size.
      Sensation in the forehead is intact.
      However, there is a decrease in sensory innervation in the area of the buccinator.

      Which nerve is the most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal (mandibular branch)

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.

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  • Question 46 - A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following a football tackle.

      During the examination, it is discovered that he has a dislocated shoulder, weakness in elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and a loss of sensation on the lateral side of his forearm.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      When the musculocutaneous nerve is injured, it can cause weakness in elbow flexion and supination, as well as sensory loss on the outer side of the forearm. Other nerves in the arm have different functions, such as the median nerve which controls many of the flexor muscles in the forearm and provides sensation to the palm and fingers, the radial nerve which controls the triceps and extensor muscles in the back of the forearm and provides sensation to the back of the arm and hand, and the axillary nerve which controls the deltoid and teres minor muscles and provides sensation to the lower part of the deltoid muscle. The musculocutaneous nerve also has a branch that provides sensation to the outer part of the forearm.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

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  • Question 47 - A 46-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral sciatica and partial...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral sciatica and partial urinary incontinence. Upon conducting a comprehensive examination and lumbosacral magnetic resonance imaging, the diagnosis of cauda equina syndrome is confirmed at the L2 level.

      What is the most probable finding to be observed during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2-S4 anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the lower lumbar region cannot result in upper motor neuron signs because the spinal cord terminates at L1.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old man receives a blow to the side of his head with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man receives a blow to the side of his head with a baseball bat during a brawl. He is initially alert but later loses consciousness and passes away. An autopsy reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. Which vessel is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The most probable origin of the extradural haematoma in this scenario is the middle meningeal artery, which is a branch of the maxillary artery. It should be noted that the question specifically asks for the vessel that gives rise to the middle meningeal artery, and not the middle cerebral artery.

      The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.

      In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.

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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred speech. You perform a cranial nerves examination and find that her oculomotor nerve has been affected. What sign would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ptosis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is ptosis. Issues with the oculomotor nerve can cause ptosis, a drooping of the eyelid, as well as a dilated, fixed pupil and a down and out eye. The oculomotor nerve is responsible for various functions, including eye movements (such as those controlled by the MR, IO, SR, and IR muscles), pupil constriction, accommodation, and eyelid opening. Arcuate scotoma is an incorrect answer. This condition is caused by damage to the optic nerve, resulting in a blind spot that appears as an arc shape in the visual field. It does not affect extraocular movements. Bitemporal hemianopia is also an incorrect answer. This visual field defect affects the outer halves of both eyes and is caused by lesions of the optic chiasm, such as those resulting from a pituitary adenoma. Horizontal diplopia is another incorrect answer. This condition is caused by problems with the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral rectus muscle responsible for eye abduction. Defective abduction leads to horizontal diplopia, or double vision.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 50 - Which nerve among the following is accountable for voluntary control of the urethral...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve among the following is accountable for voluntary control of the urethral sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The bladder is under autonomic control from the hypogastric plexuses, while voluntary control of the urethral sphincter is provided by the pudendal nerve.

      The Pudendal Nerve and its Functions

      The pudendal nerve is a nerve that originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots and exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. It then re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen. This nerve provides innervation to the anal sphincters and external urethral sphincter, as well as cutaneous innervation to the perineum surrounding the anus and posterior vulva.

      Late onset pudendal neuropathy may occur due to traction and compression of the pudendal nerve by the foetus during late pregnancy. This condition may contribute to the development of faecal incontinence. Understanding the functions of the pudendal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions related to the perineum and surrounding areas.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 51 - The femoral nerve is accidentally severed by a negligent surgeon during a failed...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral nerve is accidentally severed by a negligent surgeon during a failed femoro-popliteal bypass surgery. What function will be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle, which is responsible for knee joint extension, is supplied by the femoral nerve.

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

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  • Question 52 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, fever and lymphadenopathy. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, fever and lymphadenopathy. After a thorough examination and discussion of her recent symptoms, the doctor suspects glandular fever. However, in the following week, she experiences weakness on one side of her occipitofrontalis, orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris muscles.

      What is the most probable neurological diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve VII palsy

      Explanation:

      The flaccid paralysis of the upper and lower face is a classic symptom of cranial nerve VII palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy. This condition is often caused by a viral illness, such as Epstein-Barr virus, which results in temporary inflammation and swelling around the facial nerve. The symptoms typically resolve on their own after a period of time.

      While a lacunar stroke can cause unilateral weakness, it would typically affect the arms and/or legs in addition to the facial muscles. Additionally, a lacunar stroke causes upper motor neuron impairment, which would result in forehead sparing.

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that can cause fatigable muscle weakness. However, it would cause global disturbance in neuromuscular junction function rather than isolated unilateral impairment of one nerve, making it an unlikely cause of this presentation.

      Multiple sclerosis causes lesions within the brain and spinal cord, leading to upper motor neuron disturbances and other clinical signs. However, this would not fit with the presence of occipitofrontalis involvement, as forehead sparing is seen in upper motor neuron lesions.

      A partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS) typically presents with two out of three symptoms: unilateral weakness, disturbance in higher function (such as speech), and visual field defects (such as homonymous hemianopia). In this case, there is only unilateral weakness, and a PACS would cause upper motor neuron disturbance, resulting in forehead sparing.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 53 - A 63-year-old female is one day postoperative following a total thyroidectomy for thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old female is one day postoperative following a total thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. The surgery was successful with no unexpected blood loss. However, the patient has observed that her voice is hoarse and soft.

      During examination, the patient seems comfortable while resting and can maintain her airway without any problem. The surgical site looks normal, and there is no development of haematoma. On auscultation, her breath sounds are clear and equal in all lung fields.

      What is the most likely structure to have been injured during the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The right recurrent laryngeal nerve is at a higher risk of injury during neck surgery due to its diagonal origin under the subclavian artery. In contrast, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is less vulnerable to injury. It is important to note that injury to the left or right subclavian artery would typically result in shock symptoms rather than hoarseness, and there were no indications of significant blood loss during the surgery.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

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  • Question 54 - A 63-year-old woman with a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia experienced sudden weakness in her right lower leg while preparing breakfast. She had a similar episode two days ago, which resolved after an hour. Her son brought her to the emergency department, where she reported her symptoms to the attending physician. The patient can speak well and fully comprehend what the doctor tells her. Upon examination, the doctor noted decreased touch sensation in her right leg. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan was unremarkable, but a repeat CT scan after 12 hours revealed an area of hypo-attenuation in a region of the brain. Which artery of the cerebral circulation is most likely to be occluded in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of stroke, likely caused by their long history of diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia, which are all risk factors for ischemic stroke. The absence of risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke, such as blood clotting disorders or warfarin use, supports this diagnosis. The CT scan performed upon admission may have been too early to detect the stroke, as ischemic strokes are typically visible on CT scans only after 6 hours. However, brain tissue swelling 12 hours later can produce an area of hypo-attenuation visible on CT scan.

      The patient’s contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with greater impact on the lower extremity than the upper, suggest an ischemic stroke affecting the anterior cerebral artery. If the posterior cerebral artery were obstructed, the patient would experience contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. An ischemic stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery would more likely affect the upper limbs and face, and could also impact language centers or cause hemineglect. An ischemic stroke affecting the basilar artery could result in severe neurological impairment, such as locked-in syndrome or quadriplegia. An occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery would cause swallowing impairment, hoarseness, and loss of the gag reflex.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 55 - A 49-year-old female patient complains of weakness and paraesthesias in her left hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female patient complains of weakness and paraesthesias in her left hand and visits her GP. During the examination, the doctor observes reduced power in the hypothenar and intrinsic muscles, along with decreased sensation on the medial palm and medial two and a half digits. However, the sensation to the dorsum of the hand remains unaffected, and wrist flexion is normal. Based on these findings, where is the most probable location of the ulnar nerve lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guyon's canal

      Explanation:

      Distal ulnar nerve compression can occur at Guyon’s canal, which is located adjacent to the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve passes through this canal as a mixed motor/sensory bundle and then splits into various branches in the palm. In this patient’s case, her symptoms suggest compression at Guyon’s canal, possibly due to a ganglion cyst or hamate fracture. It is important to note that the carpal tunnel transmits the median nerve, not the ulnar nerve, and compression at the more proximal cubital tunnel would affect all branches of the ulnar nerve, including those responsible for sensation to the back of the hand and wrist flexion. Additionally, lesions in the purely sensory branches of the ulnar nerve would not cause the motor symptoms experienced by this patient.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 56 - A 70-year-old man is undergoing an elective total knee replacement surgery for chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is undergoing an elective total knee replacement surgery for chronic osteoarthritis. The surgical team aims to minimize the risk of damage to the common peroneal nerve and tibial nerve during the procedure. Can you identify the anatomical landmark where the sciatic nerve divides into these two nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apex of the popliteal fossa

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is derived from the lumbosacral plexus and consists of nerve roots L4-S3. It enters the gluteal region through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges inferiorly to the piriformis muscle, traveling inferolaterally. The nerve enters the posterior thigh by passing deep to the long head of biceps femoris and eventually splits into the tibial and common fibular nerves at the apex of the popliteal fossa. The sciatic nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the posterior thigh and the hamstring portion of the adductor magnus, but it has no direct sensory function.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

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  • Question 57 - A 41-year-old man is attacked with a knife outside a club. He experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man is attacked with a knife outside a club. He experiences a severing of his median nerve as it exits the brachial plexus. Which of the following outcomes is the least probable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete loss of wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      The flexor muscles will no longer function if the median nerve is lost. Nevertheless, the flexor carpi ulnaris will remain functional and cause ulnar deviation and some remaining wrist flexion. Total loss of flexion at the thumb joint occurs with high median nerve lesions.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 58 - A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department by their mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department by their mother with recurrent seizures and an increasing head circumference. The infant has been experiencing excessive sleeping, vomiting, and irritability. An MRI scan of the brain reveals an enlarged posterior fossa and an absent cerebellar vermis. Which structure is anticipated to be in a raised position in this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The Dandy-Walker malformation causes an enlargement of the posterior fossa, resulting in an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid that pushes the tentorium cerebelli upwards. This can lead to symptoms due to the mass effect. The falx cerebri, pituitary gland, sphenoid sinus, and superior cerebellar peduncle are unlikely to be significantly affected by this condition.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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  • Question 59 - A 68-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his wife after she found him complaining of a headache, drowsiness, and difficulty walking. He is currently on warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The man states that he has had several falls in the past month or so, and has recently become more confused. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is ordered for the man.

      Where would you suspect blood to collect in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the arachnoid mater and the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges. The described condition is a subdural haemorrhage or haematoma, which is a collection of blood between the arachnoid mater and the dura mater. It is often caused by chronic mild trauma and is common in the elderly and those on anticoagulant therapy. MRI scans show a concave pool of blood. There is no potential space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater for blood to fill.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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  • Question 60 - A 33-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of right wrist...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past two months. She mentions having difficulty buttoning up her clothes with her right hand. During your examination, you observe that she struggles to pick up a pen with her index finger and thumb, indicating impairment of her pincer grip. Based on these findings, you suspect that she may have sustained damage to her anterior interosseous nerve.

      What muscle is innervated by this nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      The flexor pollicis longus muscle is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a branch of the median nerve. This nerve also innervates the pronator quadratus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles. If this nerve is damaged, it can result in weakness of the pincer grip, as observed in the patient. The ulnar nerve innervates the adductor pollicis muscle, while the radial nerve innervates the abductor pollicis longus muscle. The tibial nerve innervates the flexor digitorum brevis muscle.

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 61 - A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor complaining of swollen testicles. He mentions...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor complaining of swollen testicles. He mentions being hit by a baseball during a game. The boy feels fine and has not experienced any vomiting.

      During the examination, the physician notices a slight swelling in his testicles. The boy also has decreased sensation in the skin of his scrotum's front.

      Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the skin in the front of the scrotum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The anterior scrotal skin receives sensory sensation from the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The ilioinguinal and genitofemoral nerves (genital branch) innervate the front of the scrotum, while the perineal branches of the pudendal nerves innervate the back. The dorsal branch of the pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to the erectile tissue of the penis/clitoris and the skin over the foreskin, glans, and penis/foreskin’s dorsolateral aspect. The posterior scrotal nerves supply sensory innervation to the skin on the back of the scrotum. The cavernous nerves are responsible for facilitating penile erection and are postganglionic parasympathetic nerves.

      The Genitofemoral Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The genitofemoral nerve is responsible for supplying a small area of the upper medial thigh. It arises from the first and second lumbar nerves and passes through the psoas major muscle before emerging from its medial border. The nerve then descends on the surface of the psoas major, under the cover of the peritoneum, and divides into genital and femoral branches.

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve passes through the inguinal canal within the spermatic cord to supply the skin overlying the scrotum’s skin and fascia. On the other hand, the femoral branch enters the thigh posterior to the inguinal ligament, lateral to the femoral artery. It supplies an area of skin and fascia over the femoral triangle.

      Injuries to the genitofemoral nerve may occur during abdominal or pelvic surgery or inguinal hernia repairs. Understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial in preventing such injuries and ensuring proper treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up after experiencing a stroke two weeks ago. His strength is 5/5 in all four limbs and his deep muscle reflexes are normal. He has no visual deficits, but he is having difficulty answering questions correctly and his speech is filled with newly invented words, although it is fluent. Additionally, he is unable to read correctly. Which blood vessel is most likely involved in his stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that Wernicke’s area is supplied by the inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery. This type of stroke can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, which is characterized by poor comprehension but normal fluency of speech. Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal gyrus and is specifically supplied by the inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery.

      The other options provided are incorrect. A stroke in the basilar artery can result in the locked-in syndrome, which causes paralysis of the entire body except for eye movement. A stroke in the left anterior cerebral artery can cause behavioral changes, contralateral weakness, and contralateral sensory deficits. A stroke in the right posterior cerebral artery can cause visual deficits.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 63 - A 54-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a gradual increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a gradual increase in numbness and tingling in her right hand's ring and little fingers. She works as a librarian and denies any physical strain or injury. There is no significant medical history or family history of similar symptoms.

      The woman reports that her symptoms are causing her to take frequent breaks from work and is worried about losing her job.

      What is the primary pathology most commonly associated with her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the 4th and 5th digits, and it travels posterior to the medial epicondyle through the ulnar tunnel. Medial epicondylitis, an over-use injury of the flexor-pronator muscles, can cause ulnar nerve damage.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. The radial nerve supplies dorsal sensation to the thumb and wrist extension, while the ulnar nerve arises from C8-T1 of the brachial plexus. Fracture of the humeral shaft is associated with radial nerve damage, not ulnar nerve damage.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 64 - As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?...

    Incorrect

    • As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The triangular space serves as a pathway for the radial nerve to exit the axilla. Its upper boundary is defined by the teres major muscle, which has a close association with the radial nerve.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive weakness of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive weakness of her lower limbs. Her symptoms started three days previously when she noticed her legs felt heavy when rising from a seated position. This weakness has progressed to the point now where she is unable to stand unassisted and has now started to affect some of the muscles of her abdominal wall and lower back. She is otherwise well, apart from suffering a diarrhoeal illness 12 days previously. Neurological examination of the lower limbs identifies generalised weakness, reduced tone and absent reflexes; sensory examination is unremarkable.

