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  • Question 1 - A 61-year-old man is being evaluated during the ward round in the ICU....

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man is being evaluated during the ward round in the ICU. The patient was admitted through the emergency department with his wife who reported that he had lost consciousness.

      During the examination, the patient is able to move his eyes spontaneously and can perform different eye movements as instructed. However, the patient seems incapable of responding verbally and has 0/5 power in all four limbs.

      Which artery occlusion is probable to result in this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Locked-in syndrome is a rare condition that can be caused by a stroke, particularly of the basilar artery. This can result in quadriplegia and bulbar palsy, while cognition and eye movements may remain intact. Other potential causes of locked-in syndrome include trauma, brain tumours, infection, and demyelination.

      If the anterior cerebral artery is affected by a stroke, the patient may experience contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more severely affected than the upper extremity. Additional symptoms may include behavioural abnormalities and incontinence.

      A stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the face and arm being more severely affected than the lower extremity. Speech and visual deficits are also common.

      Strokes affecting the posterior cerebral artery often result in visual deficits, as the occipital lobe is responsible for vision. This can manifest as contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

      Cerebellar infarcts, such as those affecting the superior cerebellar artery, can be difficult to diagnose as they often present with non-specific symptoms like nausea/vomiting, headache, and dizziness.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the incorrect pairing in the following options? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incorrect pairing in the following options?

      Your Answer: Transition between pharynx and oesophagus at C6

      Correct Answer: Termination of dural sac and L4

      Explanation:

      Sorry, your input is not clear. Please provide more information or context for me to understand what you want me to do.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the structures listed below lies posterior to the carotid sheath at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the structures listed below lies posterior to the carotid sheath at the level of the 6th cervical vertebrae?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Correct Answer: Cervical sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerves and the ansa cervicalis cross the carotid sheath from the front, while the vagus nerve is located inside it. The cervical sympathetic chain is positioned at the back, between the sheath and the prevertebral fascia.

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.8
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance that started 2 hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia.

      During the examination, there is no facial asymmetry, and the patient appears comfortable. The visual field test shows homonymous hemianopia on the right side, and automated perimetry indicates macular sparing. The patient is unable to name familiar objects, such as a pen or a spoon.

      Which artery is most likely to have been occluded?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the posterior cerebral artery. When a lesion occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, it can result in contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. This is because the visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. The macula is usually spared because the posterior pole of the occipital cortex, which processes visual signals from the macula, receives collateral flow from the middle cerebral artery.

      On the other hand, lesions in the anterior cerebral artery, which supplies the frontal cortex, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, altered sensorium, and aphasia. Meanwhile, occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, which supplies the lateral pons, can lead to sudden onset vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria.

      Lastly, the central retinal artery is not the correct answer as occlusion of this artery typically results in amaurosis fugax, which is a painless transient ‘descending curtain’ visual field defect, rather than homonymous hemianopia.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss...

    Correct

    • A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss in his right ear. After conducting a Webber's and Rinne's test, the following results were obtained:

      - Webber's test: lateralizes to the left ear
      - Rinne's test (left ear): Air > Bone
      - Rinne's test (right ear): Air > Bone

      What is the probable cause of his hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear is indicative of an acoustic neuroma, which is the only option listed as a cause for this type of hearing loss. Other options such as otitis media with effusion and otitis externa cause conductive hearing loss, while ossicular fracture is a rare cause of conductive hearing loss. Understanding the Weber and Rinne tests is important in interpreting these results accurately.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.8
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother. He has...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother. He has been experiencing severe headaches upon waking for the past two mornings. The pain subsides when he gets out of bed, but he has been feeling nauseated and has vomited three times this morning. There is no history of trauma. Upon ophthalmoscopy, bilateral papilloedema is observed. A CT head scan reveals a mass invading the fourth ventricle. Although the mass is reducing the diameter of the median aperture, it does not completely block it. What is the space into which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows from the fourth ventricle through the median aperture (foramen of Magendie)?

