00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the enzyme that enables aerobic bacteria to survive in the presence...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that enables aerobic bacteria to survive in the presence of oxygen without succumbing to 'oxygen toxicity'?

      Your Answer: Lactate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Survival in the Presence of Oxygen

      Bacteria can be categorized into two types: aerobic and anaerobic. Anaerobic bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen due to the formation of oxygen radicals that damage intracellular structures. On the other hand, aerobic bacteria have high levels of the enzyme superoxide dismutase, which breaks down the superoxide anion and prevents oxidative damage. Additionally, aerobic bacteria have several other similar enzymes that protect against oxygen radical-induced injury.

      Anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process, such as fermentation of long-chain fatty acids. Facultative anaerobic bacteria prefer an anaerobic environment but have sufficiently high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes that they can survive in an aerobic environment.

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that converts water and carbon dioxide into H+ and HCO3−. Coenzyme Q is part of the electron transport chain, while lactate dehydrogenase converts pyruvate into lactate. NADPH oxidase is used in the ‘respiratory burst’ to generate toxic oxygen radicals.

      In summary, the survival of bacteria in the presence of oxygen depends on their ability to protect against oxygen radicals. Aerobic bacteria have high levels of protective enzymes, while anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process. Facultative anaerobic bacteria can survive in both environments due to their high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled type-2 diabetes is...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled type-2 diabetes is prescribed a new medication that increases urinary glucose excretion. The doctor informs him that it belongs to the SGLT-2 inhibitor drug class.

      Which of the following medications is classified as an SGLT-2 inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      SGLT2 inhibitors are known as gliflozins.

      Sulfonylurea refers to tolbutamide.

      GLP-1 receptor agonist is exenatide.

      DPP-4 inhibitor is linagliptin.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man presents to the outpatient cardiology clinic complaining of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the outpatient cardiology clinic complaining of fatigue and weight gain. He has been diagnosed with type II diabetes for 14 years and has been taking metformin to control his blood sugar levels. An echocardiogram reveals a globally dilated left ventricle with a reduced ejection fraction of approximately 30%, and his NT-proBNP level is 1256 (<125 pg/mL). The healthcare provider decides to initiate empagliflozin therapy due to its cardioprotective effects in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. What is the primary mechanism of action for this new medication?

      Your Answer: Collecting duct

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose reabsorption within the nephron is mainly concentrated in the proximal convoluted tubule.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old patient visits his primary care physician for a follow-up on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient visits his primary care physician for a follow-up on his diabetes treatment. He is currently taking metformin and expresses concern about adding more medications that may lead to hypoglycemia. The patient has a medical history of bladder cancer, which was treated through surgery. On examination, the only notable finding is an elevated body mass index of 32 kg/m².

      Based on recent blood test results, with an HbA1c level of 61 mmol/L (<48), the GP wants to prescribe a medication that does not cause weight gain or hypoglycemia. What is the probable mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Agonist of PPAR-gamma receptor

      Correct Answer: Reduction of the peripheral breakdown of incretins such as glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness. After diagnosis, it is revealed that he has rheumatoid arthritis. What is the leading cause of mortality in this condition characterized by systemic inflammation?

      Your Answer: Coronary heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are believed to have a higher likelihood of developing atherosclerotic disorders, even if they are unaware of any pre-existing heart conditions or elevated cardiovascular risk. The underlying cause of this atherosclerosis is attributed to systemic inflammation, which is thought to expedite the progression of the disease.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued at sea following a sailing accident. He is currently unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2 V3 M4).

      His vital signs include a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 34.8 ºC. An ECG is unremarkable and venous blood indicates type 2 respiratory failure. The patient's oxygen dissociation curve shows a leftward shift.

      What is the cause of the leftward shift in this 26-year-old patient's oxygen dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The only answer that causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is hypothermia. When tissues undergo aerobic respiration, they generate heat, which changes the shape of the haemoglobin molecule and reduces its affinity for oxygen. This results in the release of oxygen at respiring tissues. In contrast, lower temperatures in the lungs cause a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, which increases the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.

      Hypercapnia is not the correct answer because it causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. Hypercapnia lowers blood pH, which changes the shape of haemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen.

      Hypoxaemia is not the correct answer because the partial pressure of oxygen does not affect the oxygen dissociation curve. The partial pressure of oxygen does not change the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is not the correct answer because higher concentrations of 2,3-DPG reduce haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, causing a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with a blood pressure reading of 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria, headache, blurred vision, and abdominal pain. What typical feature would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia, hypertension and respiratory irregularity

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine after 20 weeks of pregnancy. antihypertensive medication should be used to manage blood pressure. Women with this condition may also develop HELLP syndrome, which is characterized by low platelets, elevated liver enzymes, and haemolysis (indicated by raised LDH levels). If left untreated, pre-eclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can be prevented by administering magnesium sulphate. Delivery is the only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia.

      Symptoms of shock include tachycardia and hypotension, while Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularity) is indicative of raised intracranial pressure. Anaphylaxis is characterized by facial swelling, rash, and stridor, while sepsis may present with warm extremities, rigors, and a strong pulse.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the final product of glucose breakdown in the absence of oxygen?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the final product of glucose breakdown in the absence of oxygen?

      Your Answer: Acetyl CoA

      Correct Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Anaerobic Metabolism and Lactic Acidosis

      During anaerobic metabolism, glucose can be broken down through the glycolysis pathway without the need for oxygen. This process generates pyruvate, but without oxygen, it cannot be further metabolized through the Kreb cycle or electron transfer chain to produce energy. Instead, pyruvate is converted into lactate, which yields two molecules of ATP. While small periods of anaerobic respiration are tolerable, excessive accumulation of lactate can lead to lactic acidosis, which reduces cellular pH. This reduction in pH can cause enzyme dysfunction, compromising cell function and ultimately leading to cell death.

      During intense exercise, muscle tissue relies on lactate as a quick source of ATP. The lactate produced can diffuse out of the cells and into the bloodstream, where it is taken up by other cells that can regenerate pyruvate from it. This pyruvate can then enter the Kreb cycle to produce more energy.

      However, in patients with serious illnesses where oxygen delivery to the body’s tissues is compromised, lactic acidosis can occur. This includes conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In these cases, the body may rely more heavily on anaerobic metabolism, leading to an accumulation of lactate and a decrease in cellular pH, which can have serious consequences for cell function and survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old male runner visits his doctor with a rough, hard, warty growth...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male runner visits his doctor with a rough, hard, warty growth on the sole of his foot. He has observed a tiny black spot in the center of the wart. The lesion has been there for 8 weeks.

      What is the probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus is responsible for causing plantar warts, which are non-cancerous and typically resolve on their own. These warts are more common in individuals who frequent public showers, as the warm and damp environment is conducive to their growth. They are characterized by a rough and thickened surface, often with small black spots resulting from clotted blood vessels.

      Understanding Viral Warts: When to Seek Treatment

      Viral warts are a common skin condition caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). While they are generally harmless, they can be painful and unsightly, leading some patients to seek treatment. However, in most cases, treatment is not necessary as warts will typically resolve on their own within a few months to two years. In fact, it can take up to 10 years for warts to disappear in adults.

      It is important to note that while viral warts are not a serious medical concern, they can be contagious and easily spread through skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as towels or razors with others to prevent the spread of warts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The school you teach at is on high alert after a suspected gas...

    Incorrect

    • The school you teach at is on high alert after a suspected gas leak in the chemistry lab. Twenty five students have been evacuated from the building. The students are experiencing severe symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath.

      You are informed by the school administration that the most probable gas involved is chlorine gas.

      What is the mode of action of chlorine gas?

      Your Answer: Sedative-hypnotic

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by sarin gas, a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound, leads to an increase in acetylcholine (ACh) levels. This can cause various symptoms, which can be remembered using the acronym DUMBELLS: Diarrhoea, Urination, Miosis/muscle weakness, Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia, Emesis, Lacrimation, and Salivation/sweating. The treatment for organophosphate poisoning involves the use of the antimuscarinic drug atropine.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due to work-related stress. She took two paracetamol earlier today, but when it didn't help, she took two aspirin. However, she developed an itchy rash on her face and is experiencing breathing difficulties. What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of metabolism

      Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic

      Explanation:

      Idiosyncratic Reaction to Medication

      A person’s idiosyncratic reaction to medication is a peculiar response that is not expected from the drug’s mode of action. In this case, a woman is experiencing an allergic reaction to either aspirin or paracetamol. The fact that she is having difficulty breathing is a serious symptom that requires urgent treatment. It is important to note that not all allergic reactions are the same, and some can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if any unusual symptoms occur after taking medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but has been stabbed in the back after an attack. A puncture wound measuring 3 cm is observed just to the right of the T5 vertebrae. During the examination, a reduction in fine touch sensation is detected on the right side.

      Where would you anticipate detecting a decrease in temperature sensation, if any?

      Your Answer: Right side, below the lesion

      Correct Answer: Left side, below the lesion

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla within the brain. Quick response stimuli such as pain and temperature cross over first.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is a result of the body’s unique anatomy. Understanding which types of nerve fibers cross over at the spinal level versus within the brain is crucial in diagnosing this syndrome.

      Pain and temperature are carried in the spinothalamic tract, which crosses over at the spinal level it enters at. Therefore, a hemisection of the cord will result in contralateral loss of these functions. On the other hand, the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway, and spinocerebellar tract all cross over above the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral loss of these functions with a hemisection.

      In the case of a puncture wound on the right side, the contralateral loss would present on the left side below the lesion, as the fibers run in a caudocranial direction. Bilateral loss would only occur with a complete severing of the cord.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP after discovering a lump in his groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP after discovering a lump in his groin subsequent to moving houses. He reports no other symptoms such as abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. The patient can push the lump back in, but it returns when he coughs. The GP suspects a hernia and upon examination, locates the hernia's neck, which is superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. The GP reduces the lump, applies pressure to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, and asks the patient to cough, causing the lump to reappear. The patient has no history of surgery. What is the most probable cause of the patient's groin lump?

      Your Answer: Spigelian hernia

      Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Based on the location of the hernia, which is superior and medial to the pubic tubercle, it is likely an inguinal hernia rather than a femoral hernia which would be located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle.

      If the hernia is a direct inguinal hernia, it would have entered the inguinal canal by passing through the posterior wall of the canal instead of the deep inguinal ring. Therefore, it would reappear despite pressure on the deep inguinal ring.

      On the other hand, if the hernia is an indirect inguinal hernia, it would have entered the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring and exited at the superficial inguinal ring. In this case, it would not reappear if the deep inguinal ring was occluded.

      Since the hernia is reducible, it is not incarcerated.

      Lastly, a spigelian hernia occurs when there is a herniation through the spigelian fascia, which is located along the semilunar line.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      186.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that radiates down her lower limb while she was gardening and bending forward. During a neurological examination of her lower limb, it was discovered that she has reduced power when flexing her hip and extending her knee. Her patellar reflex was also reduced, and there is decreased sensation in the anteromedial aspect of her thigh. Can you determine the level at which the intervertebral disc herniation is located based on these examination findings?