      Which of the following organisms is most likely to have caused this patient's diarrhoeal symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the trigger of Guillain-Barre syndrome is Campylobacter jejuni. The patient’s symptoms of ascending muscle weakness without sensory signs and absent reflexes and reduced tone suggest a lower motor neuron lesion, which is likely due to GBS. GBS is an autoimmune-mediated demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system that is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being the classic trigger. None of the other options are associated with GBS. Bacillus cereus can cause food poisoning from rice, resulting in vomiting and diarrhoea. Escherichia coli is common among travellers and can cause watery stools and abdominal cramps. Shigella can cause bloody diarrhoea with vomiting and abdominal pain.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 66 - A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant vertigo and right-sided deafness for the past year. She has no significant medical history. Upon conducting an audiogram, it is discovered that her right ear has reduced hearing to both bone and air conduction. During a cranial nerve exam, an absent corneal reflex is observed on the right side, and she has poor balance. Otoscopy of both ears is normal. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma)

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with loss of the corneal reflex, the likely diagnosis is vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma). This is a noncancerous tumor that affects the vestibular portion of the 8th cranial nerve, leading to sensorineural deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. As the tumor grows, it can also press on other cranial nerves. Loss of the corneal reflex is a classic sign of early trigeminal (cranial nerve 5) involvement, which is unlikely in any of the other listed conditions.

      Meniere’s disease is not the correct answer. This is a disorder of the middle ear that causes episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, and a sensation of aural fullness or pressure.

      Otosclerosis is also incorrect. This is an inherited condition that causes conductive deafness and tinnitus, typically presenting in patients aged 20-40 years.

      Vestibular mononeuritis is not the correct answer either. This condition is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve following a recent viral infection and presents with vertigo, but hearing is not affected.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 67 - Does the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervate the cricothyroid muscle?...

    Incorrect

    • Does the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervate the cricothyroid muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic muscles of the larynx, with the exception of the cricothyroid muscle, are innervated by the innervation. The cricothyroid muscle is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 68 - A 26-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after being involved in a road traffic accident. He is experiencing severe pain and requires frequent analgesia. Which pathway do his unmyelinated C type fibers use to transmit this pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract conveys pain and temperature sensations from the spinal cord to the brain by synapsing with secondary sensory neurons in the spinal cord. These neurons immediately cross over to the opposite side and ascend to the brain. In contrast, the dorsal column tracts ascend on the same side of the body. Although these tracts run alongside each other in the brainstem, they remain separate. As a result, damage to these tracts can cause peculiar deficits, with touch being affected on the same side as the injury and pain on the opposite side.

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 69 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a ladder while replacing roof tiles. He has a reduced Glasgow coma scale (GCS) and has vomited 4 times. According to his partner, he was unconscious for about 5 minutes before waking up and becoming increasingly drowsy over the next few hours.

      A CT head scan reveals a skull fracture and a hyper-dense biconvex lesion. Which of the meningeal layers is responsible for the biconvex shape of the bleed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dura mater

      Explanation:

      The outermost layer of the meninges is known as the dura mater. A hyperdense biconvex lesion on a CT head, combined with the patient’s medical history, strongly suggests the presence of an extradural haemorrhage. This type of haemorrhage occurs between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull, and the biconvex shape is due to the dura mater’s strong attachment to the suture lines. The arachnoid mater is a thin meningeal layer that adheres to the internal surface of the dura mater, while the bone is not a meningeal layer but is fused with the outer layer of the dura through the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It’s important to note that the pia dura is not a layer of the meninges, and should not be confused with the pia mater or dura mater.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 70 - A 35-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision resulting in a severely...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision resulting in a severely displaced humerus fracture. During surgical repair, the surgeon observes an injury to the radial nerve. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be unaffected by this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      BEST

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 71 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and trouble staying alert while watching TV or reading, particularly in the evenings. Upon examination, she is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. What is the underlying mechanism for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies are produced against acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      The accurate explanation is that myasthenia gravis involves the production of antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, leading to a decrease in the amount of available acetylcholine for use in the neuromuscular junction.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 72 - A 73-year-old male visits the GP following a recent fall. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male visits the GP following a recent fall. He reports experiencing decreased sensation in his penis. During the clinical examination, you observe reduced sensation in his scrotum and the inner part of his buttocks. You suspect that the fall may have resulted in a sacral spinal cord injury.

      What dermatomes are responsible for the loss of sensation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing sensory loss in their genitalia due to damage to the S2 and S3 nerve roots, which has resulted in the loss of the corresponding dermatomes. The T4 and T5 dermatomes are located in the upper extremities, while the C3 and C4 dermatomes are also in the upper extremities. If the S1 nerve root were damaged, it would cause sensory loss in the lateral foot and small toe due to the loss of the S1 dermatome.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 73 - A 6-month-old infant was born by a vaginal breech delivery. During examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant was born by a vaginal breech delivery. During examination, it was observed that the left arm was held by the side and rotated medially. Additionally, the left elbow was extended with a pronated forearm and a flexed wrist. Which nerve roots are most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5, C6

      Explanation:

      If a baby is delivered in a breech position, it can lead to Erb-Duchenne paralysis. This occurs when the baby’s arm experiences too much pressure or pulling during delivery, causing damage to the brachial plexus. The most commonly affected area is the junction of the C5 and C6 nerve roots (known as Erb’s point), resulting in the characteristic Waiter’s tip posture where the affected arm is held at the side, rotated inward, with an extended elbow, pronated forearm, and flexed wrist. The suprascapular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve, and axillary nerve are typically involved in this type of paralysis.

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 74 - When conducting minor surgery on the scalp, which region is considered a hazardous...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting minor surgery on the scalp, which region is considered a hazardous area in terms of infection spreading to the central nervous system (CNS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loose areolar tissue

      Explanation:

      The risk of infection spreading easily makes this area highly dangerous. The emissary veins that drain this region could facilitate the spread of sepsis to the cranial cavity.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

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  • Question 75 - A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury to his arm at work six weeks ago and was diagnosed with axonotmesis. The patient is eager to return to work and asks when he can expect the numbness in his arm to go away.

      What guidance should you provide to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This type of injury usually recovers fully but can take up to a year

      Explanation:

      When a nerve is crushed, it can result in axonotmesis, which is a type of injury where both the axon and myelin sheath are damaged, but the nerve remains intact. Fortunately, axonotmesis injuries usually heal completely, although the process can be slow. The amount of time it takes for the nerve to heal depends on the severity and location of the injury, but typically, axons regenerate at a rate of 1mm per day and can take anywhere from three months to a year to fully recover. It’s not uncommon to experience residual numbness up to four weeks after the injury, but there’s usually no need for further testing at this point. While amitriptyline can help with pain relief, it doesn’t speed up the healing process. In contrast, neurotmesis injuries are more severe and can result in permanent nerve damage. However, in most cases of axonotmesis, full recovery is possible with time. Neuropraxia is a less severe type of nerve injury where the axon is not damaged, and healing typically occurs within six to eight weeks.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 76 - A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her physician recommends identifying triggers to prevent future attacks. What is a known trigger associated with migraines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chocolate

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a primary headache syndrome that often includes a prodrome, aura, migraine attack, and postdrome. The prodrome phase can involve changes in mood, fatigue, and hunger that occur hours to days before the migraine attack. The aura phase typically involves visual disturbances, such as wiggly lines in the visual field, and occurs 1-1.5 hours before the migraine attack. The migraine attack itself can last anywhere from 4-72 hours. The postdrome phase may include symptoms such as soreness, fatigue, mood changes, and gastrointestinal issues.

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a general feeling of discomfort. Migraine attacks can last up to 72 hours, and patients often seek relief in a dark and quiet room.

      There are several triggers that can cause a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. Women are three times more likely to experience migraines than men, and the prevalence in women is around 18%.

      To diagnose migraine, doctors use a set of criteria established by the International Headache Society. These criteria include at least five attacks that last between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, patients must also experience nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light and sound. The diagnosis is ruled out if the headache is caused by another disorder or if it occurs for the first time in close temporal relation to another disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 77 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 78 - A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.

      During the examination, it is observed that his left pupil is constricted with enophthalmos and ptosis of the left eyelid. However, the right side of his face appears to be unaffected.

      What could be the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Carotid artery dissection is the likely cause of the patient’s Horner’s syndrome, which presents with ptosis, enophthalmos, and miosis. This syndrome occurs when there is damage to the cervical sympathetic chain, resulting in the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck. The patient’s history of hypertension and headache further support this diagnosis.

      Facial nerve schwannoma is an incorrect diagnosis, as it would present with facial nerve palsy rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Microvascular oculomotor nerve palsy is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with complete ptosis and an eye that is turned outwards and downwards, without pupil dilatation.

      Uncal herniation is another incorrect diagnosis, as it can cause an oculomotor nerve palsy with pupillary involvement, but typically presents with a ‘down and out’ facing eye, rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and provides...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and provides innervation to the perineum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is divided into three branches: the rectal nerve, perineal nerve, and dorsal nerve of the penis/clitoris. All three branches pass through the greater sciatic foramen. The pudendal nerve provides innervation to the perineum and travels between the piriformis and coccygeus muscles, medial to the sciatic nerve.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 80 - A 29 week pregnant 26-year-old has been informed that her baby has hypoplasia...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 week pregnant 26-year-old has been informed that her baby has hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis, as shown by antenatal ultrasound and subsequent MRI. The baby has been diagnosed with Dandy-Walker syndrome. The neurologist explains to the mother that during embryonic development, the brain is formed from different swellings or vesicles of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the central nervous system.

      What specific embryological vesicle has not developed properly in the affected baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metencephalon

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the metencephalon is responsible for the formation of the pons and cerebellum.

      As the prosencephalon grows, it splits into two ear-shaped structures: the telencephalon (which develops into the hemispheres) and the diencephalon (which develops into the thalamus and hypothalamus).

      The mesencephalon grows slowly, and its central cavity eventually becomes the cerebral aqueduct.

      The rhombencephalon divides into two parts: the metencephalon (which forms the pons and cerebellum) and the myelencephalon (which forms the medulla).

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of sudden back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of sudden back pain that causes sharp shooting sensations down his buttocks and the back of his legs. He reports doing some heavy lifting in his garden just before the onset. After conducting a thorough physical examination, you observe a delayed ankle jerk reflex. You suspect that he may have an intervertebral disk prolapse.

      Which level of the spine is most likely affected by this disk prolapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      L5-S1 disk prolapses often result in a delayed ankle reflex, which can also compress the L5 nerve root and cause sciatic nerve pain in the buttocks and posterior legs. On the other hand, the knee jerk reflex is primarily controlled by the L2-L4 segments.

      The ankle reflex is a test that checks the function of the S1 and S2 nerve roots by tapping the Achilles tendon with a tendon hammer. This reflex is often delayed in individuals with L5 and S1 disk prolapses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 82 - A 30-year-old patient visits their GP with complaints of muscle wasting in their...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient visits their GP with complaints of muscle wasting in their legs, foot drop, and a high-arched foot. The patient has a medical history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The GP observes that the patient's legs resemble 'champagne bottles'. The patient denies any recent trauma, sensory deficits, or back pain.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

      Explanation:

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome is characterized by classic signs such as foot drop and a high-arched foot. The initial symptom often observed is foot drop, which is caused by chronic motor neuropathy leading to muscular atrophy. This can result in the distinctive champagne bottle appearance of the foot.

      Diabetic neuropathy is an incorrect answer as it typically presents with significant sensory deficits in a ‘glove and stocking’ pattern.

      Cauda equina syndrome is also an incorrect answer as it typically results in more severe symptoms such as loss of bladder control and significant sensory deficits, as well as back and spine pain. While foot drop may be present, it is unlikely to cause atrophy of the distal muscles.

      CIDP is another incorrect answer as patients with this condition typically experience significant proximal and distal atrophy, which would not lead to the champagne bottle appearance. Additionally, sensory symptoms are present but less noticeable than the motor symptoms.

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease is a prevalent genetic peripheral neuropathy that primarily affects motor function. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for this condition, and treatment is mainly centered around physical and occupational therapy. Some common symptoms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease include a history of frequent ankle sprains, foot drop, high-arched feet (also known as pes cavus), hammer toes, distal muscle weakness and atrophy, hyporeflexia, and the stork leg deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 83 - A 21-year-old male visits the GP complaining of a sore and itchy eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male visits the GP complaining of a sore and itchy eye upon waking up. Upon examination, the right eye appears red with a discharge of mucopurulent nature. The patient has a medical history of asthma and eczema and is currently using a salbutamol inhaler. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      A mucopurulent discharge is indicative of bacterial conjunctivitis, which is likely in this patient presenting with an itchy, red eye. Although the patient has a history of asthma and eczema, allergic rhinitis would not produce a mucopurulent discharge. Viral conjunctivitis, the most common type of conjunctivitis, is associated with a watery discharge. A corneal ulcer, on the other hand, is characterized by pain and a watery eye.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 84 - A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he has noticed at the corner of his jaw. Apart from this, he reports feeling well. During the examination, there is no visible swelling, but on palpation, you detect a hard, immovable mass located about 2 cm above the angle of the mandible. Based on your assessment, you suspect that the patient may have a parotid gland tumor. If this is the case, the tumor may cause additional symptoms if it affects the cranial nerve that passes through the parotid gland. Which cranial nerve has a path that runs through the substance of the parotid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland contains the facial nerve, which divides into five branches: the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches. The mandibular nerve, a division of the trigeminal nerve, carries both sensory and motor fibers, providing sensation to the lower lip, lower teeth and gums, chin, and jaw, and motor innervation to muscles involved in chewing and other functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve, the ninth cranial nerve, has various functions, including carrying taste and sensation from the back of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle, as well as supplying the parotid gland with parasympathetic fibers. The maxillary nerve, another division of the trigeminal nerve, carries only sensory fibers, providing sensation to the lower eyelid and cheeks, upper teeth and gums, palate, nasal cavity, and certain paranasal sinuses. The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and most of the extrinsic muscles, except for the palatoglossus. A parotid tumor, which is usually benign, can cause symptoms such as a mass, tenderness of the gland, facial nerve palsy, or lymphatic infiltration.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 85 - A 40-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his family history. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his family history. His father and paternal grandmother both developed Alzheimer's disease at the age of 68 and 75 respectively. Which allele is associated with an elevated risk, but not a guaranteed factor, for the onset of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E4

      Explanation:

      The primary genetic determinant of sporadic Alzheimer’s disease risk is the presence of polymorphic alleles in the APOE gene. Those who carry the ε4 allele are at the greatest risk.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 86 - A young woman comes in with a sudden and severe headache at the...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman comes in with a sudden and severe headache at the back of her head, which quickly leads to seizures. Upon examination, doctors discover an aneurysm. During the assessment, they observe that her right eye is displaced downwards and to the side. What could be the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      When someone has oculomotor nerve palsy, their medial rectus muscle is disabled, which causes the lateral rectus muscle to move the eye uncontrollably to the side. Additionally, the superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles are also affected, causing the eye to move downwards due to the unopposed action of the superior oblique muscle. This condition also results in ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, due to paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle, and mydriasis, or dilation of the pupil, due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers.

      Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features

      The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.