      Your Answer: Cisterna magna

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the cisterna magna, which is a subarachnoid cistern located between the cerebellum and medulla. The fourth ventricle receives CSF from the third ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) and CSF can leave the fourth ventricle through one of four openings, including the median aperture (foramen of Magendie) that drains CSF into the cisterna magna. CSF is circulated throughout the subarachnoid space, but it is not present in the extradural or subdural spaces. The third ventricle communicates with the lateral ventricles anteriorly via the interventricular foramina and with the fourth ventricle posteriorly via the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius). The superior sagittal sinus is a large venous sinus that allows the absorption of CSF. A patient with symptoms and signs suggestive of raised ICP may have various causes, including mass lesions and neoplasms.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      37.2
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  • Question 7 - A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a digital rectal exam, the physician observes a weakened external anal sphincter and suspects a nerve lesion may be the cause.

      Which nerve is responsible for supplying the external anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: Inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve is responsible for supplying innervation to the external anal sphincter, which is a striated muscle under voluntary control. In contrast, the internal anal sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is controlled involuntarily by the autonomic nervous system. The perineal nerve, which is the largest terminal branch of the pudendal nerve, originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots of the sacral plexus and provides muscular branches to both superficial and deep perineal muscles, as well as the external urethral sphincter.

      Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter

      The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.

      In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      40.4
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with complaints of gradually worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with complaints of gradually worsening peripheral vision and a progressive headache that is worse at night. During the cranial nerve exam, a superior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed, but eye movements are intact. The rest of the cranial nerve and neurological examinations are unremarkable.

      Which region of the brain is likely affected by the lesion causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Superior homonymous quadrantanopias occur when there are lesions in the inferior optic radiations located in the temporal lobe. The location of the lesion can be determined by analyzing the pattern of the visual field defect. Lesions in front of the optic chiasm cause incongruous defects, while lesions at the optic chiasm cause bitemporal/binasal hemianopias. Lesions behind the optic chiasm result in homonymous hemianopias, such as the superior homonymous quadrantanopia in this case. The optic radiations carry nerve signals from the optic chiasm to the occipital lobe. Lesions in the inferior aspect of the optic radiation cause superior visual field defects, while lesions in the superior aspect of the optic radiation cause inferior visual field defects. Therefore, the lesion causing the superior homonymous quadrantanopia in this woman must be located in the inferior aspect of the optic radiation in the temporal lobe. Lesions compressing the lateral aspect of the optic chiasm cause nasal/binasal visual field defects, while lesions to the optic nerve before the optic chiasm result in an incongruous homonymous hemianopia affecting the same eye. Parietal lobe lesions can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopias, but not superior homonymous quadrantanopias. Compression of the superior optic chiasm causes bitemporal hemianopias, not homonymous hemianopias.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      71.2
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32.2
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of progressive dyspnoea and dry cough with occasional haemoptysis. She has been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, smoking 50 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, reduced air entry is noted in the right upper lung field. The patient appears cachectic with a BMI of 18kg/m². A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a rounded opacity in the apical region of the right lung.

      What are the most indicative ocular signs of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial ptosis and dilated pupil

      Correct Answer: Partial ptosis and constricted pupil

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation of partial ptosis and constricted pupil is consistent with Horner’s syndrome. This is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in the apical region of the right lung, which can compress the sympathetic chain and cause a lack of sympathetic innervation. This results in partial ptosis, pupillary constriction, and anhidrosis. Complete ptosis and dilated pupil would be seen in traumatic oculomotor nerve palsy, while exophthalmos and dilated pupil are associated with Grave’s eye disease. Lid lag and normal pupil size are commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, but should not be confused with ptosis and Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - What are the true statements about the musculocutaneous nerve, except for those that...

    Incorrect

    • What are the true statements about the musculocutaneous nerve, except for those that are false?