      Your Answer: C5-C6

      Correct Answer: L3-L4

      Explanation:

      If there is a disc herniation at the L3-L4 level, it can impact the L4 spinal nerve and lead to issues with the femoral nerve’s function. A herniation at the L2-L3 level can cause L3 radiculopathy and result in weakness in hip adduction. On the other hand, a herniation at the L3-L4 level can cause L4 radiculopathy and lead to weakness in knee extension, with a greater contribution from L4 than L3, as well as a decrease in the patellar reflex.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which micro-organism can cause symptoms similar to achalasia of the esophagus in patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which micro-organism can cause symptoms similar to achalasia of the esophagus in patients?

      Your Answer: Candida Spp

      Correct Answer: Trypanosoma Cruzi

      Explanation:

      The destruction of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus caused by Trypanosoma Cruzi infection can lead to symptoms resembling those of achalasia.

      Understanding Trypanosomiasis

      Trypanosomiasis is a protozoal disease that comes in two main forms: African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, and American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease. The former has two types: Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa, both of which are spread by the tsetse fly. Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to have a more acute course. Symptoms include a painless subcutaneous nodule at the site of infection, intermittent fever, enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes, and later, central nervous system involvement such as somnolence, headaches, mood changes, and meningoencephalitis.

      On the other hand, American trypanosomiasis is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. In the acute phase, the vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic, although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at the site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract, with myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atrophy) and arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal features including megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation.

      Early disease management for African trypanosomiasis involves IV pentamidine or suramin, while later disease or central nervous system involvement requires IV melarsoprol. Treatment for American trypanosomiasis is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox. Chronic disease management involves treating the complications, such as heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for breast cancer. She reports experiencing shoulder discomfort, and upon examination, her scapula is visibly winged. Which of the following is the most probable root cause of the loss of innervation?

      Your Answer: Pectoralis major

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Winging of the scapula is usually caused by long thoracic nerve injury, which may occur during axillary dissection. Rhomboid damage is a rare cause.

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of double...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Upon examination, it was found that one of the cranial nerves was acutely paralyzed. Imaging studies revealed a large aneurysm in the right carotid artery within the cavernous sinus, which was compressing a nerve. Which nerve is most likely affected by the development of this aneurysm, given its close anatomical proximity to the artery, resulting in the patient's visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ophthalmic nerve

      Correct Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      The abducens nerve is at the highest risk of being affected by an enlarging aneurysm from the internal carotid artery as it travels alongside it in the middle of the cavernous sinus. On the other hand, the ophthalmic, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves travel along the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and are not in close proximity to the internal carotid artery. Additionally, the optic nerve does not travel within the cavernous sinus and is therefore unlikely to be compressed by an intracavernous aneurysm.

      Understanding the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.

      The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

      In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient suffering from primary pulmonary hypertension at the age of 50 is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffering from primary pulmonary hypertension at the age of 50 is prescribed bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist. What is the role of endothelin in the body?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

      Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Endothelin, which is produced by the vascular endothelium, is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor with long-lasting effects. It is believed to play a role in the development of primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In an anatomy practical class, how can you differentiate between the right and...

    Incorrect

    • In an anatomy practical class, how can you differentiate between the right and left lungs based on their anatomical characteristics?

      Your Answer: Has a single pulmonary vein within the hilum

      Correct Answer: Has oblique and horizontal fissures

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a vital organ responsible for breathing and oxygen exchange in the body. The right lung is divided into three lobes, namely the upper, middle, and lower lobes, by oblique and horizontal fissures. The left lung, on the other hand, has only two lobes, the upper and lower lobes, with a lingular segment that serves as its equivalent of the middle lobe.

      It is worth noting that the right bronchus is wider and shorter than the left bronchus. Additionally, each lung has two pulmonary veins that return blood to the heart. the anatomy of the lungs is crucial in diagnosing and treating respiratory diseases and disorders. Proper care and maintenance of the lungs are essential for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man is struck with a hammer on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is struck with a hammer on the right side of his head. He passes away upon arrival at the emergency department. What is the most probable finding during the post mortem examination?

      Your Answer: Supra tentorial herniation

      Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The given scenario involves a short delay before death, which is not likely to result in a supratentorial herniation. The other options are also less severe.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      87.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of the testing, what is the definition of functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      To calculate the volume of air in the lungs after a normal relaxed expiration, one can use the formula for functional residual capacity (FRC), which is determined by the balance between the lungs’ tendency to recoil inwards and the chest wall’s tendency to pull outwards. FRC can be calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. In individuals with tetraplegia, decreases in FRC are primarily caused by a reduction in the outward pull of the chest wall, which occurs over time due to the inability to regularly expand the chest wall to large lung volumes. This reduction in FRC can increase the risk of atelectasis.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 13-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with neck stiffness, photophobia...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with neck stiffness, photophobia and a systemic, purpuric rash. She has a fever of 39.2ºC. Paracetamol is administered and intravenous fluids are initiated.

      What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this boy is meningococcal septicaemia and bacterial meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis, which is the most dangerous form of meningitis. The initial empirical therapy for meningitis in patients over 3 months of age is IV 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone, which is effective against Neisseria meningitidis. Delaying treatment until culture and sensitivity results are available can be dangerous, as it can take 3-5 days to obtain these results. Intravenous acyclovir is used if viral meningitis is suspected or confirmed, but it is not sufficient in this case, especially in the presence of a purpuric rash, which indicates a high possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. Intravenous benzylpenicillin may be appropriate if sensitivities to any culture taken suggest it, but a third-generation cephalosporin would be the most appropriate choice to cover for meningococcal infection.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. It is important to investigate and manage it promptly to prevent complications. When investigating meningitis, a lumbar puncture is usually done to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. However, there are contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and signs of cerebral herniation. In such cases, blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained for patients with meningococcal septicaemia.

      The management of meningitis involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime for children under 3 months and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for those over 3 months. Steroids may also be given, but NICE advises against giving corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months. Dexamethasone should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals purulent CSF, a CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre, raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre, or bacteria on Gram stain.

      Fluids should also be given to treat any shock, such as with colloid. Cerebral monitoring is necessary, and mechanical ventilation may be required if there is respiratory impairment. Public health notification and antibiotic prophylaxis of contacts are also important. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for prophylaxis. By following these guidelines, meningitis in children can be effectively managed and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Rachel is a 26-year-old female who arrives at the emergency department with an...

    Incorrect

    • Rachel is a 26-year-old female who arrives at the emergency department with an anteriorly dislocated shoulder and fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus.

      What signs are most likely to be elicited due to the probable nerve damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over the deltoid muscle on the outer-upper arm

      Explanation:

      If a patient is experiencing difficulty abducting their arm after a humeral neck fracture, it may be due to damage to the axillary nerve. This nerve is commonly affected by anterior shoulder dislocations and surgical neck fractures of the humerus. The axillary nerve provides sensation to the area over the deltoid muscle, known as the regimental area. It is important to note that the skin over the olecranon is supplied by the radial nerve, while the intercostobrachial nerve supplies the skin over the axilla. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for supplying sensation to the skin over the palmar surface of the lateral forearm. Damage to the axillary nerve would not specifically affect the C6 dermatome.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor measures 4 centimeters in its largest dimension and is not invading any surrounding structures. However, there are metastases in the ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes, and no distant metastases have been found. What is the TNM score for this patient, considering the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastases (M)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to have knowledge about the TNM system for staging lung cancer. The absence of distant metastases eliminates one of the options immediately (as M must be 0).

      The size and invasion of the tumor are significant factors:
      – T1 is less than 3 cm
      – T2 is between 3 cm and 7 cm
      – T3 is more than 7 cm and/or involves invasion of the chest wall, parietal pleura, diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium
      – T4 can be any size but involves invasion of other structures

      To differentiate between N1 and N2, remember that N1 involves ipsilateral hilar or peribronchial lymph nodes, while N2 involves ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.

      Small Cell Lung Cancer: Characteristics and Management

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that usually develops in the central part of the lungs and arises from APUD cells. This type of cancer is often associated with the secretion of hormones such as ADH and ACTH, which can cause hyponatremia and Cushing’s syndrome, respectively. In addition, ACTH secretion can lead to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypokalemic alkalosis due to high levels of cortisol. Patients with small cell lung cancer may also experience Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is characterized by antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels causing a myasthenic-like syndrome.

      Management of small cell lung cancer depends on the stage of the disease. Patients with very early stage disease may be considered for surgery, while those with limited disease typically receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients with small cell lung cancer are diagnosed with metastatic disease, making treatment more challenging.

      Overall, small cell lung cancer is a complex disease that requires careful management and monitoring. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes, but more research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms of this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and lack of coordination, along with involuntary limb movements. He also reports increased irritability and forgetfulness, which his wife has noticed. Interestingly, his father had similar symptoms but at the age of 55 and eventually passed away due to a neurodegenerative disease.

      What could be the reason for the patient's symptoms appearing earlier than his father's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Penetrance refers to the degree to which an individual experiences or is certain to develop a disease. Lower numbers may indicate milder symptoms or a lower probability of developing the disease. In the case of Huntington’s disease, increased penetrance is associated with a higher number of trinucleotide repeats, so reduced penetrance is not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology ward with a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology ward with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and neck swelling. She reports experiencing intermittent fevers. The patient has no significant medical history. Upon examination, non-tender cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy is observed. A blood film is taken and reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of blood cancer that is often accompanied by painless swelling of the lymph nodes, as well as symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and night sweats. One of the defining features of this disease is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, abnormal lymphocytes that can have multiple nuclei. These cells are not typically seen in other types of blood cancer, such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), acute myeloid leukemia (AML), or chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Instead, each of these diseases has its own characteristic features that can be identified through laboratory testing and other diagnostic methods.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical history, you uncover that the child's parents are first cousins who share the same grandmother. What genetic disorders are more likely to occur in the offspring of consanguineous parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      To answer this question, one must have knowledge of consanguinity, which refers to blood relations. In families where both parents share a common ancestor, such as a grandmother, there is a higher likelihood that they both carry a disease allele that runs in their family lineage. This increases the chances of autosomal recessive conditions occurring.

      X-linked dominant, autosomal dominant, and X-linked recessive conditions are not impacted by consanguinity. However, if a family lineage is associated with a disease recessive allele, it is more likely that two carriers will mate if they are blood relatives. Drawing out a family tree can help illustrate the impact of consanguinity on the likelihood of certain genetic conditions.

      Consanguinity and Inherited Defects

      Consanguinity refers to the practice of marrying within the same family or bloodline. When couples who are related marry, the risk of inherited defects is approximately double that of a non-related couple. This is because the genetic material passed down from both parents is more likely to contain the same harmful mutations. However, when second cousins marry, the risk of inherited defects is reduced to that of a non-related couple. This is because second cousins share a smaller percentage of their genetic material compared to first cousins or closer relatives. It is important for couples who are considering marriage to be aware of the potential risks associated with consanguinity and to seek genetic counseling if necessary. By understanding the risks and taking appropriate measures, couples can make informed decisions about their future together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The thalamus serves as a conduit for sensory information from the peripheries to...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamus serves as a conduit for sensory information from the peripheries to the cortex. Which specific nucleus of the thalamus is accountable for transmitting auditory input from the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) to the primary auditory cortex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      If the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is damaged, it can result in hearing impairment. This is because the medial geniculate nucleus is responsible for processing auditory sensory information. It receives input from the inferior colliculus, which in turn receives input from the contralateral vestibulocochlear nerve via the inferior olive. The lateral geniculate nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for processing visual information. The ventral anterior nucleus receives input regarding unconscious proprioception from the cerebellum, while the medial and lateral ventro-posterior nuclei carry somatosensory information from the face and body, respectively.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old boy presents at the emergency room with wrist joint pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents at the emergency room with wrist joint pain. He reports a persistent dull ache for three days and mild swelling. Upon examination, there is no misalignment or bruising. The doctor evaluates active and passive movement, including flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.