      The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.

      The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 87 - A homeless 40-year-old male had an emergency inguinal hernia repair 48 hours ago....

    Incorrect

    • A homeless 40-year-old male had an emergency inguinal hernia repair 48 hours ago. He has a BMI of 15. The patient is currently on a feeding plan of 35 kcal/kg/day without any additional medications. The nursing staff reaches out to you as the patient has become disoriented and unsteady. Upon examination, the patient displays diplopia, nystagmus, and disorientation to place. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Due to the lack of thiamine or vitamin B co strong replacement in the patient’s carbohydrate rich diet, they are experiencing the triad of Wernicke encephalopathy, which includes acute confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia.

      Understanding Refeeding Syndrome and its Metabolic Consequences

      Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person is fed after a period of starvation. This can lead to metabolic abnormalities such as hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance. These metabolic consequences can result in organ failure, making it crucial to be aware of the risks associated with refeeding.

      To prevent refeeding problems, it is recommended to re-feed patients who have not eaten for more than five days at less than 50% energy and protein levels. Patients who are at high risk for refeeding problems include those with a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, and hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high). Patients with two or more of the following are also at high risk: BMI less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, and a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids.

      To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is recommended to start at up to 10 kcal/kg/day and increase to full needs over 4-7 days. It is also important to start oral thiamine 200-300 mg/day, vitamin B co strong 1 tds, and supplements immediately before and during feeding. Additionally, K+ (2-4 mmol/kg/day), phosphate (0.3-0.6 mmol/kg/day), and magnesium (0.2-0.4 mmol/kg/day) should be given to patients. By understanding the risks associated with refeeding syndrome and taking preventative measures, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 88 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of headache, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of headache, nausea, and vomiting for the past 6 hours. His wife reports that he had a fall one week ago, but did not lose consciousness.

      Upon examination, the patient is oriented to person, but not to place and time. His vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ on the right and 2+ on the left, and there is mild weakness of his left-sided muscles. Babinski's sign is present on the right. A non-contrast CT scan of the head reveals a hyperdense crescent across the left hemisphere.

      What is the likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rupture of bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Subdural hemorrhage occurs when damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses bleed. In this patient’s CT scan, a hyperdense crescent-shaped collection is visible on the left hemisphere, indicating subdural hemorrhage. Given the patient’s age and symptoms, this diagnosis is likely.

      Ischemic stroke can result from blockage of the anterior or middle cerebral artery. The former typically presents with contralateral motor weakness, while the latter presents with contralateral motor weakness, sensory loss, and hemianopia. If the dominant hemisphere is affected, the patient may also experience aphasia, while hemineglect may occur if the non-dominant hemisphere is affected. Early CT scans may appear normal, but later scans may show hypodense areas in the contralateral parietal and temporal lobes.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by an aneurysm rupture and presents acutely with a severe headache, photophobia, and meningism. The CT scan would show hyperdense material in the subarachnoid space.

      Epidural hematoma results from the rupture of the middle meningeal artery and appears as a biconvex hyperdense collection between the brain and skull.

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.

      Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.

      Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 89 - A 65-year-old male comes to the head and neck clinic for his postoperative...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to the head and neck clinic for his postoperative check-up following the removal of a tumour from his mouth. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the floor of his mouth after the surgery. It is suspected that the sensory nerve to the floor of his mouth may have been affected.

      What is the most probable nerve that has been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve provides sensation to the floor of the mouth, a portion of the tongue, and the gingivae of the mandibular lingual. The mandibular nerve transmits sensory fibers to the submandibular glands, while the greater auricular nerve is responsible for sensation in the parotid gland. The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, controls tongue movement, and the facial nerve, the seventh cranial nerve, is responsible for salivation, lacrimation, facial movement, and taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      Lingual Nerve: Sensory Nerve to the Tongue and Mouth

      The lingual nerve is a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the mucosa of the presulcal part of the tongue, floor of the mouth, and mandibular lingual gingivae. It arises from the posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve and runs past the tensor veli palatini and lateral pterygoid muscles. At this point, it is joined by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve.

      After emerging from the cover of the lateral pterygoid, the lingual nerve proceeds antero-inferiorly, lying on the surface of the medial pterygoid and close to the medial aspect of the mandibular ramus. At the junction of the vertical and horizontal rami of the mandible, it is anterior to the inferior alveolar nerve. The lingual nerve then passes below the mandibular attachment of the superior pharyngeal constrictor and lies on the periosteum of the root of the third molar tooth.

      Finally, the lingual nerve passes medial to the mandibular origin of mylohyoid and then passes forwards on the inferior surface of this muscle. Overall, the lingual nerve plays an important role in providing sensory information to the tongue and mouth.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 90 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysdiadochokinesia, gait ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysdiadochokinesia, gait ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor and slurred speech. What investigation would be most appropriate for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI Brain

      Explanation:

      When it comes to cerebellar disease, MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool. CT brain scans are better suited for detecting ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes in the brain, rather than identifying cerebellar lesions. X-rays of the brain are not effective in detecting cerebellar lesions. PET-CT scans are typically used in cancer cases where there is active uptake of the radioactive isotope by cancer cells.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 91 - You are called to assess a 43-year-old woman in the emergency department who...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to assess a 43-year-old woman in the emergency department who was brought in by her partner after collapsing while attempting to get into a car. The patient has been experiencing generalised abdominal pain and diarrhoea for a few days and has recently complained of feeling weak and unsteady on her feet.

      Upon examination, the patient has intact lower limb sensation but struggles to perform movements against resistance. Both ankle and knee jerks are absent. You order bedside spirometry to assess respiratory function while awaiting further investigations.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection with Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is Guillain-Barre syndrome, which is a demyelinating ascending polyneuropathy that is typically triggered by a flu-like illness such as Epstein Barr virus or gastroenteritis caused by Campylobacter jejuni. The diagnosis is usually suspected based on clinical presentation, with nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture sometimes used for confirmation. Bedside spirometry is also performed to assess respiratory function, as respiratory muscle weakness can lead to type 2 respiratory failure, which is a major complication of the condition. Supportive management is the initial approach, with ventilation considered if necessary. IVIG and plasma exchange are the main treatment options.

      Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are associated with myasthenia gravis, which primarily affects the extra-ocular and bulbar muscles, causing diplopia and dysphagia. Involvement of the lower limbs is rare. Multiple sclerosis, on the other hand, is characterized by episodes of CNS damage that are separate in space and time, making it unlikely to be suspected in a single episode. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which is caused by a deficiency in ADAMTS13, is a severe haematological disease that can lead to thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, renal impairment, and severe neurological deficit, but it is not the most likely cause in this case.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 92 - A 36-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden thunderclap headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden thunderclap headache in the occipital area and photophobia. The CT scan of the head reveals hyper-attenuation around the circle of Willis, within the subarachnoid space. What is the probable diagnosis, and which meningeal layer is the hemorrhage located between, apart from the arachnoid mater?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pia mater

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges. A sudden onset headache at the back of the head, described as thunderclap in nature, is a classic symptom of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. This type of bleeding occurs in the subarachnoid space, which is located between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. The pia mater is directly attached to the brain and spinal cord.

      The answer bone is incorrect because the bleed occurs between the pia mater and arachnoid mater, not in the bone. Bone is not a meningeal layer.

      The answer brain is also incorrect because the bleed occurs above the pia mater and below the arachnoid mater, in the subarachnoid space. The brain is located below the pia mater and is not directly involved in the bleed. The brain is also not a meningeal layer.

      The answer dura mater is incorrect because it is the thick outermost layer of the meninges, not the innermost layer where the bleed occurs.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 93 - As a medical student on wards in the endocrinology department, you come across...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student on wards in the endocrinology department, you come across a patient suffering from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. During the ward round, the consultant leading the team decides to test your knowledge and asks about the normal release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the brain.

      Can you explain the pathway that leads to the release of this hormone causing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland via neural cells which extend from the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland is formed by neural cells’ axons that extend directly from the hypothalamus.

      In contrast to the anterior pituitary gland, which has separate hormone-secreting cells controlled by hormonal stimulation, the posterior pituitary gland only contains neural cells that extend from the hypothalamus. Therefore, the hormones (ADH and oxytocin) released from the posterior pituitary gland are released from the axons of cells extending from the hypothalamus.

      All anterior pituitary hormone release is controlled through hormonal stimulation from the hypothalamus.

      The adrenal medulla directly releases epinephrine, norepinephrine, and small amounts of dopamine from sympathetic neural cells.

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness in his right arm and leg. During the examination, you observe that he has left-sided facial numbness. There are no alterations in his speech or hearing, and he has no weakness in any of his limbs.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Medullary Syndrome

      Lateral medullary syndrome, also referred to as Wallenberg’s syndrome, is a condition that arises when the posterior inferior cerebellar artery becomes blocked. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect both the cerebellum and brainstem. Cerebellar features of the syndrome include ataxia and nystagmus, while brainstem features include dysphagia, facial numbness, and cranial nerve palsy such as Horner’s. Additionally, patients may experience contralateral limb sensory loss. Understanding the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 95 - A 9-year-old patient is referred to the pediatric neurology department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient is referred to the pediatric neurology department with complaints of headaches, vomiting, and balance problems. Upon performing a CT scan, a lesion consistent with astrocytoma is detected, and a biopsy is ordered for confirmation. What is the function of the cells responsible for the development of this cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Removal of excess potassium ions

      Explanation:

      Astrocytes play a crucial role in the central nervous system by removing excess potassium ions. However, if a child is diagnosed with an astrocytoma, which is the most common type of CNS tumor in children, it means that the tumor originates from astrocytes, a specific type of glial cells.

      Apart from removing excess potassium, astrocytes also provide physical support, form part of the blood-brain barrier, and assist in physical repair within the CNS. On the other hand, microglia are responsible for phagocytosis within the CNS.

      Oligodendroglia, which produce myelin in the CNS, are affected in patients with multiple sclerosis. Meanwhile, Schwann cells produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS), and they are affected in patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Lastly, the cells that line the ventricles in the CNS are called ependymal cells.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

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  • Question 96 - A 24-year-old dancer undergoes a thyroidectomy due to concerns about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old dancer undergoes a thyroidectomy due to concerns about the appearance of her goitre. Following the surgery, she is informed that there was a laceration of the superior laryngeal nerve, which may affect her ability to produce higher pitches in her voice. She is referred for speech therapy.

      What counseling should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve lacerations have a poor recovery, even with surgical nerve repair

      Explanation:

      The recovery of nerve lacerations is challenging due to the intricate nature of the neuronal system. However, there is a possibility of a better recovery if the injury is small, does not cause nerve stretching, requires a short nerve graft, and the patient is young and medically fit. It is worth noting that repaired nerves can regain sensory function similar to their pre-injury level.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 97 - A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a tree and caught himself with his right arm on a branch just before hitting the ground. He immediately felt pain in his hand and lower neck. Despite the pain, he managed to lower himself to the ground and make his way to the hospital.

      Upon examination, there are no visible wounds or fractures, but there is a noticeable reduction in movement and power of the intrinsic hand muscles. All other joints in the upper limb appear to be normal.

      What nerve root injury pattern did the boy sustain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

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  • Question 98 - You are asked to clerk a 73-year-old-man who presented with a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to clerk a 73-year-old-man who presented with a fall. He was seen by the stroke team who requested a CT head. This excluded an intracranial haemorrhage and he was started on aspirin. When you enter the cubicle, you notice the patient has a right-sided facial droop.

      What type of speech disturbance does this patient have? You start taking a history but find it difficult to understand what he says. He is unable to get the words out easily and his speech is non-fluent as if hesitating before uttering the words.

      During the cranial nerve examination, he understood and followed your instructions well. However, he is unable to repeat words after you.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broca's dysphasia

      Explanation:

      This man experienced a stroke that affected Broca’s area, resulting in Broca’s dysphasia. This condition causes non-fluent speech, but normal comprehension, and impaired repetition. Despite knowing what they want to say, patients with Broca’s dysphasia struggle to articulate their words. They can understand instructions, but have difficulty repeating words. This is different from conductive dysphasia, which presents with fluent speech but an inability to repeat words. Dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterized by difficulty articulating words due to a lack of coordination in the muscles of speech. Global aphasia is the inability to understand, repeat, and produce speech, which was not the case for this patient as they were able to understand instructions.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 99 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination, he has a fever and exhibits weakness on the right side. A CT scan reveals a ring-enhancing lesion that affects the motor cortex on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and rapidly worsening neurological symptoms strongly indicates the possibility of cerebral abscess. A CT scan can confirm this diagnosis by revealing a lesion with a ring-enhancing appearance, as the contrast material cannot reach the center of the abscess cavity. It is important to note that HSV encephalitis does not typically result in ring-enhancing lesions.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform after drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered, along with intracranial pressure management using dexamethasone.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 100 - A 89-year-old man is brought to his primary care physician by his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year-old man is brought to his primary care physician by his daughter who is worried about changes in his behavior following a stroke 10 weeks ago. The daughter reports that the man has gained 12 kg in the past 8 weeks and appears to be constantly putting household items in his mouth. He also struggles to identify familiar people and objects. During the appointment, the man mentions that his sex drive has significantly increased.

      Which specific area of the brain has been affected by the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is often caused by bilateral lesions in the medial temporal lobe, including the amygdala. This can lead to symptoms such as hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. Lesions in the cingulate gyrus can result in poor decision-making and emotional dysfunction, while frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in behavior, anosmia, aphasia, and motor impairment. Hippocampus lesions can lead to memory impairment, and thalamic lesions can result in sensory and motor dysfunction.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 101 - A 20-year-old male has been referred to a neurologist for persistent headache, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred to a neurologist for persistent headache, nausea, and vomiting. After an MRI scan, a biopsy reveals a low-grade tumor with associated cysts. Which type of cell is responsible for removing excess potassium ions from the cerebrospinal fluid in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Astrocytes play a crucial role in eliminating surplus potassium ions from the cerebrospinal fluid. They also provide structural support to neurons, aid in the formation of the blood-brain barrier, and assist in the physical repair of neuronal tissues. In a medical context, the low-grade tumor is likely to be a pilocytic astrocytoma.

      Schwann cells are responsible for myelinating peripheral axons, while microglia function as phagocytes in the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes, on the other hand, are responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 102 - A 22-year-old man suffers a depressed skull fracture at the vertex after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man suffers a depressed skull fracture at the vertex after being struck with a hammer. Which of the following sinuses is in danger due to this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      The pattern of injury poses the highest threat to the superior sagittal sinus, which starts at the crista galli’s front and runs along the falx cerebri towards the back. It merges with the right transverse sinus close to the internal occipital protuberance.

      Overview of Cranial Venous Sinuses

      The cranial venous sinuses are a series of veins located within the dura mater, the outermost layer of the brain. Unlike other veins in the body, they do not have valves, which can increase the risk of sepsis spreading. These sinuses eventually drain into the internal jugular vein.

      There are several cranial venous sinuses, including the superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, confluence of sinuses, occipital sinus, and cavernous sinus. Each of these sinuses has a specific location and function within the brain.