      Your Answer: It arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus

      Correct Answer: If damaged, then extension of the elbow joint will be impaired

      Explanation:

      The muscles supplied by it include the biceps, brachialis, and coracobrachialis. If it is injured, the ability to flex the elbow may be affected.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they have recently been seen by an ophthalmologist. On ocular examination, they have been noted to have myopia (nearsightedness), with no other obvious pathological change. The specialist recommends spectacles for the treatment of this condition. Your patient mentioned that they do not fully understand why they require glasses. You draw them a diagram to explain the cause of their short-sightedness.

      Where is the approximate point that light rays converge in this individual?

      Your Answer: In the vitreous body, anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Myopia is a condition where the visual axis of the eye is too long, causing the image to be focused in front of the retina. This is typically caused by an imbalance between the length of the eye and the power of the cornea and lens system.

      In a healthy eye, light is first focused by the cornea and then by the crystalline lens, resulting in a clear image on the retina. If the light converges anterior to the crystalline lens, it may indicate severe corneal disruption, which can occur in conditions such as ocular trauma and keratoconus.

      Myopia is a common refractive error where the light rays converge posterior to the crystalline lens and anterior to the retina. This occurs when the cornea and lens system are too powerful for the length of the eye. Corrective lenses can be used to refract the light before it enters the eye, with a concave lens being required to correct the refractive error in a myopic eye.

      If the light rays converge on the crystalline lens, it may also indicate severe corneal disruption. Conversely, if the light rays converge posterior to the retina, it may indicate hyperopia (hypermetropia).

      In an emmetropic eye (no refractive error), the light rays converge on the fovea, resulting in a clear image on the retina.

      A gradual decline in vision is a prevalent issue among the elderly population, leading them to seek guidance from healthcare providers. This condition can be attributed to various causes, including cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Both of these conditions can cause a gradual loss of vision over time, making it difficult for individuals to perform daily activities such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces. As a result, it is essential for individuals experiencing a decline in vision to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old male with Parkinson's disease is experiencing non-motor symptoms. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male with Parkinson's disease is experiencing non-motor symptoms. Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: REM sleep disturbance

      Explanation:

      Dr. James Parkinson first identified Parkinson’s disease as a condition characterized by tremors and reduced muscle strength in inactive body parts, often accompanied by a tendency to lean forward and switch from walking to running. Early symptoms of Parkinson’s typically include issues with smell, sleep, and bowel movements. In addition to motor problems, non-motor symptoms may include depression, memory loss, pain, anxiety, sleep disturbances, and balance issues.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - An 87-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatrics ward due to repeated...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatrics ward due to repeated falls at home. He has been experiencing memory problems for the past 5-10 years and has become increasingly aggressive towards his family. Additionally, he has difficulty with self-care and often becomes disoriented.

      During examination, there are no noticeable tremors or walking difficulties. The patient does not exhibit any signs of chorea, hallucinations, or vivid dreams. There are no features of disinhibition, and the patient is able to communicate normally.

      What type of abnormality would you expect to see on an MRI scan?

      Your Answer: Atrophy of the cortex and hippocampus

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by widespread cerebral atrophy, primarily affecting the cortex and hippocampus. This results in symptoms such as memory loss, behavioral changes, poor self-care, and getting lost frequently. The cortex is responsible for motor planning and behavioral issues, while the hippocampus is responsible for memory features. Atrophy of the caudate head and putamen is not consistent with Alzheimer’s disease, but rather with Huntington’s disease, which is a genetic disorder characterized by chorea. Atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes is more consistent with frontotemporal dementia, which presents with greater language and behavioral issues. Hyper-intensity of the substantia nigra and red nuclei is not a feature of Alzheimer’s disease, but rather of Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by movement issues such as tremors and shuffling gait, as well as hallucinations and sleep disturbances.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that is affecting both sides of her head. She also reports blurred vision in her left eye. Upon examination, you notice papilloedema and a CNVI palsy in her left eye. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is: Headache, blurred vision, papilloedema, and CNVI palsy in a young, obese female on COCP are highly indicative of idiopathic intracranial hypertension. PKD may lead to hypertension and rupture of a berry aneurysm, but it would present with stroke-like symptoms. The presence of a berry aneurysm on its own would not cause any symptoms. Acute-angle closure glaucoma would present with a painful acute red eye and vomiting.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She reports that he woke up with numbness in his left arm and leg. During your examination, you observe nystagmus and suspect that he may have lateral medullary syndrome. What other feature is most likely to be present on his examination?