      Which synovial joint is impacted in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Condyloid

      Explanation:

      The wrist joint is classified as a synovial condyloid joint, which allows movement along two axes. Unlike a synovial ball and socket joint, the wrist joint cannot rotate. It also differs from a hinge joint, which only allows movement in one plane, and a pivot joint, which only allows axial rotation. Additionally, the wrist joint is not a synovial saddle joint. While the wrist joint has less freedom of movement than the shoulder joint, it is still capable of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old, ex-smoker, of 25 pack years arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old, ex-smoker, of 25 pack years arrives at the emergency department with central crushing chest pain that spreads down his left arm. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2 and V3. He has a medical history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type II diabetes. The patient's complete blood count indicates a haemoglobin level of 17.1 g/dL. What is the probable cause of this patient's elevated haemoglobin level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypoxia caused by COPD is a secondary factor leading to polycythaemia in this patient. While an anterior ST elevation MI is likely the acute issue, it would not explain the polycythaemia. Asthma is not a cause of polycythaemia and would not be responsible for the ECG changes. An inferior MI would not be associated with polycythaemia and would only cause ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with alterations in his vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with alterations in his vision. During the conversation, he uses nonsensical words such as 'I went for a walk this morning and saw the tree lights shining'. However, he can communicate fluently. The possibility of a brain lesion is high.

      Which specific region of the brain is likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Fluent speech may still be present despite neologisms and word substitution resulting from temporal lobe lesions. Superior homonymous quadrantanopia may also occur. Apraxia can be caused by lesions in the parietal lobe, while changes to vision may result from lesions in the occipital lobe. Non-fluent speech can be caused by lesions in the frontal lobe, while ataxia, intention tremor, and dysdiadochokinesia may result from lesions in the cerebellum.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was diagnosed with hypertension at the age of 33 and has been on multiple antihypertensive medications without success. She reports experiencing intermittent headaches, flushes, and palpitations.

      During the discussion of further treatment options, the patient reveals that her blood pressure dropped to an average of 100/65 mmHg when she was prescribed an alpha-blocker. This suggests that her hypertension may have a secondary cause.

      What is the most likely anatomical location of the underlying issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Although a 1.5cm difference in kidney size or a single occurrence of flash edema may prompt the initiation of an ACE inhibitor, the symptoms described in the patient’s medical history are more indicative of a phaeochromocytoma, which is likely originating from the adrenal medulla.

      The Function of Adrenal Medulla

      The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing almost all of the adrenaline in the body, along with small amounts of noradrenaline. Essentially, it is a specialized and enlarged sympathetic ganglion. This gland plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress and danger, as adrenaline is a hormone that prepares the body for the fight or flight response. When the body perceives a threat, the adrenal medulla releases adrenaline into the bloodstream, which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration, while also dilating the pupils and increasing blood flow to the muscles. This response helps the body to react quickly and effectively to danger. Overall, the adrenal medulla is an important component of the body’s stress response system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 72-year-old male is admitted post myocardial infarction.
    Suddenly, on day seven, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male is admitted post myocardial infarction.
      Suddenly, on day seven, he collapses without warning. The physician observes the presence of Kussmaul's sign.
      What is the most probable complication of MI in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular rupture

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction: Cardiac Tamponade

      Myocardial infarction can lead to a range of complications, including cardiac tamponade. This occurs when there is ventricular rupture, which can be life-threatening. One way to diagnose cardiac tamponade is through Kussmaul’s sign, which is the detection of a rising jugular venous pulse on inspiration. However, the classic diagnostic triad for cardiac tamponade is Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds.

      It is important to note that Dressler’s syndrome, a type of pericarditis that can occur after a myocardial infarction, typically has a gradual onset and is associated with chest pain. Therefore, it is important to differentiate between these complications in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 19-year-old college student visits her doctor complaining of a sore throat, accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old college student visits her doctor complaining of a sore throat, accompanied by a high fever and fatigue that has persisted for three weeks. During the examination, the doctor notes swollen cervical lymph nodes and confirms the presence of infectious mononucleosis through an antibody test. What is the specific cell surface protein that the Epstein-Barr virus attaches to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD21

      Explanation:

      Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions

      Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.

      Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 22-year-old graduate student comes to you with concerns about abnormal muscle jerks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old graduate student comes to you with concerns about abnormal muscle jerks and contractions while studying late for her upcoming exams. She is worried that she may be experiencing seizures. Upon further questioning, she denies any post-episode drowsiness, incontinence, or tongue biting, but admits that the muscle contractions occur just as she is about to fall asleep. She also denies any alcohol or illicit drug use.

      If an EEG performed during these episodes showed theta waves, what diagnosis would be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypnagogic jerks

      Explanation:

      Non-REM stage 1 (N1) sleep is associated with hypnagogic jerks, also known as hypnic jerks, and is the lightest stage of sleep. During this phase, benign physiological muscular contractions occur and the EEG shows theta waves (3 to 8 Hz). Therefore, the correct answer is ‘hypnagogic jerks of stage N1 sleep’.

      Absence seizures, on the other hand, are short and frequent episodes of profound impairment of consciousness without loss of body tone, typically found in children. The EEG finding during an absence seizure is generalized 2.5 to 5 Herz (Hz) spike wave discharges, not theta waves.

      Although alcohol withdrawal can cause seizures, isolated muscle contractions during the sleep-wake interphase are unlikely. Furthermore, the finding of theta waves makes stage N1 more likely.

      Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is characterized by myoclonic jerks, which are most frequent in the morning, within the first hour after awakening, though generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) and absence seizures can also occur. The EEG finding during episodes is 3 to 4 Hz polyspike-waves with frontocentral predominance, not theta waves.

      Night terrors, which occur during non-REM stage N3 sleep, the deepest type of non-REM sleep, are a parasomnia during which there is a loss of motor tone, not muscle jerks. The EEG waveform during this stage of sleep are beta waves.

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 36-year-old male visits the GP after being diagnosed with Conn's syndrome, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male visits the GP after being diagnosed with Conn's syndrome, which causes excessive production of aldosterone. How will this affect the balance of sodium and potassium in his blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased sodium, decreased potassium

      Explanation:

      Hypertension, hypernatraemia, and hypokalemia are common symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The adrenal gland produces aldosterone, which is responsible for regulating potassium levels. Its primary function is to increase sodium absorption and decrease potassium secretion in the distal tubules and collecting duct of the nephron. As a result, sodium levels increase while potassium levels decrease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 43-year-old male patient, who is a heavy drinker, has been admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old male patient, who is a heavy drinker, has been admitted to the hospital due to a variceal bleed. The patient requires a blood transfusion as his blood is clotting very slowly. It is suspected that his excessive alcohol consumption is hindering the liver's ability to recycle vitamin K, which is essential for coagulation. Can you identify the clotting factors that are dependent on vitamin K?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K and its Role in Clotting Factor Production

      The production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X is dependent on vitamin K. This vitamin acts as a cofactor during the production of these factors. Vitamin K is stored in the liver in small amounts and requires recycling via an enzyme to maintain adequate production levels of the clotting factors. However, liver disease or excessive alcohol consumption can disrupt the recycling process, leading to a relative deficiency of vitamin K. This deficiency can interrupt the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which can result in bleeding disorders. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper clotting factor production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetyl-CoA

      Explanation:

      The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - During a challenging femoro-popliteal bypass surgery, the surgeon mistakenly applies a clamp on...

    Incorrect

    • During a challenging femoro-popliteal bypass surgery, the surgeon mistakenly applies a clamp on the femoral nerve. The clamp remains in place for a significant portion of the procedure. Upon examination after the operation, the nerve is found to be intact but shows signs of compression. What is the most probable outcome in the coming months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wallerian degeneration

      Explanation:

      Despite the nerve remaining intact, a neuronal injury can lead to Wallerian degeneration and potentially the formation of neuromas.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of a progressive headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of a progressive headache that is worse in the morning, nausea and reduced appetite. He reports that he has been bumping into hanging objects more frequently.

      During the examination of his cranial nerves, a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia is detected. However, his visual acuity is normal.

      Given the ophthalmological finding, where is the suspected location of the space-occupying lesion? An urgent MRI brain has been scheduled.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the temporal lobe inferior optic radiations are responsible for causing superior homonymous quadrantanopias.

      When the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway, specifically the inferior optic radiation (Meyer loop) of the temporal lobe, are damaged, it results in homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

      Patients with this condition may experience difficulty navigating through their blind quadrant-field, such as bumping into objects located above their head or on the upper portion of their computer or television screen. They may also exhibit symptoms of the underlying cause, such as a brain tumor. Additionally, the non-dominant right temporal lobe is responsible for learning and remembering non-verbal information, which may also be affected.

      Despite the visual field defect, patients typically report normal visual acuity since only half a macula is required for it.

      Other visual field defects associated with different areas of the brain include right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia with left parietal lobe damage, right superior homonymous quadrantanopia with left temporal lobe damage, left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing with right occipital lobe damage, and left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia with right parietal lobe damage.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of mucous passage and diarrhea, leading to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of mucous passage and diarrhea, leading to a suspicion of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episodes of large bowel obstruction during acute attacks

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is associated with a higher risk of colorectal cancer compared to the general population, particularly if the disease has been present for over 20 years. Granulomas are a common feature of Crohn’s disease. The disease typically affects the rectum and can spread upwards, and contact bleeding may occur. In cases of longstanding ulcerative colitis, there may be crypt atrophy and metaplasia/dysplasia.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor development. Since he started walking 9 months ago, the child has been limping and avoiding weight bearing on the left leg. He has otherwise been healthy. He was born at term via a caesarean section, due to his breech position, and weighed 4.5kg. What is the probable reason for his limp?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Explanation:

      The condition is developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is typically observed in individuals under the age of 4.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 38-year-old with a known diagnosis of G6PD deficiency presents with jaundice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old with a known diagnosis of G6PD deficiency presents with jaundice and suspected acute haemolysis. He had recently been treated for a suspected urinary tract infection with nitrofurantoin. Blood tests reveal the following results:

      Hb 94 g/L (135-180)
      Platelets 210* 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 7.2*109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Reticulocytes 8.0% (0.2-2.0)

      What underlying process is likely occurring in response to these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haptoglobin binds free haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Haptoglobin plays a crucial role in binding free haemoglobin following haemolysis. This binding forms a complex that can be cleared and metabolized by macrophages through CD163 receptors. This process is essential in preventing local toxicity from haemoglobin degradation products, such as free radicals. Therefore, reduced haptoglobin levels upon testing can indicate intravascular haemolysis. It is important to note that haemopexin binds free haem, not haemoglobin itself, and haptoglobin does not bind complexed haemoglobin or free heme.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry, she reports experiencing polyphagia and polydipsia as well. Her blood test reveals hyperglycaemia and low C-peptide levels.