      To better understand the topography of the cranial venous sinuses, it is helpful to visualize them as a map. The superior sagittal sinus runs along the top of the brain, while the inferior sagittal sinus runs along the bottom. The straight sinus connects the two, while the transverse sinus runs horizontally across the back of the brain. The sigmoid sinus then curves downward and connects to the internal jugular vein. The confluence of sinuses is where several of these sinuses meet, while the occipital sinus is located at the back of the head. Finally, the cavernous sinus is located on either side of the pituitary gland.

      Understanding the location and function of these cranial venous sinuses is important for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

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  • Question 103 - A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of a progressive headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of a progressive headache that is worse in the morning, nausea and reduced appetite. He reports that he has been bumping into hanging objects more frequently.

      During the examination of his cranial nerves, a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia is detected. However, his visual acuity is normal.

      Given the ophthalmological finding, where is the suspected location of the space-occupying lesion? An urgent MRI brain has been scheduled.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the temporal lobe inferior optic radiations are responsible for causing superior homonymous quadrantanopias.

      When the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway, specifically the inferior optic radiation (Meyer loop) of the temporal lobe, are damaged, it results in homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

      Patients with this condition may experience difficulty navigating through their blind quadrant-field, such as bumping into objects located above their head or on the upper portion of their computer or television screen. They may also exhibit symptoms of the underlying cause, such as a brain tumor. Additionally, the non-dominant right temporal lobe is responsible for learning and remembering non-verbal information, which may also be affected.

      Despite the visual field defect, patients typically report normal visual acuity since only half a macula is required for it.

      Other visual field defects associated with different areas of the brain include right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia with left parietal lobe damage, right superior homonymous quadrantanopia with left temporal lobe damage, left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing with right occipital lobe damage, and left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia with right parietal lobe damage.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 104 - A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of left-sided facial weakness. The weakness impacts the entire left side of her face, including her forehead, and her corneal reflex is absent upon examination. The physician prescribes prednisolone and informs Sarah that her facial weakness should improve within a few weeks.

      What is the cranial foramen through which the nerve responsible for Sarah's symptoms passes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the internal acoustic meatus, through which the facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) pass. Emily is likely experiencing Bell’s Palsy, which is treated with prednisolone. The foramen ovale is incorrect, as it is where the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V₃) passes. The foramen spinosum is also incorrect, as it is where the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V₃) pass. The jugular foramen is incorrect, as it is where the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), vagus nerve (CN X), and spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) pass. The superior orbital fissure (SOF) is also incorrect, as it is where the lacrimal nerve, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve (CN V₁), trochlear nerve (CN IV), oculomotor nerve (CN III), abducens nerve (CN VI), superior ophthalmic vein, and a branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein pass.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 105 - At what level does the inferior vena cava exit the abdominal cavity? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level does the inferior vena cava exit the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 106 - Samantha, a 75-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling down a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 75-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs. She reports experiencing discomfort in her right upper arm.

      Upon examination, the physician orders an X-ray which reveals a mid shaft humeral fracture on the right.

      What is the most probable symptom associated with this type of fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist drop

      Explanation:

      A mid shaft humeral fracture can result in wrist drop, which is a clinical sign indicating damage to the radial nerve. The radial nerve controls the muscles responsible for extending the wrist, and when it is damaged, the wrist remains in a flexed position. Other clinical signs associated with nerve or vascular damage include the hand of benediction (median nerve), ulnar claw (ulnar nerve), and Volkmann’s contracture (brachial artery).

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 107 - As a doctor on a 4-month placement in intensive care, you admit a...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor on a 4-month placement in intensive care, you admit a 32-year-old man following a closed head injury sustained in a road traffic accident. The patient has no past medical history and initially presents with a Glasgow coma score of 14/15 and no focal neurological deficit. Invasive monitoring is undertaken, and his heart rate, blood pressure, and intracranial pressure are normal. He is started on maintenance intravenous fluids.

      However, a few hours later, the patient becomes agitated and confused, and his Glasgow coma score drops to 11/15. His observations reveal a regular heart rate of 101 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 161/89 mmHg, and an intracranial pressure of 18 mmHg. Which pathophysiological changes could explain his clinical deterioration and hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rise in intracranial pressure causing fall in cerebral perfusion pressure

      Explanation:

      When intracranial pressure (ICP) rises rapidly, it can lead to a decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). This can occur in individuals with head injuries, as seen in the scenario where a patient’s Glasgow coma score dropped from 14/15 to 11/15 and they became agitated. The patient’s ICP also increased to 18 mmHg, likely due to brain swelling or a hematoma. The decrease in CPP can cause hypoperfusion and hypoxia in normal brain tissue, leading to neurological deterioration. CPP is calculated by subtracting ICP from mean arterial pressure. As a result of the decrease in CPP, the body may respond by increasing mean arterial pressure, resulting in hypertension in the patient.

      Understanding Cerebral Perfusion Pressure

      Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) refers to the pressure gradient that drives blood flow to the brain. It is a crucial factor in maintaining optimal cerebral perfusion, which is tightly regulated by the body. Any sudden increase in CPP can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP), while a decrease in CPP can result in cerebral ischemia. To calculate CPP, one can subtract the ICP from the mean arterial pressure.

      In cases of trauma, it is essential to carefully monitor and control CPP. This may require invasive methods to measure both ICP and mean arterial pressure (MAP). By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that the brain receives adequate blood flow and oxygenation, which is vital for optimal brain function. Understanding CPP is crucial in managing traumatic brain injuries and other conditions that affect cerebral perfusion.

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  • Question 108 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the cremasteric reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the cremasteric reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric reflex tests the motor and sensory fibers of the genitofemoral nerve, with a minor involvement from the ilioinguinal nerve. If someone has had an inguinal hernia repair, the reflex may be lost.

      The Genitofemoral Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The genitofemoral nerve is responsible for supplying a small area of the upper medial thigh. It arises from the first and second lumbar nerves and passes through the psoas major muscle before emerging from its medial border. The nerve then descends on the surface of the psoas major, under the cover of the peritoneum, and divides into genital and femoral branches.

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve passes through the inguinal canal within the spermatic cord to supply the skin overlying the scrotum’s skin and fascia. On the other hand, the femoral branch enters the thigh posterior to the inguinal ligament, lateral to the femoral artery. It supplies an area of skin and fascia over the femoral triangle.

      Injuries to the genitofemoral nerve may occur during abdominal or pelvic surgery or inguinal hernia repairs. Understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial in preventing such injuries and ensuring proper treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 109 - What is the incorrect pairing in the following options? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incorrect pairing in the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Termination of dural sac and L4

      Explanation:

      Sorry, your input is not clear. Please provide more information or context for me to understand what you want me to do.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 110 - During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a...

    Incorrect

    • During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a shunt, which vessels will not experience reduced or absent flow?

      Assuming that no shunt is inserted, which vessels will not have diminished or absent flow as a result during a carotid endarterectomy where the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery gives rise to the maxillary artery.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

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  • Question 111 - A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive dysarthria, dysphagia, facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive dysarthria, dysphagia, facial and tongue weakness, and emotional lability. During the examination, you observe an exaggerated jaw jerk reflex. Which cranial nerve is responsible for this efferent pathway of the reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The efferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex is controlled by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). This nerve supplies sensation to the lower face and buccal membranes of the mouth, as well as providing secretory-motor function to the parotid gland. In conditions with pathology above the spinal cord, such as pseudobulbar palsy, the jaw jerk reflex can become hyperreflexic as an upper motor sign. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V1) and the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V2) are not responsible for the efferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex, as they provide sensory function to other areas of the face.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 112 - You are a medical student on an endocrine ward. There is a 65-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are a medical student on an endocrine ward. There is a 65-year-old patient on the ward suffering from hypopituitarism. One of the junior doctors explains to you that the patient's pituitary gland was damaged when they received radiation therapy for a successfully treated brain tumour last year. He shows you a CT scan and demonstrates that only the anterior pituitary gland is damaged, with the posterior pituitary gland unaffected.

      Which of the following hormones is unlikely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: antidiuretic hormone

      Explanation:

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

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  • Question 113 - A 32-year-old man has a sarcoma removed from his right buttock, resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has a sarcoma removed from his right buttock, resulting in sacrifice of the sciatic nerve. What is one outcome that will not occur as a result of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of extension at the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The obturator and femoral nerves are responsible for causing extension of the knee joint.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

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  • Question 114 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She reports that he woke up with numbness in his left arm and leg. During your examination, you observe nystagmus and suspect that he may have lateral medullary syndrome. What other feature is most likely to be present on his examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral dysphagia

      Explanation:

      Lateral medullary syndrome can lead to difficulty swallowing on the same side as the lesion, along with limb sensory loss and nystagmus. This condition is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. However, it does not typically cause ipsilateral deafness or CN III palsy, which are associated with other types of brain lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia are also not typically seen in lateral medullary syndrome. Ipsilateral facial paralysis can occur in lateral pontine syndrome, but not in lateral medullary syndrome.

      Understanding Lateral Medullary Syndrome

      Lateral medullary syndrome, also referred to as Wallenberg’s syndrome, is a condition that arises when the posterior inferior cerebellar artery becomes blocked. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect both the cerebellum and brainstem. Cerebellar features of the syndrome include ataxia and nystagmus, while brainstem features include dysphagia, facial numbness, and cranial nerve palsy such as Horner’s. Additionally, patients may experience contralateral limb sensory loss. Understanding the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 115 - A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his physician with an inability to walk. The patient has a history of chronic kidney disease, diabetic retinopathy and a prior myocardial infarction treated via a stent. The patient admits to a recent loss of sensation in the lower limbs and is found to also have associated motor neuropathy. Complications of his chronic disease are found to be the cause of his gait problems.

      What findings would be expected during examination of the lower limbs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased reflexes, fasciculations, decreased tone

      Explanation:

      When there is a lower motor neuron lesion, there is a reduction in everything, including reflexes, tone, and power. Fasciculations are also a common feature. Motor neuropathy caused by diabetes is a form of peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with lower motor neuron symptoms. On the other hand, an upper motor neuron lesion is characterized by increased tone, reflexes, and weakness. A mixed picture may occur when there are both upper and lower motor neuron signs present. For example, Babinski positive, increased reflexes, and decreased tone indicate a combination of upper and lower motor neuron lesions. Similarly, decreased tone, decreased reflexes, and clonus suggest a mixed picture, with the clonus being an upper motor neuron sign. Conversely, increased tone, decreased reflexes, and clonus also indicate a mixed picture, with the increased tone and clonus being upper motor neuron signs and the decreased reflexes being a lower motor neuron sign.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

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  • Question 116 - A young woman presents with ascending paralysis which started three weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents with ascending paralysis which started three weeks after a diarrhoeal illness. Her ventilatory muscles are found to be paralysed too, prompting ventilatory support. She is subsequently diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), what is the most likely bacterium responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The onset of GBS is initiated by a microbial trigger that stimulates the production of antibodies, leading to a cross-reaction with nerves. The most prevalent triggers are Campylobacter jejuni and cytomegalovirus, while other triggers include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, varicella zoster virus, HIV, and Epstein-Barr virus.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

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  • Question 117 - A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a depressed skull fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a depressed skull fracture that requires surgical intervention. After a few days, he reports experiencing double vision while walking down stairs and reading. Upon conducting an ocular convergence test, it is observed that the left eye faces downwards and medially, while the right eye does not. Which cranial nerve is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear

      Explanation:

      The fourth cranial nerve is susceptible to injury in cases of head trauma due to its lengthy intracranial path. Acute fourth nerve palsy is most commonly caused by head trauma, resulting in vertical diplopia. The double vision is most severe when the affected eye looks inward, which typically occurs during the accommodation reflex while descending stairs.

      Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features

      The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.

      The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.

      The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.

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  • Question 118 - Sarah is a 28-year-old teacher who has presented to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old teacher who has presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset of a severe headache and visual disturbances. Her medical history is significant only for asthma. She does not take any medications, does not smoke nor drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, Sarah is alert and oriented but in obvious pain. Neurological examination reveals a fixed, dilated, non-reactive left pupil that is hypersensitive to light. All extra ocular movements are intact and there is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Systematic enquiry reveals no other abnormalities.

      What is the most likely cause of Sarah's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

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  • Question 119 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic after experiencing a seizure. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic after experiencing a seizure. During the history-taking, he reports that he first noticed shaking in his hand about an hour ago. The shaking continued for a few seconds before he lost consciousness and bit his tongue. He also experienced urinary incontinence. How would you describe this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Partial seizure with secondary generalisation

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy is a neurological condition that causes recurrent seizures. In the UK, around 500,000 people have epilepsy, and two-thirds of them can control their seizures with antiepileptic medication. While epilepsy usually occurs in isolation, certain conditions like cerebral palsy, tuberous sclerosis, and mitochondrial diseases have an association with epilepsy. It’s important to note that seizures can also occur due to other reasons like infection, trauma, or metabolic disturbance.

      Seizures can be classified into focal seizures, which start in a specific area of the brain, and generalised seizures, which involve networks on both sides of the brain. Patients who have had generalised seizures may experience biting their tongue or incontinence of urine. Following a seizure, patients typically have a postictal phase where they feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes.

      Patients who have had their first seizure generally undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging (usually a MRI). Most neurologists start antiepileptics following a second epileptic seizure. Antiepileptics are one of the few drugs where it is recommended that we prescribe by brand, rather than generically, due to the risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lowered seizure threshold.

      Patients who drive, take other medications, wish to get pregnant, or take contraception need to consider the possible interactions of the antiepileptic medication. Some commonly used antiepileptics include sodium valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and phenytoin. In case of a seizure that doesn’t terminate after 5-10 minutes, medication like benzodiazepines may be administered to terminate the seizure. If a patient continues to fit despite such measures, they are said to have status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency requiring hospital treatment.

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  • Question 120 - A 58-year-old male comes to the GP with a complaint of changed sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male comes to the GP with a complaint of changed sensation in his legs. Upon examination, you observe brisk knee reflexes and a positive Babinski sign, but no ankle jerks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

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  • Question 121 - A 49-year-old man with a diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme and resistance to chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme and resistance to chemotherapy is referred for a craniotomy to remove the mass-occupying lesion. What is the correct sequence of layers the surgeon must pass through, from most superficial to deepest, during the craniotomy which involves creating an opening through the scalp and meninges?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loose Connective Tissue, Periosteum, Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater

      Explanation:

      The outermost layer of the meninges is the dura mater.

      To remember the layers of the scalp from superficial to deep, use the acronym SCALP: Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum.

      To remember the layers of the meninges from superficial to deep, use the acronym DAP: Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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  • Question 122 - A 60-year-old man visits his physician with a complaint of double vision. During...

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    • A 60-year-old man visits his physician with a complaint of double vision. During the examination, the physician observes that the left eye is in a 'down and out' position and the pupil is dilated. The physician suspects a cranial nerve palsy.

      What is the probable reason for his nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Consider compression as the likely cause of surgical third nerve palsy.

      When the dilation of the pupil is involved, it is referred to as surgical third nerve palsy. This condition is caused by a lesion that compresses the pupillary fibers located on the outer part of the third nerve. Unlike vascular causes of third nerve palsy, which only affect the nerve and not the pupillary fibers.

      Out of the given options, only answer 4 is a compressive cause of third nerve palsy. The other options are risk factors for vascular causes.

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

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  • Question 123 - A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of...