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral dysphagia

      Explanation:

      Lateral medullary syndrome can lead to difficulty swallowing on the same side as the lesion, along with limb sensory loss and nystagmus. This condition is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. However, it does not typically cause ipsilateral deafness or CN III palsy, which are associated with other types of brain lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia are also not typically seen in lateral medullary syndrome. Ipsilateral facial paralysis can occur in lateral pontine syndrome, but not in lateral medullary syndrome.

      Understanding Lateral Medullary Syndrome

      Lateral medullary syndrome, also referred to as Wallenberg’s syndrome, is a condition that arises when the posterior inferior cerebellar artery becomes blocked. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect both the cerebellum and brainstem. Cerebellar features of the syndrome include ataxia and nystagmus, while brainstem features include dysphagia, facial numbness, and cranial nerve palsy such as Horner’s. Additionally, patients may experience contralateral limb sensory loss. Understanding the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - During a ward round on the stroke ward, you notice a patient in...

    Incorrect

    • During a ward round on the stroke ward, you notice a patient in their 60s responds to questions with unrelated words and phrases. His speech is technically good and fluent but the sentences make no sense. He does not appear to be aware of this and struggles to understand questions when written down.

      Where is the location of the lesion producing this sign?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Superior temporal gyrus

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by damage to the superior temporal gyrus, resulting in fluent speech but poor comprehension and characteristic ‘word salad’. Patients with this type of aphasia are often unaware of their errors.

      Conduction aphasia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas. This results in fluent speech with poor repetition, but patients are usually aware of their errors.

      A lesion of the corpus callosum can cause more widespread problems with motor and sensory deficits due to impaired communication between the hemispheres.

      Broca’s area, located in the inferior frontal gyrus, is responsible for expressive aphasia, where speech is non-fluent but comprehension is intact.

      It’s important to note that true aphasia does not involve any motor deficits, so damage to the primary motor cortex would not be the cause.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to her forearm following a robbery. Upon examination, there is numbness observed in the thenar eminence and weakness in finger and wrist flexion. Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thenar eminence and controlling finger and wrist flexion. Its palmar cutaneous branch supplies sensation to the skin on the lateral side of the palm, including the thenar eminence. The median nerve directly innervates the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus muscles, which are responsible for wrist flexion, as well as the flexor digitorum superficialis and lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles via the anterior interosseous nerve, which control finger flexion. Damage to the median nerve can result in weakness in these movements.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with an 8-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with an 8-hour history of headache and altered mental status. Upon examination, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 194/128 mmHg, oxygen saturation 97%, heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 36.6ºC. What other clinical manifestation would you anticipate based on the probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Papilloedema

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema can be caused by malignant hypertension.

      The patient’s symptoms, including a severe headache and altered mental status, indicate a diagnosis of malignant hypertension due to their extremely high blood pressure.

      Excessive sweating is not a typical symptom of malignant hypertension and may suggest a different condition such as acromegaly.

      Consolidation on an X-ray is typically associated with pneumonia and would not present with the symptoms described.

      While raised neutrophils may indicate a bacterial infection, the presence of a headache, altered mental state, and high blood pressure suggest meningitis, although a fever would also be expected in this case.

      Understanding Papilloedema

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.