      What is the underlying mechanism causing her hyperglycaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased GLUT-4 expression

      Explanation:

      The movement of glucose into cells requires insulin. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from type 1 diabetes mellitus or latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA) with low c-peptide levels, indicating a complete lack of insulin. As a result, insulin is unable to stimulate the expression of GLUT-4, which significantly reduces the uptake of glucose into skeletal and adipose cells.

      The patient’s low GLUT-1 expression is unlikely to be the cause of hyperglycemia. GLUT-1 is primarily expressed in fetal tissues and has a higher affinity for oxygen, allowing fetal cells to survive even in hypoglycemic conditions.

      GLUT-2 expression is mainly found in hepatocytes and beta-cells of the pancreas. It allows for the bi-directional movement of glucose, equalizing glucose concentrations inside and outside the cell membrane, and enabling glucose-sensitive cells to measure serum glucose levels and respond accordingly.

      GLUT-3 expression is mainly found in neuronal cells and has a high affinity, similar to GLUT-1. This allows for the survival of brain cells in hypoglycemic conditions.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 72-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of palpitations and dizziness that...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of palpitations and dizziness that started a day ago. He has been experiencing weakness and fatigue for the past month. During the physical examination, you observe generalized hypotonia and hyporeflexia. After conducting an ECG, you notice indications of hypokalemia. What is an ECG manifestation of hypokalemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prominent U waves

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia can be identified by the presence of U waves on an ECG. Other ECG signs of hypokalaemia include small or absent P waves, tall tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia can be identified by ECG signs such as a long PR interval and a sine wave pattern, as well as small or absent P waves, tall tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. A prolonged PR interval may be found in both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia, while a short PR interval suggests pre-excitation or an AV nodal rhythm. Abnormalities in serum potassium are often discovered incidentally, but symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis. If a patient presents with palpitations and light-headedness, along with a history of weakness and fatigue, and examination findings of hypotonia and hyporeflexia, hypokalaemia should be considered as a possible cause.

      Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old female complains of weakness, weight gain, and cold intolerance. You suspect...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female complains of weakness, weight gain, and cold intolerance. You suspect hypothyroidism. What vocal change would you anticipate to have occurred, increasing the probability of this potential diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarse voice

      Explanation:

      Hoarseness is a symptom that can be caused by hypothyroidism.

      When a patient presents with hoarseness, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. However, if the hoarseness is accompanied by other symptoms commonly associated with hypothyroidism, it can help narrow down the diagnosis.

      The reason for the voice change in hypothyroidism is due to the thickening of the vocal cords caused by the accumulation of mucopolysaccharide. This substance, also known as glycosaminoglycans, is found throughout the body in mucus and joint fluid. When it builds up in the vocal cords, it can lower the pitch of the voice. The thyroid hormone plays a role in preventing this buildup.

      Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.

      If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication presents with delusions of alien possession. How would you characterize his delusions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusions of control

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Symptoms: Delusion of Control, Depersonalisation, and Delusions of Misidentification

      Delusion of control, also known as passivity experience, is a primary symptom of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom is characterized by the belief that one’s body, mind, volition, or emotion is being controlled by another entity, being, or force. On the other hand, depersonalisation is the feeling of being disconnected from reality, often accompanied by derealisation.

      Delusions of misidentification, another symptom of schizophrenia, can be divided into two types: Fregoli Syndrome and Capgras Syndrome. Fregoli Syndrome is the belief that someone whose appearance is unfamiliar is actually someone you know, while Capgras Syndrome is the belief that someone who looks familiar is an imposter.

      Overall, these symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s perception of reality and their ability to function in daily life. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing any of these symptoms or suspecting someone else may be experiencing them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are conducting a study to compare the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a study to compare the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms to detect breast cancer. In your study, 200 women had a positive mammogram result, however, 50 of those women were then diagnosed with breast cancer on further testing. A further 500 women had a negative mammogram result, with 20 women being diagnosed with breast cancer from this group.

      What is the positive predictive value of a positive mammogram result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which one of the following is true regarding the phrenic nerves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding the phrenic nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They both lie anterior to the hilum of the lungs

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerves, located in the anterior region of the lung’s hilum, play a crucial role in keeping the diaphragm functioning properly. These nerves have both sensory and motor functions, and any issues in the sub diaphragmatic area may result in referred pain in the shoulder.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following relates to a test's ability to produce similar results...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following relates to a test's ability to produce similar results following repeated measurements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Precision

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department complaining of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department complaining of fever and abdominal pain. She recently returned from a trip to Thailand where she experienced a brief episode of food poisoning after consuming raw seafood.

      During the physical examination, the patient displays mild bruising on her extremities and jaundice. Her abdomen is distended and tender to the touch, with hepatomegaly. Initial laboratory tests reveal abnormal liver function.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis E

      Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E does not cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A baby is born prematurely at 28 weeks, increasing the likelihood of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born prematurely at 28 weeks, increasing the likelihood of delayed closure of the ductus venosus. What are the structures that the ductus venosus connects in the fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IVC and umbilical vein

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, the ductus venosus redirects blood flow from the left umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava, enabling oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver. Typically, the ductus closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum between day 3 and 7. However, premature infants are more susceptible to delayed closure.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A young woman presents with a claw-like appearance of her right hand. She...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents with a claw-like appearance of her right hand. She is subsequently diagnosed with cubital tunnel syndrome. Which nerve has been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The symptoms displayed in this presentation are indicative of cubital tunnel syndrome, which occurs when the ulnar nerve is damaged as it passes through the medial epicondyle. This nerve is responsible for innervating the intrinsic muscles of the hand, and its damage can result in a claw-like appearance of the affected hand’s ulnar side. None of the other nerves listed would cause this specific symptom, as they do not innervate the same muscles.

      If the median nerve were damaged, it would result in an inability to abduct and oppose the thumb due to paralysis of the thenar muscles.

      Damage to the axillary nerve would affect the deltoid muscle, leading to dysfunction in arm abduction.

      Impaired biceps brachii muscle function, affecting arm flexion, would result from damage to the musculocutaneous nerve.

      Paralysis of the extensor muscles, leading to a wrist drop, would be caused by damage to the radial nerve.

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off as intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, but nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In resistant cases, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems sleepy, and their mucous membranes appear dry. Upon measuring their blood glucose, it is found to be 32 mmol/L. A deficiency of a glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates glucose in the liver and beta cells of the pancreas is suspected as the cause of an inborn error of metabolism.

      Which enzyme is the most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucokinase

      Explanation:

      Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme glucokinase. This enzyme is involved in glycolysis and is found in pancreatic beta cells and the liver. Mutations in glucokinase can lead to monogenic diabetes mellitus or neonatal diabetes mellitus. Enolase is another glycolytic enzyme that converts 2-phosphoglycerate into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is an enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway that converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6-phosphogluconolactone. Hexokinase is also a glycolytic enzyme, but it phosphorylates glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in all tissues except for the liver and beta cells of the pancreas. In these specific tissues, glucokinase is responsible for phosphorylating glucose.

      Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism

      Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 28-year-old man with a history of Marfan's syndrome arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of Marfan's syndrome arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his left eye. He reports no prior symptoms or injuries.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lens dislocation

      Explanation:

      In Marfan’s syndrome, painless loss of vision in one eye may be caused by lens dislocation, which is a common ocular symptom of the condition. The dislocation usually occurs in the upper outer part of the eye and can affect one or both eyes. While retinal detachment can also cause sudden vision loss without pain, it is less common than lens dislocation and is often preceded by visual disturbances such as flashes, floaters, or blind spots.

      Causes of Lens Dislocation

      Lens dislocation can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common causes is Marfan’s syndrome, which causes the lens to dislocate upwards. Another cause is homocystinuria, which leads to the lens dislocating downwards. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is also a contributing factor to lens dislocation. Trauma, uveal tumors, and autosomal recessive ectopia lentis are other causes of lens dislocation. It is important to identify the underlying cause of lens dislocation to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion after blood tests are taken. Her admission blood results indicate dehydration and elevated potassium levels, with a subsequent increase to 5.9. Which intravenous therapy is likely causing her hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann’s

      Explanation:

      Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors

      Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For the first 24 hours, NICE recommends using sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium. However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid loss will require more fluid, while a patient with heart failure should receive less fluid to avoid pulmonary edema.

      It is important to consider the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and the most commonly used fluids when prescribing intravenous fluids. 0.9% saline can lead to hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis if large volumes are used. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia. By following these guidelines and considering individual patient needs, junior doctors can ensure safe and effective fluid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a digital rectal exam, the physician observes a weakened external anal sphincter and suspects a nerve lesion may be the cause.

      Which nerve is responsible for supplying the external anal sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve is responsible for supplying innervation to the external anal sphincter, which is a striated muscle under voluntary control. In contrast, the internal anal sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is controlled involuntarily by the autonomic nervous system. The perineal nerve, which is the largest terminal branch of the pudendal nerve, originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots of the sacral plexus and provides muscular branches to both superficial and deep perineal muscles, as well as the external urethral sphincter.

      Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter

      The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.

      In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with bradycardia. Is it possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with bradycardia. Is it possible for cardiac muscle to stay in phase 4 of the cardiac action potential for an extended period of time?

      What happens during phase 4 of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      The Na+/K+ ATPase restores the resting potential.

      The cardiac action potential does not involve slow sodium influx.

      Phase 3 of repolarisation involves rapid potassium influx.

      Phase 2 involves slow calcium influx.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a several-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a several-hour history of excruciating pain in the left knee. Her medical history is significant for hypertension and a previous episode of gout. She takes amlodipine.

      On examination, she is in severe pain and the left knee is swollen, red, warm and tender. Arthroscopic evaluation of the synovial fluid aspirate showed monosodium crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarized light. A diagnosis of recurrent gout is made and ultimately the patient is commenced on prophylaxis using allopurinol.

      What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits xanthine oxidase

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which is used for gout prophylaxis. By blocking the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid, it reduces the levels of uric acid in the blood. The other options, such as inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase, ribonucleotide reductase, and thymidylate synthase, are not related to gout prophylaxis. Rasburicase, which oxidizes urate to allantoin, is also used for gout prophylaxis, but it works differently than allopurinol.

      Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a random blood glucose level of 11.2 mmol/l, indicating diabetes mellitus. You plan to initiate treatment with metformin.

      What is the mode of action of metformin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her physician recommends identifying triggers to prevent future attacks. What is a known trigger associated with migraines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chocolate

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a primary headache syndrome that often includes a prodrome, aura, migraine attack, and postdrome. The prodrome phase can involve changes in mood, fatigue, and hunger that occur hours to days before the migraine attack. The aura phase typically involves visual disturbances, such as wiggly lines in the visual field, and occurs 1-1.5 hours before the migraine attack. The migraine attack itself can last anywhere from 4-72 hours. The postdrome phase may include symptoms such as soreness, fatigue, mood changes, and gastrointestinal issues.