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    • A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of sensation on the left side of his body to his caregivers.

      During his cranial nerve examination, no abnormalities were found. However, upon neurological examination of his upper and lower limbs, there is a significant sensory loss to light touch, vibration, and pain on the right side. Additionally, he is unable to detect changes in temperature and his joint position sense is impaired on the right side. A CT head scan reveals an infarction in the region of the lateral thalamus on the left side.

      Which specific lateral thalamic nucleus has been affected by this stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventral posterior

      Explanation:

      Injury to the lateral section of the ventral posterior nucleus located in the thalamus can impact the perception of bodily sensations such as touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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  • Question 124 - A 58-year-old man, previously diagnosed with small cell lung cancer, visits his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man, previously diagnosed with small cell lung cancer, visits his GP complaining of a recent onset headache, nausea, and vomiting that have been worsening over the past week. He reports feeling dizzy when the headache starts and an unusual increase in appetite, resulting in weight gain. Despite his history of little appetite due to his lung cancer, he has been insatiable lately. Which part of the hypothalamus is likely affected by the metastasis of his lung cancer, causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventromedial nucleus

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating satiety, and therefore, damage to this area can result in hyperphagia.

      The posterior nucleus plays a role in stimulating the sympathetic nervous system and body heat, and lesions in this area can lead to autonomic dysfunction and poikilothermia.

      The lateral nucleus is responsible for stimulating appetite, and damage to this area can cause a decrease in appetite and anorexia.

      The paraventricular nucleus produces oxytocin and ADH, and lesions in this area can result in diabetes insipidus.

      The dorsomedial nucleus is responsible for stimulating aggressive behavior and can lead to savage behavior if damaged.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

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  • Question 125 - A 63-year-old man is being evaluated on the medical ward after undergoing surgery...

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    • A 63-year-old man is being evaluated on the medical ward after undergoing surgery to remove a suspicious thyroid nodule. His vital signs are stable, his pain is adequately managed, and he is able to consume soft foods and drink oral fluids. He reports feeling generally fine, but has observed a hoarseness in his voice.

      What is the probable reason for his hoarseness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Hoarseness is often linked to recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, which can affect the opening of the vocal cords by innervating the posterior arytenoid muscles. This type of damage can result from surgery, such as thyroidectomy, or compression from tumors. On the other hand, glossopharyngeal nerve damage is more commonly associated with swallowing difficulties. Since the patient is able to consume food orally, a dry throat is unlikely to be the cause of her hoarseness. While intubation trauma could cause vocal changes, the absence of pain complaints makes it less likely. Additionally, the lack of other symptoms suggests that an upper respiratory tract infection is not the cause.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

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  • Question 126 - A 31-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of feeling constantly tired,...

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    • A 31-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of feeling constantly tired, lacking energy, and experiencing severe headaches. She reports a loss of libido and irregular menstrual cycles. During an eye exam, bitemporal hemianopia is detected, and an MRI scan reveals a non-functional pituitary tumor that is pressing on an artery. Which artery is being compressed by the patient's tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

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  • Question 127 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of headache, confusion, and neck stiffness. In the department, she appears to become increasingly lethargic and has a seizure.

      She has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. Her friend reports that no one else in their apartment complex has been unwell recently.

      Her observations show heart rate 112/min, blood pressure of 98/78 mmHg, 98% oxygen saturations in room air, a temperature of 39.1ºC, and respiratory rate of 20/min.

      She has bloods including cultures sent and is referred to the medical team for further management.

      What is the most likely organism causing this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

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  • Question 128 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In addition to decreased sharpness, he describes object distortion, difficulty discerning colors, and occasional flashes of light. He has a history of smoking (40-pack-year) and a high BMI. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity, altered perception of colors and shades, and photopsia (flashing lights). The risk of developing AMD is higher in individuals who are older and have a history of smoking.

      As a natural part of the aging process, presbyopia can cause difficulty with near vision. Smoking increases the likelihood of developing cataracts, which can result in poor visual acuity and reduced contrast sensitivity. However, symptoms such as distortion and flashing lights are not typically associated with cataracts. Similarly, retinal detachment is unlikely given the patient’s risk factors and lack of distortion and perception issues. Since there is no mention of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s history, diabetic retinopathy is not a plausible explanation.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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  • Question 129 - A 15-year-old patient presents with a recurring headache. The patient experiences the headache...

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    • A 15-year-old patient presents with a recurring headache. The patient experiences the headache twice a week, affecting only one side of the head. The headache is throbbing, lasts for several hours, and is accompanied by nausea, photophobia, and visual disturbances. There is no association with postural changes, and the headache has remained consistent over time. During a cranial nerve examination, you instruct the patient to clench their jaw while palpating the masseter and temporalis muscles to test the trigeminal nerve (CN V). Which components of the trigeminal nerve contain motor fibers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve only.

      Explanation:

      The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) is unique in that it carries motor fibers, supplying the muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid muscles), as well as other muscles such as the tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, the anterior belly of digastric, and tensor tympani.

      Additional information on the trigeminal nerve and its sensory supply can be found below.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, it appears that they are experiencing a migraine with aura. The unilateral nature of the symptoms, frequency and duration of the attacks, as well as the presence of pain, visual disturbances, nausea, and sensitivity to light all suggest a migraine diagnosis.

      To test the motor component of the mandibular nerve, the clinician may inspect the masseter and temporalis muscles for bulk and palpate them while the patient clenches their jaw. The jaw jerk reflex may also be assessed.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

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  • Question 130 - A 32-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence. She had a normal vaginal delivery...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence. She had a normal vaginal delivery 8 years ago. Which nerve injury is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The POOdendal nerve is responsible for keeping the poo up off the floor, and damage to this nerve is commonly linked to faecal incontinence. To address this issue, sacral neuromodulation is often used as a treatment. Additionally, constipation can be caused by injury to the hypogastric autonomic nerves.

      The Pudendal Nerve and its Functions

      The pudendal nerve is a nerve that originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots and exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. It then re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen. This nerve provides innervation to the anal sphincters and external urethral sphincter, as well as cutaneous innervation to the perineum surrounding the anus and posterior vulva.

      Late onset pudendal neuropathy may occur due to traction and compression of the pudendal nerve by the foetus during late pregnancy. This condition may contribute to the development of faecal incontinence. Understanding the functions of the pudendal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions related to the perineum and surrounding areas.

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  • Question 131 - A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses. She has been experiencing double vision for a few weeks now, and notes that it is more pronounced in the evenings and absent in the mornings. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports that her diplopia improves after resting her eyes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      The main characteristic of myasthenia gravis is muscle weakness that worsens with use and improves with rest, without causing pain. This condition often affects the oculomotor nerve and is more prevalent in women. Diagnosis is typically confirmed through single fibre electromyography, which has a high level of sensitivity.

      While migraines can also cause double vision, they usually come with additional symptoms such as pain and nausea. A classic migraine may include a visual aura or sensitivity to light. Additionally, the patient’s age of 45 is older than the typical age of onset for migraines.

      Diabetic neuropathy can also lead to double vision, but it typically presents with a loss of sensation in the hands and feet. There is no indication that this patient has diabetes.

      Multiple sclerosis often first presents with vision problems affecting the optic nerve. Optic neuritis, for example, can cause pain, central scotoma, and colour vision loss.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

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  • Question 132 - A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to fever, neck stiffness, and altered Glasgow coma scale. The medical team suspects acute bacterial meningitis.

      What would be the most suitable antibiotic option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Empirical Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bacterial Meningitis

      Patients aged 16-50 years presenting with acute bacterial meningitis are most likely infected with Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae. The most appropriate empirical antibiotic choice for this age group is cefotaxime alone. However, if the patient has been outside the UK recently or has had multiple courses of antibiotics in the last 3 months, vancomycin may be added due to the increase in penicillin-resistant pneumococci worldwide.

      For infants over 3 months old up to adults of 50 years old, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic. If the patient is under 3 months or over 50 years old, amoxicillin is added to cover for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, although this is rare. Ceftriaxone can be used instead of cefotaxime.

      Once the results of culture and sensitivity are available, the antibiotic choice can be modified for optimal treatment. Benzylpenicillin is usually first line, but it is not an option in this case. It is important to choose the appropriate antibiotic treatment to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 133 - A 33-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of persistent headaches. During a cranial...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of persistent headaches. During a cranial nerve examination, the GP observes normal direct and consensual reflexes when shining light into the left eye. However, when shining light into the right eye, direct and consensual reflexes are present, but both pupils do not constrict as much. The GP then swings a pen torch from one eye to the other and notes that both pupils constrict when swung to the left eye. However, when swung from the left eye to the right eye, both pupils appear to dilate slightly, although not back to normal. Based on these findings, where is the probable lesion located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve

      Explanation:

      A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is indicative of an optic nerve lesion or severe retinal disease. During the swinging light test, if less light is detected in the affected eye, both pupils appear to dilate. The optic nerve is responsible for this condition.

      The options ‘Lateral geniculate nucleus’, ‘Oculomotor nucleus’, and ‘Optic chiasm’ are incorrect. Lesions in the lateral geniculate nucleus are not associated with RAPD. A lesion in the oculomotor nucleus would cause ophthalmoplegia, mydriasis, and ptosis. Lesions in the optic chiasm usually result in bitemporal hemianopia and are not associated with RAPD.

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.

      The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

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  • Question 134 - Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the piriformis...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the piriformis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral hip rotators have different nerve supplies. The piriformis muscle is supplied by the ventral rami of S1 and S2, while the obturator internus and superior gemellus are supplied by the nerve to obturator internus. The inferior gemellus and quadrator femoris are supplied by the nerve to quadratus femoris.

      The piriformis muscle is an important landmark in the gluteal region and is closely related to the sciatic nerve, inferior gluteal artery and nerve, and superior gluteal artery and nerve.

      The medial femoral circumflex artery runs deep to the quadratus femoris muscle.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

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  • Question 135 - A 43-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of headaches, nausea, and vomiting that...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of headaches, nausea, and vomiting that have been worsening when lying down or leaning forwards for the past 3 months. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon undergoing an MRI, multiple suspicious lesions are found along his spinal cord. A biopsy confirms the presence of ependymal cells that have undergone malignant transformation. What is the typical role of these cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production

      Explanation:

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

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  • Question 136 - During a routine physical exam, a patient in their mid-40s was found to...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine physical exam, a patient in their mid-40s was found to have one eye drifting towards the midline when instructed to look straight. Subsequent MRI scans revealed a tumor pressing on one of the skull's foramina. Which foramen of the skull is likely affected by the tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the abducens nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms, which suggest damage to the abducens nerve that innervates the lateral rectus muscle responsible for abducting the eye. The other options are incorrect as they do not innervate the eye or are located in anatomically less appropriate positions. It is important to understand the functions of the nerves and their corresponding foramina to correctly answer this question.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 137 - A child with severe hydrocephalus is exhibiting a lack of upward gaze. What...

    Incorrect

    • A child with severe hydrocephalus is exhibiting a lack of upward gaze. What specific area of the brain is responsible for this impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior colliculi

      Explanation:

      The superior colliculi play a crucial role in upward gaze and are located on both sides of the tectal or quadrigeminal plate. Damage or compression of the superior colliculi, such as in severe hydrocephalus, can result in the inability to look up, known as sunsetting of the eyes.

      The optic chiasm serves as the connection between the anterior and posterior optic pathways. The nasal fibers of the optic nerves cross over at the chiasm, leading to monocular visual field deficits with anterior pathway lesions and binocular visual field deficits with posterior pathway lesions.

      The lateral geniculate body in the thalamus is where the optic tract connects with the optic radiations, while the inferior colliculi and medial geniculate bodies are responsible for processing auditory stimuli.

      Understanding the Diencephalon: An Overview of Brain Anatomy

      The diencephalon is a part of the brain that is located between the cerebral hemispheres and the brainstem. It is composed of several structures, including the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus. Each of these structures plays a unique role in regulating various bodily functions and behaviors.

      The thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information from the body to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting this information. The hypothalamus, on the other hand, is involved in regulating a wide range of bodily functions, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, and sleep. It also plays a role in regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.

      The epithalamus is a small structure that is involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and the production of melatonin, a hormone that helps to regulate sleep. The subthalamus is involved in regulating movement and is part of the basal ganglia, a group of structures that are involved in motor control.

      Overall, the diencephalon plays a crucial role in regulating many of the body’s essential functions and behaviors. Understanding its anatomy and function can help us better understand how the brain works and how we can maintain optimal health and well-being.

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  • Question 138 - A 27-year-old male is brought in after collapsing. According to the paramedics, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male is brought in after collapsing. According to the paramedics, he was found unconscious at a bar and no one knows what happened. Upon examination, his eyes remain closed and do not respond to commands, but he mumbles incomprehensibly when pressure is applied to his nailbed. He also opens his eyes and uses his other hand to push away the painful stimulus. His temperature is 37°C, his oxygen saturation is 95% on air, and his pulse is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 106/76 mmHg. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale is used because it is simple, has high interobserver reliability, and correlates well with outcome following severe brain injury. It consists of three components: Eye Opening, Verbal Response, and Motor Response. The score is the sum of the scores as well as the individual elements. For example, a score of 10 might be expressed as GCS10 = E3V4M3.

      Best eye response:
      1- No eye opening
      2- Eye opening to pain
      3- Eye opening to sound
      4- Eyes open spontaneously

      Best verbal response:
      1- No verbal response
      2- Incomprehensible sounds
      3- Inappropriate words
      4- Confused
      5- Orientated

      Best motor response:
      1- No motor response.
      2- Abnormal extension to pain
      3- Abnormal flexion to pain
      4- Withdrawal from pain
      5- Localizing pain
      6- Obeys commands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 139 - Sarah, a 65-year-old woman, undergoes a routine MRI scan of her head due...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 65-year-old woman, undergoes a routine MRI scan of her head due to persistent headaches. The scan reveals a small lesion situated on the right side of the cerebellum. Although Sarah does not exhibit any neurological symptoms at present, she is worried about the potential development of symptoms if the lesion is left untreated.

      What part of the body is most likely to experience symptoms in Sarah's situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left side of his body

      Explanation:

      If Mark has a unilateral cerebellar lesion, he is likely to experience symptoms on the same side of his body as the lesion, which would be the left side in this case. The signs associated with cerebellar lesions include dysdiadochokinesia & dysmetria, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, slurred speech, and hypotonia, and they would be more pronounced on the affected side of the body. As the lesion grows and affects both hemispheres, both sides of the body may become affected, but initially, left-sided symptoms are more likely. It is unlikely that Mark would develop right-sided symptoms, as this would be contralateral to the lesion. The location of the lesion within each hemisphere determines whether the upper or lower parts of the body are more affected.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxia telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 140 - A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. According to his wife, he fell in the garden earlier today and hit his head on a bench. During the examination, you notice that his left eye is fixed in a down and out position. After performing a CT scan, you discover that he has an extradural hematoma on the left side. These types of hematomas are often caused by the middle meningeal artery rupturing. Which foramina does this artery use to enter the cranium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the foramen spinosum, which is a small opening in the cranial cavity that allows the meningeal artery to pass through.

      The foramen lacerum is covered with cartilage during life and is sometimes described as the passage for the nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal. However, it is more accurate to say that they pass into the cartilage that blocks the foramen before entering the pterygoid canal, which is located in the anterior wall of the foramen.