      It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to your clinic complaining of double vision that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to your clinic complaining of double vision that has been present for 2 days. After taking a thorough medical history, she reports no other visual changes. During the examination, you observe that she is unable to abduct her left eye. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve 3

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve 6

      Explanation:

      The muscle responsible for abduction of the eye is the lateral rectus, which is controlled by the 6th cranial nerve (abducens).

      The optic nerve (cranial nerve 2) provides innervation to the retina.
      The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve 3) controls the inferior oblique, medial superior and inferior rectus muscles.
      The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve 4) controls the superior oblique muscle.
      The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve 5) provides sensory input to the face and controls the muscles used for chewing.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 21 - A 33-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of persistent headaches. During a cranial...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of persistent headaches. During a cranial nerve examination, the GP observes normal direct and consensual reflexes when shining light into the left eye. However, when shining light into the right eye, direct and consensual reflexes are present, but both pupils do not constrict as much. The GP then swings a pen torch from one eye to the other and notes that both pupils constrict when swung to the left eye. However, when swung from the left eye to the right eye, both pupils appear to dilate slightly, although not back to normal. Based on these findings, where is the probable lesion located?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nucleus

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve

      Explanation:

      A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is indicative of an optic nerve lesion or severe retinal disease. During the swinging light test, if less light is detected in the affected eye, both pupils appear to dilate. The optic nerve is responsible for this condition.

      The options ‘Lateral geniculate nucleus’, ‘Oculomotor nucleus’, and ‘Optic chiasm’ are incorrect. Lesions in the lateral geniculate nucleus are not associated with RAPD. A lesion in the oculomotor nucleus would cause ophthalmoplegia, mydriasis, and ptosis. Lesions in the optic chiasm usually result in bitemporal hemianopia and are not associated with RAPD.

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.

      The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

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  • Question 22 - Which one of the following cranial foramina pairings are incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cranial foramina pairings are incorrect?

      Your Answer: Carotid canal and internal carotid artery.

      Correct Answer: Optic canal and ophthalmic nerve.

      Explanation:

      The optic nerve is transmitted through the optic canal, while the superior orbital fissure is traversed by the ophthalmic nerve.

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.

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  • Question 23 - After undergoing a cervical lymph node biopsy, John, a 67-year-old man, visits his...

    Incorrect

    • After undergoing a cervical lymph node biopsy, John, a 67-year-old man, visits his doctor complaining of weakness in his left shoulder.

      What cranial nerve injury could explain John's decreased ability to lift his left shoulder?

      Your Answer: Left spinal accessory nerve

      Correct Answer: Right spinal accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      A reduced ability to rotate the head and shrug the shoulders is indicative of an accessory nerve palsy.

      The accessory nerve is responsible for innervating the ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternocleidomastoid muscle allows for head rotation, while the trapezius muscle allows for shoulder shrugging. Therefore, if there is a lesion in the accessory nerve, it can cause weakness in these movements. In Harry’s case, since he has weakness in his right shoulder, the lesion is likely in his right accessory nerve.

      It’s important to note that the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves do not innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      The spinal part of the accessory nerve is responsible for innervating the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, while the cranial part of the accessory nerve combines with the vagus nerve.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, but there is no...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, but there is no family history of the disease.

      Which gene is the most probable to be affected in this individual?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein gene (APP)

      Correct Answer: APOE ε4 gene

      Explanation:

      The risk of sporadic Alzheimer’s disease is primarily determined by APOE polymorphic alleles, with the ε4 allele carrying the highest risk. Familial Alzheimer’s disease is linked to the APP, PSEN1, and PSEN2 genes, while familial Parkinson’s disease is associated with the PARK genes.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of neck discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of neck discomfort. During the neurological examination, the doctor observes numbness in the thumb. Which dermatome is associated with this symptom?

      Your Answer: C7

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      The index finger and thumb are the primary locations of the C6 dermatome.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

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  • Question 26 - At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery...

    Correct

    • At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery usually divide into the external and internal carotid arteries?