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a general feeling of discomfort. Migraine attacks can last up to 72 hours, and patients often seek relief in a dark and quiet room.

      There are several triggers that can cause a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. Women are three times more likely to experience migraines than men, and the prevalence in women is around 18%.

      To diagnose migraine, doctors use a set of criteria established by the International Headache Society. These criteria include at least five attacks that last between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, patients must also experience nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light and sound. The diagnosis is ruled out if the headache is caused by another disorder or if it occurs for the first time in close temporal relation to another disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a high fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a high fever of one day duration and severe sore throat. She is noted to be drooling and sitting in a 'tripod' position, where she is leaning forward and supporting the upper body with hands on the knees. She is severely short of breath with inspiratory retractions and stridor. She appears to be uncomfortable and restless. Her mother also reports that she has been unable to eat anything for the past few hours. Her heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 80 - 120 beats per minute), blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg (normal range: SBP 89 - 112 mmHg; DBP 46 - 72 mmHg), SpO2 is 94% and her temperature is 40°C. She is quickly wheeled into the resuscitation room for stabilisation and treatment. A chest radiograph was promptly done in the resuscitation room.

      What radiological findings are associated with the girl's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thumb sign

      Explanation:

      The presence of a thumb sign on a lateral radiograph is indicative of acute epiglottitis in this child, who is displaying symptoms of dysphagia, drooling, and distress. This condition typically presents with a sudden onset of high fever and severe sore throat, as well as noisy breathing with stridor, and is most commonly seen in children aged 5-12 years old.

      In cases of acute epiglottitis, maintaining airway patency and ensuring hemodynamic stability are of utmost importance. While a lateral neck radiograph may be performed to confirm the diagnosis, the presence of a thumb sign is a strong indicator of an enlarged and inflamed epiglottis.

      It is important to note that the steeple sign, which is a radiological finding suggestive of croup, is not present in this case. Croup typically presents with a barking cough, rather than drooling and general malaise.

      Similarly, the sail sign, which is indicative of left lower lobe collapse and lower respiratory tract obstruction, is not relevant to this case, as the child’s symptoms suggest upper airway obstruction.

      Finally, while widening of the prevertebral space is characteristic of a retropharyngeal abscess, this condition typically presents with a unilateral swelling of the neck and an inability to extend the neck, which is not observed in this case.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier.

      Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only by senior or airway trained staff. X-rays may be done if there is concern about a foreign body. A lateral view in acute epiglottitis will show swelling of the epiglottis, while a posterior-anterior view in croup will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the steeple sign.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those able to provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. If suspected, do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. Oxygen and intravenous antibiotics are also important in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is involved in a brawl at a pub and sustains a neck injury. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he presents with a drooping left eyelid, a constricted and non-reactive left pupil, and visible sweating on the right side of his face but not on the left.

      Which nervous structures are likely to have been damaged in the altercation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is characterized by ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis, which result from the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck due to damage to the cervical sympathetic chain located in the neck. In contrast, damage to the facial nerve would cause facial paralysis, while damage to the vagus nerve would affect autonomic and speech functions but not the face. Damage to the oculomotor nerve would result in an inability to move the eye and a dilated pupil, and a brachial plexus injury would only affect the arm.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past four days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy box. The pain is now severe and radiates down his left leg. During the examination, he experiences tingling sensations on the front of his left knee and the inner part of his calf. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The femoral stretch test is positive on the left side. Which nerve or nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 63-year-old man is being evaluated on the medical ward after undergoing surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man is being evaluated on the medical ward after undergoing surgery to remove a suspicious thyroid nodule. His vital signs are stable, his pain is adequately managed, and he is able to consume soft foods and drink oral fluids. He reports feeling generally fine, but has observed a hoarseness in his voice.

      What is the probable reason for his hoarseness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Hoarseness is often linked to recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, which can affect the opening of the vocal cords by innervating the posterior arytenoid muscles. This type of damage can result from surgery, such as thyroidectomy, or compression from tumors. On the other hand, glossopharyngeal nerve damage is more commonly associated with swallowing difficulties. Since the patient is able to consume food orally, a dry throat is unlikely to be the cause of her hoarseness. While intubation trauma could cause vocal changes, the absence of pain complaints makes it less likely. Additionally, the lack of other symptoms suggests that an upper respiratory tract infection is not the cause.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.

      During the examination, it is observed that his left pupil is constricted with enophthalmos and ptosis of the left eyelid. However, the right side of his face appears to be unaffected.

      What could be the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Carotid artery dissection is the likely cause of the patient’s Horner’s syndrome, which presents with ptosis, enophthalmos, and miosis. This syndrome occurs when there is damage to the cervical sympathetic chain, resulting in the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck. The patient’s history of hypertension and headache further support this diagnosis.

      Facial nerve schwannoma is an incorrect diagnosis, as it would present with facial nerve palsy rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Microvascular oculomotor nerve palsy is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with complete ptosis and an eye that is turned outwards and downwards, without pupil dilatation.

      Uncal herniation is another incorrect diagnosis, as it can cause an oculomotor nerve palsy with pupillary involvement, but typically presents with a ‘down and out’ facing eye, rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 28-year-old male is undergoing chemotherapy for testicular cancer and has been prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male is undergoing chemotherapy for testicular cancer and has been prescribed cisplatin. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes cross-linking of DNA

      Explanation:

      Cisplatin causes DNA cross-linking, leading to apoptosis in cancer cells. It is commonly used in chemotherapy for various cancers. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which is not the mechanism of cisplatin. Hydroxyurea inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and is used to treat different diseases. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerization and is used for breast cancer treatment. Fluorouracil blocks thymidylate synthase during S phase, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, but it is not the mechanism of cisplatin.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A female patient experiences scapular winging after undergoing a Patey mastectomy. What could...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient experiences scapular winging after undergoing a Patey mastectomy. What could be the probable reason behind this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to the long thoracic nerve during axillary dissection

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve is responsible for providing the serratus anterior muscle with its nerve supply. This nerve runs along the surface of the serratus anterior and can be at risk of damage during nodal dissection. While the pectoralis minor muscle is typically divided during a Patey mastectomy (which is now uncommon), it is unlikely to cause scapular winging on its own.

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of allopurinol for gout management. He displays redness covering 40% of his skin, with skin separation upon pressure. The patient also exhibits pyrexia and tachycardia.

      What are the acute complications that require close monitoring by the healthcare team in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid loss, electrolyte derangement

      Explanation:

      Both frostbite and necrotizing fasciitis can lead to complications similar to those seen in burn patients, including volume loss, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, and secondary infections. Despite the initial fever, the break in the skin can cause hypothermia.

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 67-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after being found collapsed on the floor by his wife. Although he did not lose consciousness, he was confused, prompting his wife to call for help. The patient has a medical history of untreated osteoporosis.

      Upon receiving his blood results, the attending physician notes an abnormally high level of a certain mineral found in bones. The physician decides to administer IV fluids and calcitonin.

      What effect will the given medication have on the patient's body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases plasma calcium and phosphate

      Explanation:

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts, leading to a decrease in plasma calcium and phosphate levels. This suggests that the patient is likely experiencing a hypercalcaemic crisis due to their multiple myeloma.

      The parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid release calcitonin in response to hypercalcaemia. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, calcitonin prevents the release of calcium and phosphate from bone resorption. Therefore, the correct answer is the fourth option.

      PTH, on the other hand, increases the release of phosphate from bones and its absorption from the intestines. However, it also reduces phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the kidney. PTH is released in response to hypocalcaemia, causing the release of calcium from bones and increasing calcium absorption from the gut and kidneys.

      Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels

      Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.

      Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.

      Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. As part of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. As part of her pre-operative evaluation, it is discovered that she is taking furosemide to manage her high blood pressure. What is the location of action for this diuretic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Furosemide and bumetanide are diuretics that work by blocking the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which decreases the reabsorption of NaCl.

      Diuretic drugs are classified into three major categories based on the location where they inhibit sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending loop of Henle, thiazide diuretics on the distal tubule and connecting segment, and potassium sparing diuretics on the aldosterone-sensitive principal cells in the cortical collecting tubule. Sodium is reabsorbed in the kidney through Na+/K+ ATPase pumps located on the basolateral membrane, which return reabsorbed sodium to the circulation and maintain low intracellular sodium levels. This ensures a constant concentration gradient.

      The physiological effects of commonly used diuretics vary based on their site of action. furosemide, a loop diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and can result in up to 25% of filtered sodium being excreted. Thiazide diuretics, which act on the distal tubule and connecting segment, inhibit the Na+Cl- carrier and typically result in between 3 and 5% of filtered sodium being excreted. Finally, spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the cortical collecting tubule and typically results in between 1 and 2% of filtered sodium being excreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A young physician encounters two patients with ulnar nerve palsy in rapid succession....

    Incorrect

    • A young physician encounters two patients with ulnar nerve palsy in rapid succession. The initial patient has a wrist injury and displays a severe hand deformity resembling a claw. The subsequent patient has an elbow injury and exhibits a similar, albeit less severe, deformity. What is the reason for the counterintuitive observation that the presentation is milder at the site of injury closer to the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denervation of flexor digitorum profundus muscle

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the proximal ulnar nerve result in the loss of function of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, leading to a decrease in finger flexion and a reduction in the claw-like appearance seen in more distal injuries. This process does not involve the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle or any protective action from surrounding muscles.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 1, is scheduled for a caesarian-section. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 1, is scheduled for a caesarian-section. During the procedure, it is crucial to avoid damaging certain structures, such as the bladder and its vascular supply, to prevent complications. What is the female bladder's venous drainage structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicouterine venous plexus

      Explanation:

      The vesicouterine venous plexus is responsible for draining the bladder in females, while the vesicoprostatic venous plexus serves the same function in males by connecting the prostatic venous plexus and vesical plexuses. The pampiniform plexus is responsible for draining the ovaries in females. It is important to note that the terms vesicorectal and vesicovaginal plexuses are not accurate anatomical structures, but rather refer to fistulas that may form between the bladder and nearby structures.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 54-year-old man was admitted 2 weeks ago for pneumonia and was prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man was admitted 2 weeks ago for pneumonia and was prescribed oral antibiotics. However, the antibiotics were changed after he developed a Clostridium difficile infection 9 days ago, which he is still recovering from. Fortunately, his pneumonia has improved.

      He has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications.

      What are the expected results of his arterial blood gas test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea caused by a Clostridium difficile infection can result in a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. The body compensates for this by increasing chloride concentration, which maintains a normal anion gap. Low anion gap metabolic acidosis, normal anion gap metabolic alkalosis, and raised anion gap metabolic acidosis are all incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the compensatory mechanisms in this scenario.

      Understanding Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.

      Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.

      Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which of the following is accountable for the production and discharge of calcitonin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is accountable for the production and discharge of calcitonin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland releases calcitonin, which has an opposing effect to PTH.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 75-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with complaints of gradually worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with complaints of gradually worsening peripheral vision and a progressive headache that is worse at night. During the cranial nerve exam, a superior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed, but eye movements are intact. The rest of the cranial nerve and neurological examinations are unremarkable.