      The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped opening that allows the mandibular nerve to pass through.

      The foramen magnum is the largest of the foramen and is located in the posterior of the cranial cavity. It allows the brainstem and associated structures to pass through.

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 141 - Sarah is a 23-year-old female who is brought to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 23-year-old female who is brought to the emergency department after being stabbed multiple times in the back with a knife. After conducting a thorough neurological examination, you observe a loss of fine touch and vibration sensation on the right side, as well as a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side. Which tract has been affected to cause the loss of fine touch and vibration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal columns

      Explanation:

      The sensory ascending pathways are comprised of the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus, which together form the dorsal columns. When the back is stabbed, Brown-Sequard syndrome may occur, leading to the following symptoms:

      1. Spastic paresis on the same side as the injury, below the lesion
      2. Loss of proprioception and vibration sensation on the same side as the injury
      3. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side of the injury.

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 142 - A mother brings her 3-day-old baby for a physical examination. She experienced complications...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-day-old baby for a physical examination. She experienced complications during delivery as her son's right shoulder was stuck behind her pubic bone, causing a delay in the birth of his body. Upon examination, you observe that his right arm is hanging by his side, rotated medially, and his forearm is extended and pronated. What nerve roots are likely to be affected based on this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5-C6

      Explanation:

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis can occur due to damage to the C5,6 roots, which is likely the case for this baby who experienced shoulder dystocia during delivery.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the brachial plexus’ medial cord (C8, T1). If damaged at the wrist, it can result in claw hand, where the 4th and 5th digits experience hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints.

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the brachial plexus’ posterior cord (C5-T1). Damage to this nerve can cause wrist drop.

      T1 damage can lead to Klumpke paralysis, which causes the forearm to remain supinated with extended wrists. The fingers are unable to abduct or adduct, and they are flexed at the interphalangeal joints.

      The median nerve is formed by the lateral and medial roots of the brachial plexus’ lateral (C5-7) and medial (C8, T1) cords. If damaged at the wrist, it can cause carpal tunnel syndrome, which results in paralysis and atrophy of the thenar eminence muscles and opponens pollicis. Additionally, there is sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 143 - Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was prescribed erythromycin for her severe acne, but after three days, she had to stop taking it due to severe nausea that made her unable to function.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Floor of the 4th ventricle

      Explanation:

      The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.

      Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 144 - A 48-year-old woman visits the neurology clinic for a follow-up on her long-standing...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman visits the neurology clinic for a follow-up on her long-standing generalized epilepsy. She has been experiencing seizures since childhood and has tried various medications to manage the condition. Among these medications, she believes that carbamazepine has been the most effective.

      What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate and carbamazepine are both inhibitors of sodium channels, which leads to the suppression of excitation by preventing repetitive and sustained firing of an action potential. Additionally, sodium valproate increases levels of GABA in the brain.

      Tiagabine, on the other hand, blocks the cellular uptake of GABA by inhibiting the GABA transporter, making it a GABA reuptake inhibitor.

      Ethosuximide blocks T-type calcium channels and is primarily used to treat absence seizures, while benzodiazepines elongate the opening time of GABAA receptors. Barbiturates, on the other hand, act as agonists of GABAA receptors and potentiate the effect of GABA.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 145 - A 32-year-old man is assaulted and stabbed in the upper abdomen. Upon arrival...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is assaulted and stabbed in the upper abdomen. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he reports experiencing pain on the left side of his abdomen and has reduced breath sounds on the same side. Imaging studies reveal a diaphragmatic rupture. What is the level at which the inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm’s opening for the inferior vena cava is situated at T8 level, while the opening for the oesophagus is at T10 level.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 146 - A 23-year-old man is involved in a physical altercation and suffers a stab...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is involved in a physical altercation and suffers a stab wound in his upper forearm. Upon examination, a small yet deep laceration is observed. There is an evident loss of pincer movement in the thumb and index finger, with minimal sensation loss. Which nerve is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve gives rise to the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a motor branch located below the elbow. If this nerve is injured, it typically results in the following symptoms: pain in the forearm, inability to perform pincer movements with the thumb and index finger (as it controls the long flexor muscles of the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus of the index and middle finger), and minimal loss of sensation due to the absence of a cutaneous branch.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 147 - A patient arrives at the Emergency Department after being involved in a car...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives at the Emergency Department after being involved in a car crash where her leg was trapped and compressed for a prolonged period. She has a nerve injury that displays axonal damage while preserving the myelin sheath. However, after 48 hours, there is additional axonal degeneration distal to the injury, and tissue macrophages begin to phagocytose the myelin sheath. What is the most appropriate term to describe this type of nerve injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonotmesis

      Explanation:

      Crush injuries to nerves typically result in axonotmesis, which involves axonal damage but preservation of the myelin sheath. While recovery is possible, it tends to be slow.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 148 - A 54-year-old factory worker gets his arm caught in a metal grinder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old factory worker gets his arm caught in a metal grinder and is rushed to the ER. Upon examination, he displays an inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints and abduct his shoulder. Additionally, he experiences weakness in his elbow and wrist. What specific injury has occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cord of brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Lesion of the posterior cord results in the impairment of the axillary and radial nerve, which are responsible for innervating various muscles such as the deltoid, triceps, brachioradialis, wrist extensors, finger extensors, subscapularis, teres minor, and latissimus dorsi.

      Brachial Plexus Cords and their Origins

      The brachial plexus cords are categorized based on their position in relation to the axillary artery. These cords pass over the first rib near the lung’s dome and under the clavicle, just behind the subclavian artery. The lateral cord is formed by the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks and gives rise to the lateral pectoral nerve, which originates from C5, C6, and C7. The medial cord is formed by the anterior division of the lower trunk and gives rise to the medial pectoral nerve, the medial brachial cutaneous nerve, and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which originate from C8, T1, and C8, T1, respectively. The posterior cord is formed by the posterior divisions of the three trunks (C5-T1) and gives rise to the upper and lower subscapular nerves, the thoracodorsal nerve to the latissimus dorsi (also known as the middle subscapular nerve), and the axillary and radial nerves.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of blurry vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of blurry vision that has been ongoing for the past two months. The blurriness initially started in his right eye but has now spread to his left eye as well. He denies experiencing any pain or discharge from his eyes but admits to occasionally seeing specks and flashes in his vision.

      During the physical examination, the doctor notices needle injection scars on the patient's forearm. After some reluctance, the patient admits to having a history of heroin use. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes white lesions surrounded by areas of hemorrhagic necrotic areas in the patient's retina.

      Which organism is most likely responsible for causing this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chorioretinitis and Its Causes

      Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the two layers of tissue at the back of the eye. This condition is characterized by inflammation and damage to these tissues, which can lead to vision loss and other complications. There are several possible causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can affect various parts of the body, including the eyes, and can lead to chorioretinitis if left untreated. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and can also cause chorioretinitis.

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis as well as other eye problems such as uveitis and optic neuritis. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs and other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as well as other eye problems such as iritis and scleritis.

      In summary, chorioretinitis is a serious eye condition that can lead to vision loss and other complications. It can be caused by various infections and inflammatory conditions, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for preventing further damage and preserving vision.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 150 - A 76-year-old man is scheduled for an internal carotid artery endarterectomy. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is scheduled for an internal carotid artery endarterectomy. During the dissection, which nervous structure is most vulnerable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The carotid endarterectomy procedure poses a risk to several nerves, including the hypoglossal nerve, greater auricular nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve. The dissection of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, ligation of the common facial vein, and exposure of the common and internal carotid arteries can all potentially damage these nerves. However, the sympathetic chain located posteriorly is less susceptible to injury during this operation.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 151 - Which nerve provides sensation to the skin on the palm side of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides sensation to the skin on the palm side of the thumb?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      This region receives cutaneous sensation from the median nerve.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 152 - A patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This condition leads...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This condition leads to the selective degeneration of motor neurons, leading to progressive muscle weakness and spasticity.

      Understanding the development of motor neurons (MN) is crucial in the hope of using embryonic stem cells to cure ALS. What is true about the process of MN development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurons develop from the basal plates

      Explanation:

      The development of sensory and motor neurons is determined by the alar and basal plates, respectively.

      Transcription factor expression in motor neurons is regulated by SHH signalling, which plays a crucial role in their development.

      Hox genes are essential for the proper positioning of motor neurons along the cranio-caudal axis.

      Motor neurons originate from the basal plates.

      Interestingly, retinoic acid appears to facilitate the differentiation of motor neurons.

      It is not possible for motor neurons to develop during week 4 of development, as the neural tube is still in the process of closing.

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 153 - A 32-year-old man suffers an injury from farm machinery resulting in a laceration...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man suffers an injury from farm machinery resulting in a laceration at the superolateral aspect of the popliteal fossa and a laceration of the medial aspect of the biceps femoris. What is the most vulnerable underlying structure to injury in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The greatest risk of injury lies with the common peroneal nerve, which is located beneath the medial aspect of the biceps femoris. Although not mentioned, the tibial nerve may also be affected by this type of injury. The sural nerve branches off at a lower point.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

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  • Question 154 - A 99-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of recent facial weakness and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 99-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of recent facial weakness and slurred speech. The GP suspects a stroke and conducts a thorough neurological evaluation. During the cranial nerve examination, the GP observes that the glossopharyngeal nerve is unaffected. What are the roles and responsibilities of this nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor, sensory and autonomic

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen serves as the pathway for the glossopharyngeal nerve. This nerve has autonomic functions for the parotid gland, motor functions for the stylopharyngeus muscle, and sensory functions for the posterior third of the tongue, palatine tonsils, oropharynx, middle ear mucosa, pharyngeal tympanic tube, and carotid bodies.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 155 - Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of type 1 diabetes and multiple sclerosis. Over the past 3 days, she has been experiencing double vision, particularly when looking to the right.

      Sarah denies any associated double vision when looking vertically. She has not noticed any difficulty in moving her eyelids, increased sensitivity to light, or redness in her eye.

      During examination, both eyelids display normal strength. With the left eye closed, the right eye displays a full range of movement. However, with the right eye closed, the left eye fails to adduct when looking towards the right. Nystagmus on the right eye is noted when the patient is asked to look to the right with both eyes. On convergence, both eyes can adduct towards the midline. The pupillary exam is normal with both pupils reacting appropriately to light.

      What is the underlying pathology responsible for Sarah's diplopia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesion on the left paramedian area of the midbrain and pons

      Explanation:

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and is responsible for conjugate gaze. Lesions in this area can cause internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which affects adduction but not convergence. A 3rd nerve palsy affects multiple muscles and can involve the pupil, while abducens nerve lesions affect abduction. Lesions in the midbrain and superior pons contain the centres of vision.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

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  • Question 156 - A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is normal, what percentage of calcium filtered by the glomerulus will be reabsorbed by the renal tubules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 157 - The blood-brain barrier is not easily penetrated by which of the following substances?...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is not easily penetrated by which of the following substances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen ions

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier restricts the passage of highly dissociated compounds.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

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  • Question 158 - A 26-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department following a blow to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department following a blow to her left leg while playing soccer.

      During the examination, her reflexes and tone appear normal, but she is experiencing difficulty in inverting her foot and has numbness on the plantar surface of her foot.

      Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the superficial peroneal nerve is injured, it can lead to a loss of foot eversion and a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot. This nerve controls the fibularis longus and brevis muscles, which are responsible for evertion of the foot. It also provides sensory input to the skin of the anterolateral leg and dorsum of the foot, except for the area between the first and second toes.

      Anatomy of the Superficial Peroneal Nerve

      The superficial peroneal nerve is responsible for supplying the lateral compartment of the leg, specifically the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles which aid in eversion and plantar flexion. It also provides sensation over the dorsum of the foot, excluding the first web space which is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

      The nerve passes between the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles along the proximal one-third of the fibula. Approximately 10-12 cm above the tip of the lateral malleolus, the nerve pierces the fascia. It then bifurcates into intermediate and medial dorsal cutaneous nerves about 6-7 cm distal to the fibula.

      Understanding the anatomy of the superficial peroneal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the lateral compartment of the leg and dorsum of the foot. Injuries or compression of the nerve can result in weakness or numbness in the affected areas.

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  • Question 159 - Samantha, a 65-year-old woman, was admitted to the hospital following a fall at...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 65-year-old woman, was admitted to the hospital following a fall at home. After various tests, Samantha was diagnosed with a stroke and commenced on the appropriate medical treatment. Although some of her symptoms have improved, Samantha is experiencing difficulty with communication. She can speak, but her words do not make sense, and she cannot comprehend when others try to communicate with her. The specialist suspects Wernicke's aphasia.

      Which area of the brain would be affected to cause this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 160 - A 10-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a seizure. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a seizure. According to his mother, the twitching started in his right hand while he was having breakfast, then spread to his arm and face, and eventually affected his entire body. The seizure lasted for a few minutes, and afterward, he felt groggy and had no recollection of what happened.

      Which part of the boy's brain was impacted by the seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The correct location for a seizure with progressive clonic movements travelling from a distal site (fingers) proximally, known as a Jacksonian march, is the frontal lobe. Seizures in the occipital lobe present with visual disturbances, while seizures in the parietal lobe result in sensory changes and seizures in the temporal lobe present with hallucinations and automatisms. Absence seizures are associated with the thalamus and are characterized by brief losses of consciousness without postictal fatigue or grogginess.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

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  • Question 161 - A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her husband noticed a facial droop 1 hour ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia.

      Upon examination, there is a facial droop on the right side that spares the forehead. There is also a right-sided hemiparesis and loss of fine-touch sensation, with the right arm being more affected than the right leg. The examination of the visual fields reveals right homonymous hemianopia. Although the patient is conscious, she is unable to speak in full sentences.

      Which artery is likely to be occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle cerebral artery, which is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia. This type of stroke is also known as a ‘total anterior circulation stroke’ and is characterized by at least three of the following criteria: higher dysfunction, homonymous hemianopia, and motor and sensory deficits.

      The anterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and altered sensation, with the lower limb being more affected than the upper limb.

      The basilar artery is also not the correct answer, as it is associated with locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those used for vertical eye movements and blinking.

      The posterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer either, as it is associated with contralateral homonymous hemianopia that spares the macula and visual agnosia.

      Finally, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which is characterized by ipsilateral facial pain and contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, as well as vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, and dysphagia.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 162 - An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He reports a recent decline in his vision, including distortion of lines and loss of central vision, which was particularly noticeable tonight.

      During the eye examination, you observe the presence of drusen and new vessel formation around the macula.

      As part of his discharge plan, you schedule a follow-up appointment with an ophthalmologist, suspecting that monoclonal antibody treatment targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may be necessary.

      What type of monoclonal antibody functions through this mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bevacizumab

      Explanation:

      Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It is used to slow down the progression of wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), which is the condition described in this case. Treatment with bevacizumab should begin within the first two months of diagnosis of wet ARMD.

      Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets platelet IIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent blood clots in unstable angina or after coronary artery stenting.

      Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is primarily used to treat inflammatory arthritis.

      Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the IgE receptor, reducing the IgE response. It is used to treat severe allergic asthma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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  • Question 163 - An 80-year-old woman comes in with sudden blurring of vision in one eye....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes in with sudden blurring of vision in one eye. She has a family history of age-related macular degeneration and a smoking history of 50 pack-years. The affected eye has a vision of 20/80, and metamorphopsia is detected during Amsler grid testing. Fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches. As a result, she is given regular injections of bevacizumab.

      What is the target of this monoclonal antibody, and what does it inhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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  • Question 164 - A 31-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home,...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home, witnessed by her partner while walking in the garden. She has a medical history of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. On examination, she is unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 3. A non-contrast CT head shows no pathology, but an MRI brain reveals a basilar artery dissection. What is the probable outcome of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Locked-in syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by the paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those controlling eye movements, while cognitive function remains preserved. Lesions in the basilar artery can cause quadriplegia and bulbar palsies as it supplies the pons, which transmits the corticospinal tracts.

      While brainstem lesions can cause Horner’s syndrome, it is typically caused by involvement of the hypothalamus, which is supplied by the circle of Willis. Therefore, Horner’s syndrome is not typically caused by basilar artery lesions.

      Medial medullary syndrome can be caused by lesions of the anterior spinal artery and is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, altered sensorium, and deviation of the tongue toward the affected side.

      Wallenberg syndrome can be caused by lesions of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) and presents with dysphagia, ataxia, vertigo, and contralateral deficits in temperature and pain sensation.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 165 - A 25-year-old man is having an inguinal hernia repair done with local anaesthesia....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is having an inguinal hernia repair done with local anaesthesia. During the surgery, the surgeon comes across a bleeding site and uses diathermy to manage it. After a minute or so, the patient reports feeling a burning pain from the heat at the surgical site. Which type of nerve fibers are responsible for transmitting this signal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C fibres

      Explanation:

      Mechanothermal stimuli are transmitted slowly through C fibres, while A α fibres transmit motor proprioception information, A β fibres transmit touch and pressure information, and B fibres are responsible for autonomic functions.

      Neurons and Synaptic Signalling

      Neurons are the building blocks of the nervous system and are made up of dendrites, a cell body, and axons. They can be classified by their anatomical structure, axon width, and function. Neurons communicate with each other at synapses, which consist of a presynaptic membrane, synaptic gap, and postsynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitters are small chemical messengers that diffuse across the synaptic gap and activate receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Different neurotransmitters have different effects, with some causing excitation and others causing inhibition. The deactivation of neurotransmitters varies, with some being degraded by enzymes and others being reuptaken by cells. Understanding the mechanisms of neuronal communication is crucial for understanding the functioning of the nervous system.

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  • Question 166 - A 43-year-old woman visits the GP with her spouse. She reports experiencing dryness...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman visits the GP with her spouse. She reports experiencing dryness in her eyes for the past four months. You suspect that the gland responsible for tear production may be impaired.

      What is the venous drainage of this gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior ophthalmic vein

      Explanation:

      The superior ophthalmic vein is where the lacrimal gland drains its venous blood. The lacrimal gland is a gland that produces tears in response to emotional events or conjunctival irritation. The submandibular gland drains its venous blood into the anterior facial vein, which is located deep to the marginal mandibular nerve. The basilic vein is one of the main pathways for venous drainage in the arm and hand, connecting to the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. The retromandibular vein is formed by the union of the maxillary vein and the superficial temporal vein, and it is the venous drainage of the parotid gland. The inferior mesenteric vein, along with the superior mesenteric vein, is responsible for draining the colon.

      The Lacrimation Reflex

      The lacrimation reflex is a response to conjunctival irritation or emotional events. When the conjunctiva is irritated, it sends signals via the ophthalmic nerve to the superior salivary center. From there, efferent signals pass via the greater petrosal nerve (parasympathetic preganglionic fibers) and the deep petrosal nerve (postganglionic sympathetic fibers) to the lacrimal apparatus. The parasympathetic fibers relay in the pterygopalatine ganglion, while the sympathetic fibers do not synapse.

      This reflex is important for maintaining the health of the eye by keeping it moist and protecting it from foreign particles. It is also responsible for the tears that are shed during emotional events, such as crying. The lacrimal gland, which produces tears, is innervated by the secretomotor parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion. The nasolacrimal duct, which carries tears from the eye to the nose, opens anteriorly in the inferior meatus of the nose. Overall, the lacrimal system plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.

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  • Question 167 - A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with his wife. Upon speaking...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with his wife. Upon speaking with him, you observe that he has non-fluent haltering speech. His wife reports that he has been experiencing alterations in his sense of smell.

      Which region of the brain is the most probable site of damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Anosmia, a partial or complete loss of sense of smell, may be caused by lesions in the frontal lobe. Additionally, these lesions can result in Broca’s aphasia, which causes non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopia, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause sensory inattention. Lesions in the occipital lobe can affect vision, and lesions in the cerebellum can cause intention tremor, ataxia, and dysdiadochokinesia.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 168 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sudden difficulty in speech,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sudden difficulty in speech, but is otherwise asymptomatic. Upon taking his medical history, it is noted that he is having trouble generating fluent speech, although the meaning of his speech is preserved and appropriate to the questions he is being asked. His Glasgow coma score is 15/15 and cranial nerves examination is unremarkable. Additionally, he has power 5/5 in all four limbs, and his tone, sensation, coordination, and reflexes are normal. A CT head scan reveals an ischaemic stroke in the left lateral aspect of the frontal lobe. Which vessel occlusion is responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior left middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area is located in the left inferior frontal gyrus and is supplied by the superior division of the left middle cerebral artery. If this artery becomes occluded, it can result in an acute onset of expressive aphasia, which is the type of aphasia that this man is experiencing.

      It is important to note that Wernicke’s area is supplied by the inferior left middle cerebral artery, and occlusion of this branch would result in receptive aphasia instead of expressive aphasia.

      The external carotid arteries supply blood to the face and neck, not the brain.

      Occlusion of an internal carotid artery typically causes amaurosis fugax and does not supply blood to Broca’s area, so it would not result in expressive aphasia.

      The anterior cerebral arteries supply the antero-medial areas of each hemisphere of the brain, but they do not have a temporal branch and do not supply Broca’s area, which is located on the temporal aspect of the frontal lobe.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 169 - A 30-year-old woman visits the doctor's office complaining of nausea and vomiting. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits the doctor's office complaining of nausea and vomiting. Upon taking a pregnancy test, it is discovered that she is indeed pregnant. Can you identify the location of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Area postrema (medulla)

      Explanation:

      The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.

      Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.

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  • Question 170 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department following a bicycle accident that...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department following a bicycle accident that injured his right knee. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot dorsiflex or evert his right ankle or extend his toes. However, ankle inversion is intact, and there is decreased sensation over the dorsum of his right foot. The x-ray reveals a fracture of the left fibular neck. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the common peroneal nerve is damaged, it can lead to weakness in foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion. This nerve is commonly injured in the lower limb, causing foot drop and pain or tingling sensations in the lateral leg and dorsum of the foot.

      Injuries to the femoral nerve can occur with pelvic fractures and result in difficulty flexing the thigh and extending the leg.

      The inferior gluteal nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus maximus muscle, which is essential for extending and externally rotating the thigh at the hip.

      Damage to the obturator nerve can occur during pelvic or abdominal surgery and can cause a decrease in medial thigh sensation and adduction.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

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  • Question 171 - A 50-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of difficulty in making...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of difficulty in making facial expressions such as smiling and frowning. Due to a family history of brain tumours, the doctor orders an MRI scan.

      In case a tumour is detected, which foramen of the skull is likely to be the site of the tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, along with the vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for facial expressions, which is consistent with the patient’s reported difficulties with smiling and frowning.

      The other options are incorrect because they do not match the patient’s symptoms. The mandibular nerve passes through the foramen ovale and is responsible for sensations around the jaw, but the patient does not report any problems with eating. The maxillary nerve passes through the foramen rotundum and provides sensation to the middle of the face, but the patient does not have any sensory deficits. The hypoglossal nerve passes through the hypoglossal canal and is responsible for tongue movement, but the patient does not report any difficulties with this. The glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves pass through the jugular foramen and are responsible for various motor and sensory functions, but none of them innervate the facial muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 172 - A 78-year-old man visits your clinic with a chief complaint of shoulder weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits your clinic with a chief complaint of shoulder weakness. He reports that his left shoulder has been weak for the past 5 months and the weakness has been gradually worsening. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the trapezius muscle. When you ask him to shrug his shoulders, you notice weakness on his left side. You suspect that the patient's presentation is caused by a lesion affecting the accessory nerve. Which other muscle is innervated by the accessory nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is the correct answer. It originates from two points – the upper part of the sternum’s manubrium and the medial clavicle. It runs diagonally across the neck and attaches to the mastoid process of the temporal bone and the lateral area of the superior nuchal line. The accessory nerve and primary rami of C2-3 provide innervation to this muscle.

      Both the deltoid and teres minor muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve.

      The pectoralis major muscle is innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves, which are both branches of the brachial plexus.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

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  • Question 173 - A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes visits his ophthalmologist for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes visits his ophthalmologist for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening. During the examination, the physician observes venous beading. What other clinical manifestation would be present due to the same underlying pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotton wool spots

      Explanation:

      Cotton wool spots found in diabetic retinopathy are indicative of retinal infarction resulting from ischemic disruption. Venous beading, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular constriction and dilation of venules in the retina due to retinal ischemia. It is important to note that cupping of the optic disc is not associated with diabetic retinopathy but rather with open-angle glaucoma. Similarly, lipid exudates are not a feature of diabetic retinopathy as they occur at the border between thickened and non-thickened retina, resulting in extravasated lipoprotein.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.

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  • Question 174 - A young woman comes in with a gunshot wound and exhibits spastic weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman comes in with a gunshot wound and exhibits spastic weakness on the left side of her body. She also has lost proprioception and vibration on the same side, while experiencing a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side. The sensory deficits begin at the level of the umbilicus. Where is the lesion located and what is its nature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided Brown-Sequard syndrome at T10

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described indicate a T10 lesion on the left side, which is known as Brown-Sequard syndrome. This condition causes spastic paralysis on the same side as the lesion, as well as a loss of proprioception and vibration sensation. On the opposite side of the lesion, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation. It is important to note that transverse myelitis is not the cause of these symptoms, as it presents differently.

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

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  • Question 175 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic accompanied by his wife, who expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic accompanied by his wife, who expresses her worry about his sleep behavior. She reports that he seems to be experiencing vivid dreams and acting them out, causing him to unintentionally harm her on a few occasions.

      During which stage of sleep does this occurrence typically happen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: REM

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

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  • Question 176 - Which one of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury

      Explanation:

      Neuropraxia typically results in full recovery within 6-8 weeks after nerve injury, and Wallerian degeneration is not a common occurrence. Additionally, autonomic function is typically maintained.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

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  • Question 177 - A 65-year-old woman presents to ED with left-sided face weakness.

    On examination, her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to ED with left-sided face weakness.

      On examination, her left eyebrow is drooped and so is the left corner of her mouth. There is reduced movement on the left side of her face; she cannot wrinkle her brow; she cannot completely close her left eye and when you ask her to smile it is asymmetrical. You notice her speech is slightly slurred.

      What is the crucial finding that distinguishes this patient's probable diagnosis from a stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot wrinkle her brow

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing Bell’s palsy, which is a condition affecting the lower motor neurons. This can sometimes be mistaken for a stroke, which affects the upper motor neurons. However, unlike a stroke, Bell’s palsy affects the entire side of the face, including the inability to wrinkle the brow.

      In cases of facial paralysis, forehead sparing occurs when the patient is still able to wrinkle their brow on the same side as the affected area. This is due to some crossover of upper motor neuron supply to the forehead, but not to the lower face. However, in the case of a lower motor neuron lesion, there is no compensation from the opposite side, resulting in the inability to wrinkle the brow on the affected side and no forehead sparing.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

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  • Question 178 - A 27-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of right eye discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of right eye discomfort and a feeling of having a foreign object in it. He mentions that the symptoms have been getting worse for the past 3 days after he went to a concert. He wears contact lenses and did not remove them for several days during the event, opting to wash his eyes with water instead.

      What could be the probable reason for his visit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba infection

      Explanation:

      Wearing contact lenses increases the risk of acanthamoeba infection, which can cause keratitis. Symptoms include severe pain, haloes around lights, and blurred vision. Acute angle closure glaucoma may also cause eye pain, but the history of contact lens use makes acanthamoeba infection more likely. Temporal arteritis, chlamydial conjunctivitis, and thyroid eye disease have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of eye pain in this case.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

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  • Question 179 - A 25-year-old woman with bothersome axillary hyperhidrosis is scheduled for a thoracoscopic sympathectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with bothersome axillary hyperhidrosis is scheduled for a thoracoscopic sympathectomy to manage the condition. What anatomical structure must be severed to reach the sympathetic trunk during the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The parietal pleura is located anterior to the sympathetic chain. When performing a thoracoscopic sympathetomy, it is necessary to cut through this structure. The intercostal vessels are situated at the back and should be avoided as much as possible to prevent excessive bleeding. Deliberately cutting them will not enhance surgical access.

      Anatomy of the Sympathetic Nervous System

      The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response in the body. The preganglionic efferent neurons of this system are located in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoraco-lumbar regions. These neurons leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2 and pass to the sympathetic chain. The sympathetic chain lies on the vertebral column and runs from the base of the skull to the coccyx. It is connected to every spinal nerve through lateral branches, which then pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.

      The sympathetic ganglia are also an important part of this system. The superior cervical ganglion lies anterior to C2 and C3, while the middle cervical ganglion (if present) is located at C6. The stellate ganglion is found anterior to the transverse process of C7 and lies posterior to the subclavian artery, vertebral artery, and cervical pleura. The thoracic ganglia are segmentally arranged, and there are usually four lumbar ganglia.

      Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves can result in an ipsilateral Horners syndrome. For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. However, removal of T1 is not performed as it can cause a Horners syndrome. In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, a lumbar sympathetomy may be performed either radiologically or surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted, but if L1 is removed, ejaculation may be compromised, and little additional benefit is conferred as the preganglionic fibres do not arise below L2.

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  • Question 180 - A senior citizen arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, constipation,...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and confusion. The blood tests reveal hypercalcemia, and the junior doctor suggests that a potential cause of this is an elevated level of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the bloodstream. Can you provide the most accurate explanation of the functions of PTH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases bone resorption, increases renal reabsorption of calcium, increases synthesis of active vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The primary function of PTH is to elevate calcium levels and reduce phosphate levels. It exerts its influence on the bone and kidneys directly, while also indirectly affecting the intestine through vitamin D. PTH promotes bone resorption, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and reduces phosphate reabsorption. Additionally, it stimulates the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, which in turn boosts calcium absorption in the intestine.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 181 - A patient presents at the clinic after experiencing head trauma. The physician conducts...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents at the clinic after experiencing head trauma. The physician conducts a neurological assessment to evaluate for nerve damage. During the examination, the doctor observes a lack of pupil constriction when shining a flashlight into the patient's eyes.