      Your Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      It ends at the top edge of the thyroid cartilage, typically situated at the fourth cervical vertebrae (C4).

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of waking...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of waking up in the morning with a sudden loss of sensation on the left side of his body. He has a medical history of hypertension and reports no pain. There are no changes to his vision or hearing.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Weber's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lacunar infarct

      Explanation:

      Hemisensory loss in this patient, along with a history of hypertension, is highly indicative of a lacunar infarct. Lacunar strokes are closely linked to hypertension.

      Facial pain on the same side and pain in the limbs and torso on the opposite side are typical symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome.

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia is a common symptom of middle cerebral artery strokes.

      Lateral pontine syndrome is characterized by deafness on the same side as the lesion.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 28 - A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains a neck injury. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he presents with a drooping left eyelid, a constricted and non-reactive left pupil, and visible sweating on the right side of his face but not on the left.

      Which nervous structures are likely to have been damaged in the altercation?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Cervical sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis, which result from the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck due to damage to the cervical sympathetic chain located in the neck. In contrast, damage to the facial nerve would cause facial paralysis, while damage to the vagus nerve would affect autonomic and speech functions but not the face. Damage to the oculomotor nerve would result in an inability to move the eye and a dilated pupil, and a brachial plexus injury would only affect the arm.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man is recuperating after undergoing a right total hip replacement. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is recuperating after undergoing a right total hip replacement. During a session with the physiotherapists, it is observed that his right foot is dragging on the ground while walking.

      Upon conducting a neurological examination of his lower limbs, it is found that his left leg is completely normal. However, his right leg has 0/5 power of dorsiflexion and knee flexion, a reduced ankle and plantar reflex, and no sensation over the lateral calf, sole, and dorsum of the foot.

      What is the nerve lesion that has occurred?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      Foot drop can be caused by a lesion to the sciatic nerve.

      When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in various symptoms such as foot drop, loss of power below the knee, loss of knee flexion, loss of ankle jerk and plantar response. The sciatic nerve innervates the hamstring muscles in the posterior thigh and indirectly innervates other muscles via its two terminal branches: the tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve. The tibial nerve supplies the calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the foot, while the common fibular nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior and lateral leg, as well as the remaining intrinsic foot muscles. Although the sciatic nerve has no direct sensory inputs, it receives information from its two terminal branches, which supply the skin of various areas of the leg and foot.

      Sciatic nerve lesions can occur due to various reasons, such as neck of femur fractures and total hip replacement trauma. However, it is important to note that a femoral nerve lesion would cause different symptoms, such as weakness in anterior thigh muscles, reduced hip flexion and knee extension, and loss of sensation to the anteromedial thigh and medial leg and foot. Similarly, lesions to the lower gluteal nerve or superior gluteal nerve would cause weakness in specific muscles and no sensory loss.

      Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination

      Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.

      To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.

      If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.

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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP complaining of trouble eating and a lump...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP complaining of trouble eating and a lump on the right side of his mandible. His blood work reveals elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and nothing else. Upon examination, doctors diagnose him with Paget's disease of the bone, which is causing his symptoms. The patient is experiencing numbness in his chin, a missing jaw jerk reflex, and muscle wasting in his mastication muscles. Through which part of the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The mandibular nerve travels through the foramen ovale in the skull.

      This is because the foramen ovale is the exit point for CN V3 (mandibular nerve) from the trigeminal nerve, which provides sensation to the lower face. The mandibular branch also serves the muscles of mastication, the tensor veli palatini, and tensor veli tympani.

      The cribriform plate is not correct as it is where the olfactory nerve innervates for the sense of smell.

      The foramen rotundum is also incorrect as it is where the sensory afferents of CN V1 and V2 (ophthalmic and maxillary nerves) exit the skull.

      The jugular foramen is not the answer as it is where the accessory (CN XI) nerve passes through to innervate the motor supply of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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