      Which region of the brain is likely affected by the lesion causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Superior homonymous quadrantanopias occur when there are lesions in the inferior optic radiations located in the temporal lobe. The location of the lesion can be determined by analyzing the pattern of the visual field defect. Lesions in front of the optic chiasm cause incongruous defects, while lesions at the optic chiasm cause bitemporal/binasal hemianopias. Lesions behind the optic chiasm result in homonymous hemianopias, such as the superior homonymous quadrantanopia in this case. The optic radiations carry nerve signals from the optic chiasm to the occipital lobe. Lesions in the inferior aspect of the optic radiation cause superior visual field defects, while lesions in the superior aspect of the optic radiation cause inferior visual field defects. Therefore, the lesion causing the superior homonymous quadrantanopia in this woman must be located in the inferior aspect of the optic radiation in the temporal lobe. Lesions compressing the lateral aspect of the optic chiasm cause nasal/binasal visual field defects, while lesions to the optic nerve before the optic chiasm result in an incongruous homonymous hemianopia affecting the same eye. Parietal lobe lesions can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopias, but not superior homonymous quadrantanopias. Compression of the superior optic chiasm causes bitemporal hemianopias, not homonymous hemianopias.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 3-day-old baby was brought to the emergency department by their 35-year-old mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old baby was brought to the emergency department by their 35-year-old mother due to difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the baby has been feeding poorly since birth, appeared lethargic, and has slightly yellow skin. The baby was born at 37 weeks' gestation and is the younger of a pair of twins. They were delivered via normal vaginal delivery with no complications and had a birth weight of 3.8 kg. The baby has been exclusively breastfed since birth. The mother did not regularly attend antenatal checkups and is unsure of her group B Streptococcus status.

      During examination, the baby is observed to be tachypnoeic with expiratory grunting and nasal flaring. The baby is visibly jaundiced up to the chest, with a temperature of 38.9ºC, a heart rate of 200 beats per minute (normal heart rate for newborn: 120 - 160 beats per minute), and a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute (normal respiratory rate: 40 - 60 breaths per minute).

      What is a potential risk factor for the current presentation of this 3-day-old baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal group B Streptococcus colonisation

      Explanation:

      Early-onset neonatal sepsis in a two-day-old infant may be caused by maternal group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonisation, which is a common coloniser of the vaginal tract and can be transmitted to the newborn during delivery. This can lead to symptoms such as lethargy, jaundice, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and poor capillary refill time, which may indicate septic shock.

      However, being large for gestational age, advanced maternal age, or having multiple gestations are not known risk factors for neonatal sepsis. Instead, they are associated with other complications such as shoulder dystocia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, spontaneous abortions, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, IUGR, and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome.

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A child is diagnosed with Klumpke's palsy after birth. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A child is diagnosed with Klumpke's palsy after birth. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of flexors of the wrist

      Explanation:

      Klumpke’s paralysis is characterized by several features, including claw hand with extended MCP joints and flexed IP joints, loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the forearm and hand, Horner’s syndrome, and loss of flexors of the wrist. This condition is caused by a C8, T1 root lesion, which typically occurs during delivery when the arm is extended.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of progressive dyspnoea and dry cough with occasional haemoptysis. She has been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, smoking 50 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, reduced air entry is noted in the right upper lung field. The patient appears cachectic with a BMI of 18kg/m². A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a rounded opacity in the apical region of the right lung.

      What are the most indicative ocular signs of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Partial ptosis and constricted pupil

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation of partial ptosis and constricted pupil is consistent with Horner’s syndrome. This is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in the apical region of the right lung, which can compress the sympathetic chain and cause a lack of sympathetic innervation. This results in partial ptosis, pupillary constriction, and anhidrosis. Complete ptosis and dilated pupil would be seen in traumatic oculomotor nerve palsy, while exophthalmos and dilated pupil are associated with Grave’s eye disease. Lid lag and normal pupil size are commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, but should not be confused with ptosis and Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood test is requested to check PTH levels, serum calcium, phosphate and vitamin D.

      Which of the following levels also need to be specifically checked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is magnesium, as it is necessary for the secretion and function of parathyroid hormone. Adequate magnesium levels are required for the hormone to have its desired effects. CRP, urea, and platelets are not relevant to this situation and do not need to be tested.

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses....

    Incorrect

    • A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses. Meanwhile, they criticize a fellow intern for being unreliable and inept in their duties.

      Which ego defense mechanism is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to...

    Incorrect

    • The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to the production of glucose and galactose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 50-year-old alcoholic has been brought to the emergency department by his sister....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old alcoholic has been brought to the emergency department by his sister. His sister reports that he has been disoriented for the past few days and has had a few falls. Upon examination, he displays an unstable gait. He is unable to recall the name of the first female prime minister of the UK or the trip to the emergency department. He insists that he went to the beach yesterday - which his sister denies. Based on the presented symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a complication of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, include anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. This patient initially presented with confusion and an unsteady gait, which are signs of ataxia associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. However, the presence of anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation suggests that the patient’s condition has progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically affects memory in a gradual and progressive manner.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.

      The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What is the mechanism of action of heparin in elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of heparin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Unfractionated heparin works by activating antithrombin III, which then forms a complex that inhibits several clotting factors including thrombin, factors Xa, Ixa, Xia, and XIIa.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the acute surgical unit with profuse vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the acute surgical unit with profuse vomiting. Admission bloods show the following:

      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 2.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 56 mol/l
      Glucose 4.3 mmol/l

      What ECG feature is most likely to be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: U waves

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which one of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury

      Explanation:

      Neuropraxia typically results in full recovery within 6-8 weeks after nerve injury, and Wallerian degeneration is not a common occurrence. Additionally, autonomic function is typically maintained.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus but cannot...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus but cannot tolerate metformin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of alogliptin, which has been prescribed as an alternative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the peripheral breakdown of incretins

      Explanation:

      Gliptins (DPP-4 inhibitors) work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which reduces the breakdown of incretin hormones such as GLP-1. This leads to a glucose-dependent increase in insulin secretion and a reduction in glucagon secretion, ultimately regulating glucose homeostasis. However, gliptins do not increase the production of GLP-1, directly stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells, inhibit the SGLT2 receptor, or reduce insulin resistance.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 31-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of feeling constantly tired,...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of feeling constantly tired, lacking energy, and experiencing severe headaches. She reports a loss of libido and irregular menstrual cycles. During an eye exam, bitemporal hemianopia is detected, and an MRI scan reveals a non-functional pituitary tumor that is pressing on an artery. Which artery is being compressed by the patient's tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after falling at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after falling at home. Upon admission, his blood tests reveal a sodium level of 128 mmol/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including Sertraline, which can cause SIADH. However, medications such as Statins, Levothyroxine, and Metformin are not typically linked to hyponatremia.

      SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. Upon admission,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal the following:

      Magnesium 0.40 mmol/l (normal value 0.7-1.0 mmol/l)

      What is the most probable cause for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

      Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 95-year-old man is discovered collapsed in his residence and is transported to...

    Incorrect

    • A 95-year-old man is discovered collapsed in his residence and is transported to the hospital. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with dehydration and hypotension, prompting the release of renin by the juxtaglomerular cells. What is the mechanism of action of renin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrolyse angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin I is formed when renin breaks down angiotensinogen, which is a process that occurs within the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and is facilitated by juxtaglomerular cells.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 65-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchogenic carcinoma. When the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchogenic carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be situated furthest back in the anatomical plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      At the lung root, the phrenic nerve is situated in the most anterior position while the vagus nerve is located at the posterior end.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a femoral condyle fracture dislocation in an older adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      The fracture segment can be pulled backwards by the contraction of the gastrocnemius heads, which may result in damage or compression of the popliteal artery that runs adjacent to the bone.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • What muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles Involved in Ankle and Toe Movements

      The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, which means it helps lift the foot upwards towards the shin. On the other hand, the tibialis posterior, soleus, and gastrocnemius muscles are involved in plantar flexion, which is the movement of pointing the foot downwards. These muscles work together to push the foot off the ground during walking or running.

      Another muscle involved in foot movement is the flexor digitorum longus, which is responsible for flexion of the second to fifth toes. This muscle helps curl the toes downwards towards the sole of the foot. All of these muscles play important roles in the complex movements of the foot and ankle, allowing us to walk, run, jump, and perform other activities that require precise control of our lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 29-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of a malodorous...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of a malodorous discharge from his right ear for the past 3 weeks. The patient also reports experiencing ear pain for the past 2 weeks and occasional mild dizziness. Upon examination, the skin around the ear and pinna appear normal, but the ear canal is filled with debris. After removing the debris, a small perforation and waxy debris are observed on the tympanic membrane.

      The Rinne test indicates that bone conduction is better than air conduction on the right, and the Weber test shows sound lateralization to the right. The patient has no significant medical history and has never presented with an ear problem before.

      What is the most likely condition based on this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      Cholesteatoma is a growth of non-cancerous squamous epithelium that can be observed as an ‘attic crust’ during otoscopy. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with cholesteatoma, including ear discharge, earache, conductive hearing loss, and dizziness, which suggests that the inner ear has also been affected. It is important to distinguish cholesteatoma from otitis externa, as failure to diagnose cholesteatoma can lead to serious complications. Cholesteatoma can erode the ossicles bones, damage the inner ear and vestibulocochlear nerve, and even result in brain infections if it erodes through the skull bone.

      Otitis externa is an inflammation of the outer ear canal that causes ear pain, which worsens with movement of the outer ear. It is often caused by the use of earplugs or swimming in unclean water. Otitis media is an inflammation of the middle ear that can lead to fluid accumulation and perforation of the tympanic membrane. It is common in children and often follows a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Myringitis is a condition associated with otitis media that causes small vesicles or cysts to form on the surface of the eardrum, resulting in severe pain and hearing impairment. It is caused by viral or bacterial infections and is treated with pain relief and antibiotics.

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats that have been ongoing for the past 2 months. During the examination, the GP discovers cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. The patient is referred to the hospital for further investigation, which includes a biopsy of her cervical lymph nodes.

      The biopsy report reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. These cells belong to the same lineage as which of the following cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NK cells

      Explanation:

      Common lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to NK cells, as well as B-cells and T-cells. The biopsy of the patient in this case reveals Reed-Sternberg cells, indicating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer of B-cells. Platelets, monocytes, basophils, and erythrocytes, on the other hand, are derived from common myeloid progenitor cells.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without...

    Incorrect

    • Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without being separated by peritoneum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal Structures in Proximity to the Left Kidney

      The retroperitoneal structures that are in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney include the pancreas, adrenal gland, and colon. While the pancreas is the only structure commonly listed as retroperitoneal, it is important to note that the adrenal gland and colon also share this classification and are located in close proximity to the left kidney.

      According to Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, which focuses on the urinary organs, the location and relationship of these structures is important for medical professionals. By knowing the retroperitoneal structures in proximity to the left kidney, doctors can better diagnose and treat conditions that may affect these organs.

      In summary, while the pancreas is commonly listed as the only retroperitoneal structure in contact with the left kidney, it is important to also consider the adrenal gland and colon in this classification. the location and relationship of these structures is crucial for medical professionals in providing effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall. She has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, and is a smoker with a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her family history includes high cholesterol in her father and older sister, who both passed away due to a heart attack.