      Which cranial nerve is accountable for this parasympathetic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers are the vagus nerve (X), glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), facial nerve (VII), and oculomotor nerve (III). The oculomotor nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic response of pupil constriction through innervating the iris sphincter muscle. The abducens nerve (VI) does not provide a parasympathetic response and only innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye for abduction. The ophthalmic nerve is a branch of the trigeminal nerve and does not provide any autonomic innervation. The optic nerve is responsible for vision and does not provide any autonomic or parasympathetic innervation.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 182 - A 45-year-old patient with Down syndrome is exhibiting personality and behavioral changes, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient with Down syndrome is exhibiting personality and behavioral changes, including irritability, uncooperativeness, and a decline in memory and concentration. After diagnosis, it is determined that he has early onset Alzheimer's disease. Which gene is most commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein

      Explanation:

      Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein gene (APP), presenilin 1 gene (PSEN1) or presenilin 2 gene (PSEN2) are responsible for early onset familial Alzheimer’s disease. The gene for amyloid precursor protein is situated on chromosome 21, which is also linked to Down’s syndrome.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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  • Question 183 - A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports noticing changes in his speech over the past six months. Specifically, she describes it as loud and jerky with pauses between syllables. However, he is still able to comprehend everything he hears. During your examination, you observe the same speech pattern but find no weakness or sensory changes in his limbs. Based on these findings, which area of the brain is most likely affected by a lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Scanning dysarthria can be caused by cerebellar disease, which can result in jerky, loud speech with pauses between words and syllables. Other symptoms may include dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus, and an intention tremor.

      Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia can be caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which can lead to nonsensical sentences with word substitution and neologisms. It can also cause comprehension impairment, which is not present in this patient.

      Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra, which can result in monotonous speech. Other symptoms may include bradykinesia, rigidity, and a resting tremor, which are not observed in this patient.

      A middle cerebral artery stroke can cause aphasia, contralateral hemiparesis, and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower. However, this patient does not exhibit altered sensation on examination.

      A lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s area, can cause poor speech repetition, but this is not evident in this patient.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 184 - A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss in his right ear. After conducting a Webber's and Rinne's test, the following results were obtained:

      - Webber's test: lateralizes to the left ear
      - Rinne's test (left ear): Air > Bone
      - Rinne's test (right ear): Air > Bone

      What is the probable cause of his hearing loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear is indicative of an acoustic neuroma, which is the only option listed as a cause for this type of hearing loss. Other options such as otitis media with effusion and otitis externa cause conductive hearing loss, while ossicular fracture is a rare cause of conductive hearing loss. Understanding the Weber and Rinne tests is important in interpreting these results accurately.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 185 - Which one of the following structures is not at the level of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is not at the level of the infrapyloric plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardioesophageal junction

      Explanation:

      The cardioesophageal junction is located at the level of T11, which is a frequently tested anatomical knowledge. The oesophagus spans from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage at C6 to the cardioesophageal junction at T11. It is important to note that in newborns, the oesophagus extends from C4 or C5 to T9.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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  • Question 186 - A 90-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his family due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his family due to a decline in his memory over the past 6 months, accompanied by occasional confusion. His personality and behavior remain unchanged. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. Following further investigations, he was diagnosed with dementia. What is the probable molecular pathology underlying his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is the most prevalent cause of dementia, followed by vascular dementia. It is characterized by the accumulation of type A-Beta-amyloid protein, leading to cortical plaques, and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein, resulting in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. Parkinson’s disease is indicated by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, while Lewy body dementia is suggested by the presence of Lewy bodies. Vascular dementia is associated with atherosclerosis of cerebral arteries.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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  • Question 187 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of multiple minor...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of multiple minor falls and confusion. She has been experiencing daily headaches with nausea for the past 3 years, which have worsened at night and occasionally wake her up. Imaging reveals an intracranial mass located on the left hemisphere's convexity, and a biopsy of the mass shows a whorled pattern of calcified cellular growth that forms syncytial nests and appears as round, eosinophilic laminar structure.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are the second most frequent type of primary brain tumour, often found in the convexities of cerebral hemispheres and parasagittal regions. The biopsy findings of this patient suggest the presence of psammoma bodies, which are mineral deposits formed by calcification of spindle cells in concentric whorls within the tumour.

      Ependymomas usually present as paraventricular tumours and exhibit perivascular rosettes under light microscopy.

      Glioblastomas are the most common primary malignant brain tumour in adults. Light microscopy reveals hypercellular areas of atypical astrocytes surrounding regions of necrosis.

      Medulloblastomas are malignant cerebellar tumours that typically occur in children and are characterized by small blue cells that may encircle neutrophils.

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

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  • Question 188 - A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of visual disturbance. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and is currently taking atorvastatin. Additionally, he smokes 15 cigarettes daily, drinks half a bottle of wine each night, and works as a bond-trader.

      Upon examination of his eyes, a field defect is observed in the right upper quadrant of both his right and left eye. Other than that, the examination is unremarkable.

      What is the anatomical location of the lesion that is affecting his vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left inferior optic radiation

      Explanation:

      A right superior homonymous quadrantanopia in the patient is caused by a lesion in the left inferior optic radiation located in the temporal lobe. The sudden onset indicates a possible stroke or vascular event. A superior homonymous quadrantanopia occurs when the contralateral inferior optic radiation is affected.

      A lesion in the left superior optic radiation would result in a right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is not the case here. Similarly, a lesion in the left optic tract would cause contralateral hemianopia, which is also not the diagnosis in this patient.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 189 - Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who is currently recovering in hospital following a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who is currently recovering in hospital following a stroke. Her MRI scan report says there is evidence of ischaemic damage to the superior optic radiation within the right temporal lobe.

      What type of visual impairment is Samantha likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the temporal lobe inferior optic radiations are responsible for superior homonymous quadrantanopias.

      If the left temporal lobe is damaged, the resulting visual field defect would be in the right side. Specific damage to the inferior optic radiation would cause a superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Damage to the right inferior optic radiation would lead to a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      A right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia would occur if the left superior optic radiation is damaged.

      If the left occipital lobe is damaged, a right homonymous hemianopia would result.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 190 - A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to you worried that her...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to you worried that her baby boy may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) after reading about it in a magazine. She is a nursing student who has taken a break for a year. You educate her on the likelihood of her child having DMD and the genetic mutation that causes it.

      Which gene is impacted by a deletion mutation in DMD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dystrophin gene

      Explanation:

      The cause of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a mutation in the dystrophin gene. While mutations in the myostatin gene can lead to myostatin-induced muscle hypertrophy, there is no known association with DMD. The dysferlin gene is involved in skeletal muscle repair and mutations can result in various muscular myopathies, but there is no known association with DMD. It should be noted that the myodystrophin gene is fictitious and does not exist.

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.

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  • Question 191 - Where exactly can the vomiting center be found? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where exactly can the vomiting center be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medulla oblongata

      Explanation:

      Here are the non-GI causes of vomiting, listed alphabetically:
      – Acute renal failure
      – Brain conditions that increase intracranial pressure
      – Cardiac events, particularly inferior myocardial infarction
      – Diabetic ketoacidosis
      – Ear infections that affect the inner ear (labyrinthitis)
      – Ingestion of foreign substances, such as Tylenol or theophylline
      – Glaucoma
      – Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of morning sickness in pregnancy
      – Infections such as pyelonephritis (kidney infection) or meningitis.

      Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 192 - A man in his early fifties comes to the clinic with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early fifties comes to the clinic with symptoms of progressive paralysis and difficulty in swallowing. Upon examination, it is found that he has spastic paralysis in his arms and reduced knee reflexes. The diagnosis is confirmed as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What type of cell death is responsible for the combination of upper and lower motor neuron lesions seen in ALS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor cortex neuronal cells and anterior horn cells

      Explanation:

      Upper motor lesion signs are caused by damage to neuronal cells in the motor cortex, while lower motor lesion signs are caused by damage to anterior horn cells. This is why ALS, which involves damage to both areas, presents with mixed signs. If only one of these areas were damaged, it would result in only one type of motor neuron lesion sign. Multiple sclerosis often involves multiple lesions in the brain.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it does not affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 193 - A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he develops unilateral eye pain. Upon examination, he is found to have decreased visual acuity and colour saturation on his affected eye. His doctor suspects multiple sclerosis. What features would be expected on a T2-weighted MRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple hyperintense lesions

      Explanation:

      MS is characterized by the spread of brain lesions over time and space.

      Dementia is often linked to cortical atrophy.

      If there is only one hyperintense lesion, it may indicate a haemorrhage rather than other conditions.

      A semilunar lesion on one side may indicate a subdural haemorrhage.

      Raised intracranial pressure, which can be caused by space-occupying lesions and haemorrhages, can be indicated by midline shift.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

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  • Question 194 - A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a witnessed fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a witnessed fall from standing. He is complaining of severe pain at his left hip.

      Examination of the lower limb reveals that he is unable to flex his left knee or mobilise his left ankle at all. His left knee reflex is present but he has an absent left-sided ankle jerk reflex. On the left side, sensation is lost below the knee. His right leg reveals no sensory or motor disturbance. An X-ray of both hips reveals a left-sided intracapsular neck of femur fracture.

      Based on the above information, what nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      When the sciatic nerve is damaged, the ankle and plantar reflexes become lost, but the knee jerk reflex remains intact. This type of nerve injury can cause weakness in knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee and reduced ankle reflexes. A common cause of sciatic nerve damage is a neck of femur fracture.

      It’s important to note that the common fibular nerve, which is a branch of the sciatic nerve, is located too low to be affected by a neck of femur fracture. If this nerve is injured, it will result in weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion at the ankle, as well as extension at the digits, but knee flexion will not be affected.

      In contrast, damage to the femoral nerve will cause weakness in knee extension, not flexion. This type of nerve injury will also result in weakness in hip flexion and loss of sensation in the anteromedial thigh and medial leg and foot.

      Obturator nerve damage can occur after abdominal or pelvic surgery, or in rare cases, from a posterior hip dislocation. This type of nerve injury will cause weakness in thigh adduction and sensory loss in the medial thigh.

      Finally, a lesion in the superior gluteal nerve will result in the inability to abduct the hip, which will produce a positive Trendelenburg test.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.

      Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

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  • Question 195 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral numbness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral numbness in his hands and feet, along with a feeling of muscle weakness that has been progressively worsening for the past 15 months. The man admits to avoiding hospitals and his GP, and has not reported these symptoms to anyone else. Upon examination, reduced bicep reflexes are noted bilaterally. Nerve conduction studies reveal evidence of peripheral nerve demyelination. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

      Explanation:

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a condition where the inflammation and infiltration of the endoneurium with inflammatory T cells are thought to be caused by antibodies. This results in the demyelination of peripheral nerves in a segmental manner.

      CIDP is characterized by generalized symptoms and chronicity, and nerve conduction tests can reveal demyelination of the nerves. Guillain Barré syndrome (GBS) is an incorrect answer as it is more acute and often triggered by prior infection, particularly Campylobacter gastrointestinal infection. Diabetic neuropathy is also an incorrect answer as it typically presents as a focal peripheral neuropathy with sensory impairment. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is another incorrect answer as it involves the central nervous system and can present with additional signs/symptoms such as visual impairment and muscle stiffness. MS is diagnosed using an MRI scan and checking for oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Understanding Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by antibody-mediated inflammation resulting in segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves. This condition is more common in males than females and shares similar features with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS), with motor symptoms being predominant. However, CIDP has a more insidious onset, occurring over weeks to months, and is often considered the chronic version of GBS.

      One of the distinguishing features of CIDP is the high protein content found in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment for CIDP may involve the use of steroids and immunosuppressants, which is different from GBS.

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  • Question 196 - A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on the right side of his head for the past month. The pain lasts for approximately 10 hours and is preceded by visual disturbances. He also experiences nausea without vomiting and reports taking paracetamol for relief. You decide to prescribe sumatriptan for acute attacks.

      What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin receptor agonists

      Explanation:

      Triptans, including sumatriptan, are drugs that act as agonists for serotonin receptors 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. These drugs are commonly used to manage acute migraines and cluster headaches. Based on the patient’s symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing migraines, which are characterized by unilateral headaches, pre-aura symptoms, and a specific time frame. While the exact cause of migraines is not fully understood, it is believed to involve inflammation and dilation of cerebral arteries. Triptans work by binding to serotonin receptors, causing vasoconstriction and reducing blood flow, which can alleviate migraine symptoms. Other receptors are targeted by different drugs for various purposes.

      Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.

      It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.

      Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.

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  • Question 197 - Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opponens pollicis

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 198 - You are working in the emergency department when a 78-year-old female is brought...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the emergency department when a 78-year-old female is brought in having been found on her bedroom floor in the morning by her carers. She has a recent diagnosis of dementia but her carers report her to seem much more muddled than usual. Her past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and hypertension. Her medications include ramipril, warfarin, and colecalciferol. A CT scan of her head is done which confirms the diagnosis of subdural hemorrhage.

      What is the most likely cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Subdural haemorrhage occurs when there is damage to the bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses, resulting in a collection of blood between the dural and arachnoid coverings of the brain. The most common cause of subdural haemorrhage is trauma, with risk factors including a history of trauma, vulnerability to falls (such as in patients with dementia), increasing age, and use of anticoagulants. In this case, the patient’s fall and dementia put her at risk for subdural haemorrhage due to shearing forces causing a tear in the bridging veins, which may be exacerbated by cerebral atrophy.

      Other types of haemorrhage include extradural haemorrhage, which occurs between the skull and dura mater due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery on the temporal surface, and subarachnoid haemorrhage, which occurs between the arachnoid and pia mater due to rupture of a berry aneurysm. Intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage occurs within the brain parenchyma and is typically caused by a haemorrhagic stroke, presenting with sudden onset neurological deficits. CT findings for each type of haemorrhage differ, with subdural haemorrhage presenting as a collection of blood with a crescent shape, extradural haemorrhage as a convex shape, subarachnoid haemorrhage as hyper-attenuation around the circle of Willis, and intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage as hyperattenuation in the brain parenchyma.

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.

      Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.

      Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.

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  • Question 199 - Sarah, a 30-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 30-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensation in her thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral aspect of ring finger. She is currently in the second trimester of her first pregnancy.

      During the examination, Sarah exhibits a positive Tinel's sign, leading to a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which nerve branch is responsible for innervating the lateral aspect of the palm of the hand and is usually unaffected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmar cutaneous nerve of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The palmar cutaneous nerve, which provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the palm of the hand, branches off from the median nerve before it enters the carpal tunnel. This means that it is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve within the tunnel. Other branches of the median nerve, such as the anterior interosseous nerve, palmar digital branch, and recurrent branch, are affected by carpal tunnel syndrome to varying degrees. The ulnar nerve is not involved in carpal tunnel syndrome, so the palmar cutaneous nerve of the ulnar nerve is not relevant to this condition.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 200 - A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness on the lateral aspect of his calf and an inability to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is most likely affected in this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The most frequent reason for foot drop is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve.

      The common peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the posterolateral part of the leg and controlling the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower leg. If it is compressed or damaged, it can result in foot drop.

      While the sciatic nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve, it would cause additional symptoms.

      The femoral nerve only innervates the upper thigh and inner leg, so it would not cause foot drop.

      The tibial nerve is the other branch of the sciatic nerve and controls the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg.

      The posterior femoral cutaneous nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the skin of the posterior aspect of the thigh.

      Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination

      Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.

      To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.

      If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.

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      • Neurological System
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