      The patient denies any head trauma from the fall and has a regular pulse of 78 bpm. Upon conducting a full neurological examination, it is discovered that her left arm and left leg have a power of 3/5. Additionally, her smile is asymmetrical and droops on the left side.

      What is the most probable underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emboli caused by atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Intracerebral haemorrhage is not the most probable cause of all strokes. Hence, it is crucial to conduct a CT head scan to eliminate the possibility of haemorrhagic stroke before initiating treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 52-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic with a 3 day history of leg pain, fever and nausea. She suspects that a scratch she got from a thorn bush while picking blackberries might have caused it and is worried as the redness seems to be spreading. She has not been immobile recently. Upon further questioning, she mentions having a similar incident a few years ago after a long flight.

      During the examination, you observe that the woman is overweight and calculate her body mass index to be 33kg/m². Her vital signs are all within normal limits, except for a temperature of 38.2ºC. The woman's left leg appears to be swollen and red compared to the right. There is a small cluster of scratches in the middle of the lesion.

      What is the initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea that have persisted for 8 months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming meals, particularly those high in carbohydrates. During the examination, the gastroenterologist observes no significant abdominal findings but notices rashes on her elbows and knees. As part of her diagnostic workup, the gastroenterologist is contemplating endoscopy and small bowel biopsy. What is the probable biopsy result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease can be diagnosed through a biopsy that shows villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes, and crypt hyperplasia. This condition is likely the cause of the patient’s chronic symptoms, which are triggered by meals containing gluten. Fortunately, adhering to a strict gluten-free diet can reverse the villous atrophy. In some cases, coeliac disease may also present with a vesicular rash called dermatitis herpetiformis. Other pathological findings, such as mucosal defects, irregular gland-like structures, or transmural inflammation with granulomas and lymphoid aggregates, suggest different diseases.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which of the following statements about interleukin 1 (IL-1) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about interleukin 1 (IL-1) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes

      Explanation:

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What is the most frequent brain tumour in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent brain tumour in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      While astrocytoma is the most prevalent brain tumor in children, glioblastoma multiforme is a rare occurrence. Additionally, medulloblastoma is no longer the primary CNS tumor in children, according to Cancer Research UK.

      Understanding CNS Tumours: Types, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      CNS tumours can be classified into different types, with glioma and metastatic disease accounting for 60% of cases, followed by meningioma at 20%, and pituitary lesions at 10%. In paediatric practice, medulloblastomas used to be the most common lesions, but astrocytomas now make up the majority. The location of the tumour can affect the onset of symptoms, with those in the speech and visual areas producing early symptoms, while those in the right temporal and frontal lobe may reach considerable size before becoming symptomatic.

      Diagnosis of CNS tumours is best done through MRI scanning, which provides the best resolution. Treatment usually involves surgery, even if the tumour cannot be completely resected. Tumour debulking can address conditions such as rising ICP and prolong survival and quality of life. Curative surgery is possible for lesions such as meningiomas, but gliomas have a marked propensity to invade normal brain tissue, making complete resection nearly impossible.

      Overall, understanding the types, diagnosis, and treatment of CNS tumours is crucial in managing these conditions and improving patient outcomes. With the right approach, patients can receive timely and effective treatment that addresses their symptoms and improves their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 25-year-old man is in a car accident and experiences initial wrist extension...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is in a car accident and experiences initial wrist extension difficulty that gradually improves. What type of injury is probable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve neuropraxia

      Explanation:

      Neuropraxia is the most probable injury due to the transient loss of function. The radial nerve innervates the wrist extensors, indicating that this area is the most likely site of damage.

      Neuropraxia: A Temporary Nerve Injury with Full Recovery

      Neuropraxia is a type of nerve injury where the nerve remains intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, the myelin sheath that surrounds the nerve remains intact, which means that the nerve can still transmit signals. The good news is that neuropraxia is a temporary condition, and full recovery is expected. Additionally, autonomic function is preserved, which means that the body’s automatic functions such as breathing and heart rate are not affected. Unlike other types of nerve injuries, Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of the nerve fibers, does not occur in neuropraxia. Overall, neuropraxia is a relatively minor nerve injury that does not cause permanent damage and can be expected to fully heal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sural nerve lies medial to the Achilles tendon at its point of insertion

      Explanation:

      The distal fibula is located in front of the sural nerve. Subtalar movements involve inversion and eversion. When passing behind the medial malleolus from front to back, the structures include the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial artery, nerve, and flexor hallucis longus.

      Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

      The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.

      The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.

      Reference:
      Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semitendinosus

      Explanation:

      The Flexors of the Knee Joint and Other Related Muscles

      The muscles responsible for flexing the knee joint are the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. On the other hand, the quadriceps femoris and sartorius muscles are involved in hip flexion, although the latter is weak despite being the longest muscle in the body. Lastly, the soleus muscle is responsible for ankle plantar flexion.

      In summary, the flexors of the knee joint are composed of four muscles, while other related muscles are involved in hip flexion and ankle plantar flexion. the functions of these muscles is essential in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A pair is attempting to conceive and would like to learn more about...

    Incorrect

    • A pair is attempting to conceive and would like to learn more about the initial phases of embryo growth. They have come across information online stating that the embryo begins as a cluster of cells that reorganize to create a complex, layered being.

      What is the term for this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrulation

      Explanation:

      During gastrulation, a cluster of cells transforms into a complex organism with multiple layers.

      The morula undergoes compaction, causing the cells to become more tightly packed and less distinguishable.

      Neurulation involves the creation of the neural tube, which is achieved mainly through the folding of the neuroectoderm.

      Early development involves cleavage, which is the process of cell division.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic with her husband after attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic with her husband after attempting a dehydration detox. She appears confused and drowsy, and reports having vomited three times in the past 12 hours without passing urine. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis, anxiety, hypothyroidism, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic lower back pain.

      During the examination, you observe dry mucous membranes, a pulse rate of 112/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, a blood pressure of 97/65 mmHg, a temperature of 37.1ºC, and O2 saturation of 98%.

      Given the patient's condition, you suspect that she requires immediate hospital care and refer her to the emergency department.

      What medication should be stopped immediately for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      In cases of AKI, it is recommended to discontinue the use of angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as Losartan as they can worsen renal function by reducing renal perfusion. This is because angiotensin II plays a role in constricting systemic blood vessels and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus, which increases GFR. Blocking angiotensin II can lead to a drop in systemic blood pressure and dilation of the efferent glomerular arteriole, which can exacerbate kidney impairment.

      Cetirizine is not the most important medication to discontinue in AKI, as it is a non-sedating antihistamine and is unlikely to be a major cause of drowsiness. Diazepam may be contributing to drowsiness and is excreted in the urine, but sudden discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Levothyroxine does not need to be stopped in AKI as thyroid hormones are primarily metabolized in the liver and are not considered high risk in renal impairment.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of recurring infections such as sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia. Upon examination, the patient's IgM levels are elevated, while IgA, IgG, and IgE levels are low. This indicates an immune disorder that affects the class switching of B cell antibodies, leading to an inability of immunoglobulins to differentiate from the IgM isotype.

      What factors are crucial for this process to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Th2 cells

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin class switching is a process where B cells change their production of immunoglobulin from one type to another. This process is facilitated by Th2 cells, which provide specific signals to activated B cells via their CD40 and cytokine receptors. Hypergammaglobulinaemia, an immune disorder affecting antibody production, may occur when there are abnormalities in B cell class switching due to insufficient signalling from T helper cells or an inability of B cells to receive these signals. Cytotoxic T cells do not play a role in antibody formation, while Th1 cells work alongside cytotoxic T cells and macrophages as part of the cellular immune system. Macrophages, on the other hand, function as antigen presenting cells in the adaptive immune response.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for investigation of recently developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for investigation of recently developed hypertension, myalgia, and a facial rash. She experiences a decline in kidney function and complains of muscle aches and ankle swelling during her hospital stay. A kidney biopsy and urine sample are taken, revealing a proliferative 'wire-loop' glomerular lesion on histopathological assessment. The urinalysis shows proteinuria but no presence of leukocytes or nitrites. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Lupus nephritis is characterized by proliferative ‘wire-loop’ glomerular histology, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms. This condition occurs when autoimmune processes in SLE cause inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Symptoms may include oedema, myalgia, arthralgia, hypertension, and foamy-appearing urine due to high levels of protein. Acute tubular necrosis primarily affects the tubules and does not typically present with proteinuria. Congestive heart failure and IgA nephropathy can cause proteinuria, but they do not result in the ‘wire-loop’ glomerular lesion seen in lupus nephritis. Pyelonephritis may also cause proteinuria, but it is an infectious process and would present with additional symptoms such as nitrites, leukocytes, and blood in the urine.

      Renal Complications in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can lead to severe renal complications, including lupus nephritis, which can result in end-stage renal disease. Regular check-ups with urinalysis are necessary to detect proteinuria in SLE patients. The WHO classification system categorizes lupus nephritis into six classes, with class IV being the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy shows characteristic findings such as endothelial and mesangial proliferation, a wire-loop appearance, and subendothelial immune complex deposits.

      Management of lupus nephritis involves treating hypertension and using glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide for initial therapy in cases of focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis. Mycophenolate is generally preferred over azathioprine for subsequent therapy to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease. Early detection and proper management of renal complications in SLE patients are crucial to prevent irreversible damage to the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A pregnant woman at 14 weeks gestation arrives at the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman at 14 weeks gestation arrives at the emergency department after experiencing an epileptiform seizure preceded by deja vu. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and 24-hour urine protein is 100 mg, but there is no indication of fetal growth restriction. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe epilepsy is commonly associated with deja vu, as the hippocampus in the temporal lobe plays a role in memory. The only other possible condition is eclampsia, as pre-eclampsia does not involve seizures and absence seizures are more frequent in children. However, eclampsia is not the correct diagnosis in this case as the patient does not have hypertension, her proteinuria is not significant (which is typically over 300 mg/24 hours), and there is no evidence of fetal growth restriction. Although this last point is not always present in eclampsia, it is a potential indicator.

      Epilepsy Classification: Understanding Seizures

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The classification of epilepsy has undergone changes in recent years, with the new basic seizure classification based on three key features. The first feature is where seizures begin in the brain, followed by the level of awareness during a seizure, which is important as it can affect safety during a seizure. The third feature is other features of seizures.

      Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, and awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be classified as motor or non-motor, or having other features such as aura.

      Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. The level of awareness in the above classification is not needed, as all patients lose consciousness. Generalized seizures can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor, with specific types including tonic-clonic, tonic, clonic, typical absence, and atonic.

      Unknown onset is a term reserved for when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizure starts on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes, previously known as secondary generalized seizures. Understanding the classification of epilepsy and the different types of seizures can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal gland - zona glomerulosa of the cortex

      Explanation:

      Hormones Produced by the Adrenal Glands

      The adrenal glands are responsible for producing various hormones that are essential for the body’s proper functioning. The central core of the adrenal glands is called the medulla, where catecholamines such as adrenaline and noradrenaline are produced. On the other hand, the cortex surrounding the medulla is divided into three layers: zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The zona glomerulosa is responsible for producing aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid hormone that promotes sodium retention and loss of potassium and hydrogen ions. Hyperaldosteronism, or excessive aldosterone production, is associated with hypertension.

      Cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone that is essential for life, is produced in the zona fasciculata. It causes increased blood sugar levels, stabilizes membranes, stimulates appetite, and suppresses the immune/hypersensitivity response. Adrenal androgens, such as DHEA and androstenedione, are produced in the zona reticularis in both males and females. However, their production is low until the adrenarche, which occurs around the time of puberty.

      The renal juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized group of cells in the kidney that secretes renin and regulates the glomerular filtration rate to control sodium excretion. Overall, the adrenal glands play a crucial role in maintaining the body’s homeostasis by producing various hormones that regulate different physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical team suspects bleeding oesophageal varices and prescribes terlipressin. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse and examination reveals ascites.

      Why was terlipressin prescribed in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels

      Explanation:

      Terlipressin works by constricting the splanchnic vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance and promotes renal fluid reabsorption. This leads to an increase in arterial pressure and helps to treat hypovolaemic hypotension. Terlipressin also has a sympathetic stimulating effect and is an analogue of vasopressin.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Following the administration of lorazepam to a severely agitated senior patient, the nursing...

    Incorrect

    • Following the administration of lorazepam to a severely agitated senior patient, the nursing staff contacts you to report a decrease in respiratory rate and the patient's unresponsiveness. What medication would be suitable for reversing the adverse effects of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      Reversing the Effects of Benzodiazepines

      Benzodiazepines work by binding to GABA receptors in the central nervous system, which enhances the calming and sleep-inducing effects of this neurotransmitter. However, these effects can be reversed by administering flumazenil. On the other hand, naloxone is used to counteract the effects of opiate overdose, while protamine is used to reverse the effects of excessive heparinization.

      In the case of benzodiazepine overdose, it is important to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate ventilation. Additionally, administering flumazenil through a bag valve mask can help to reverse the effects of the drug. By doing so, the patient’s breathing and consciousness can be restored to normal levels. Proper management of benzodiazepine overdose is crucial in preventing serious complications and ensuring the patient’s safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia and is prescribed finasteride....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia and is prescribed finasteride. He is informed that the drug works by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, thereby preventing further enlargement of the prostate. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The enzyme 5-alpha-reductase is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the testes and prostate. DHT is a more active form of testosterone. Finasteride is a medication that inhibits 5-alpha-reductase, preventing the conversion of testosterone to DHT. This can help prevent further growth of the prostate and is why finasteride is used clinically.

      Alpha-1 agonist is an incorrect answer as it refers to adrenergic receptors and does not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT. These drugs are used for benign prostate hyperplasia to relax smooth muscles in the bladder, reducing urinary symptoms. Tamsulosin is an example of an alpha-1 agonist.

      Androgen antagonist is also incorrect as these drugs block the action of testosterone and DHT by preventing their attachment to receptors. They do not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT.

      Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone modulators are also an incorrect answer. These drugs affect the hypothalamus and the production of gonadotrophs, such as luteinizing hormone. They do not affect the conversion of testosterone to DHT.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Eve, a 67-year-old female, is undergoing endovascular surgery to repair an abdominal aortic...

    Incorrect

    • Eve, a 67-year-old female, is undergoing endovascular surgery to repair an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The surgeon places the stent in the aorta and common iliac arteries, as the aneurysm is located just above the aortic bifurcation. What is the level of the bifurcation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The point at which the aorta divides into the common iliac arteries is located at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4). The renal arteries originate at the level of the second lumbar vertebrae (L2), while the inferior mesenteric artery originates at the level of the third lumbar vertebrae (L3). The posterior superior iliac spines are located at the level of the second sacral vertebrae (S2).

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding...

    Incorrect

    • An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding blood transfusion reactions. Which of her subsequent statements is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation

      Explanation:

      A helpful mnemonic for remembering transfusion reactions is Got a bad unit. Each letter represents a potential complication:

      G – Graft vs. Host disease
      O – Overload
      T – Thrombocytopenia
      A – Alloimmunization
      B – Blood pressure unstable
      A – Acute hemolytic reaction
      D – Delayed hemolytic reaction
      U – Urticaria
      N – Neutrophilia
      I – Infection
      T – Transfusion-associated lung injury

      Graft vs. Host disease occurs when the patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, causing severe complications. Thrombocytopenia may occur a few days after transfusion and may resolve on its own. Patients with IGA antibodies require IgA deficient blood transfusions.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a burn on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a burn on his arm. The on-call plastic surgeon wants to prevent infection and prescribes a dressing containing an antibiotic that inhibits folic acid formation. Which antibiotic works via this mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfadiazine (a sulphonamide)

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A gynaecologist is performing a laparoscopic hysterectomy on a 45-year-old patient. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A gynaecologist is performing a laparoscopic hysterectomy on a 45-year-old patient. He is being careful to avoid damaging a structure that runs close to the vaginal fornices.

      What is the structure that the gynaecologist is most likely being cautious of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureter

      Explanation:

      The correct statements are:

      – The ureter enters the bladder trigone after passing only 1 cm away from the vaginal fornices, which is closer than other structures.
      – The ilioinguinal nerve originates from the first lumbar nerve (L1).
      – The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
      – The descending colon starts at the splenic flexure and ends at the beginning of the sigmoid colon.
      – The obturator nerve arises from the ventral divisions of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - As a single-handed GP in a rural area, you come across a 35-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a single-handed GP in a rural area, you come across a 35-year-old woman named Sarah who is expecting her fourth child. She expresses her dissatisfaction with the care she received at the local hospital during her previous pregnancies, but there were no reported adverse events. Sarah lives in a remote farmhouse and is adamant about having a home birth. However, the midwives are too far away to reach her in time for the delivery, and she has no plans to contact them until she is in active labor. Her residence is located near your home. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss her past experiences in detail and try and persuade her to involve the community midwifery or hospital-based obstetric team in her birth. If she does not agree then ensure the risks of home birth are discussed and that her and her family know what the early signs of perinatal problems are and what to do. Offer ongoing support throughout her pregnancy and during the perinatal period

      Explanation:

      Balancing Autonomy and Risk in Home Birth Decision Making

      This is a complex situation where the GP needs to consider the autonomy of the patient, Marie, and the potential risks of home birth to her and her unborn child. The GP also needs to balance their responsibilities to Marie with their obligations to other patients. While parous women and their newborns are not at significantly increased risk with well-trained midwives present, Marie’s social circumstances may increase the risk of adverse outcomes. However, involving the child protection team would be inappropriate at this stage.

      As primary care services are not equipped to provide round-the-clock obstetric cover, guaranteeing 24-hour availability may not be feasible and could lead to inadequate care for other patients. Simply suggesting that Marie call 999 in case of problems would also not be sufficient. The best approach would be to discuss Marie’s past experiences and try to persuade her to involve the community midwifery or hospital-based obstetric team. If she refuses, the GP should ensure that the risks of home birth are discussed, and Marie and her family are aware of the early signs of perinatal problems and what to do. Ongoing support should be offered throughout the pregnancy and perinatal period. This approach balances Marie’s autonomy with the risks involved in a non-paternalistic manner, while providing adequate primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Law
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 38-year-old woman with a new diagnosis of HIV is in discussion with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a new diagnosis of HIV is in discussion with her doctor regarding treatment options. Despite having a normal CD4 count, the doctor suggests starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and proposes using emtricitabine and tenofovir as the backbone with various options for the third drug. The patient and doctor agree to use dolutegravir as the third drug.

      What is the mode of action of dolutegravir?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents viral DNA from being inserted into the host genome

      Explanation:

      Integrase inhibitors, also known as ‘gravirs’, prevent viral DNA from being inserted into the host genome by blocking the integrase enzyme responsible for inserting the HIV viral genome into the DNA of the host cell. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) bind directly to viral reverse transcriptase, while nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) prevent synthesis of double-stranded viral DNA through chain termination. Protease inhibitors bind directly to viral protease to prevent viral replication, and CCR5 fusion inhibitors negatively modulate the CCR5 chemokine co-receptor used by HIV to enter T cells. Mnemonics such as TEG in the name of integrase inhibitors and -vir- in the middle of NNRTIs can aid in remembering the different classes of HIV medications, but there are exceptions to these memory aides.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly retired manual labourer in his late 60s presents to his GP with a complaint of gradual loss of extension in his 4th and 5th finger. During the examination, the doctor observes the presence of nodules between the affected fingers.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dupuytren's contracture

      Explanation:

      Dupuytren’s contracture commonly affects the ring finger and little finger, particularly in older males. This condition causes nodules and cord development in the palmar fascia, resulting in flexion at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.

      Trigger finger causes stiffness, pain, and a locking sensation when flexing, making it difficult to extend the finger.

      Ganglion cysts, also known as bible cysts, are typically soft and found in the dorsal and volar aspect of the wrist. Many cysts will disappear on their own.

      Flexor tendon rupture is usually caused by trauma to the flexor tendon, such as a sports injury. This condition is typically acute and results in a sudden loss of flexion in the affected finger, often requiring surgery.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 40-year-old woman visits her GP after being treated at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her GP after being treated at the Emergency Department for a foreign body lodged in her throat for 2 days. Although the object has been removed, she is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Upon further questioning, she mentions altered sensation while swallowing, describing it as a sensation of 'not feeling like food is being swallowed' during meals.

      Which nerve or nerves are likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve is responsible for providing sensory information to the supraglottis and branches off from the superior laryngeal nerve. It is important to note that the cervical plexus, external laryngeal nerve, recurrent laryngeal nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve do not perform the same function as the internal laryngeal nerve.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A general practitioner is involved in a charity project to build a hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A general practitioner is involved in a charity project to build a hospital in Uganda and holds a weekly clinic. A 50-year-old farmer comes to the clinic with swollen legs and an enlarged scrotum. He is experiencing tenderness in his scrotum and is worried about being ostracised by his family if he does not receive treatment. On examination, there is evidence of hydrocele and the scrotal skin is swollen, leading to a suspected diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis). What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wuchereria bancrofti

      Explanation:

      African farmer experiences significant swelling in his legs and scrotum.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance. She reports experiencing painful episodes in her fingers for the past month, which turn white and then red. As a gardener, she requires a high level of manual dexterity for her job. The symptoms subside after she finishes her shift.

      What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exaggerated vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Raynaud’s disease, which is characterized by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response to the cold in the digital and cutaneous arteries. As the patient is young and has no history or features of an underlying rheumatological disease, it is more likely to be primary Raynaud’s disease rather than Raynaud’s phenomenon. While a blood clot or rheumatoid arthritis can also cause similar symptoms, the patient’s age and lack of relevant history make these less likely. Carpal tunnel syndrome and Cushing’s disease are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s hand pain.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center where he is receiving treatment for alcohol addiction. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with hypomagnesaemia. What are the possible symptoms that can arise due to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia, or low levels of magnesium in the blood, is a common electrolyte disturbance among inpatients. It can lead to serious complications, particularly cardiac arrhythmia, which can result in cardiac arrest. The condition is often caused by gastrointestinal loss of magnesium due to vomiting, high output stomas, fistulae, and malabsorption disorders. Poor nutritional input, renal losses of magnesium, and primary renal diseases can also contribute to hypomagnesaemia.

      Mild magnesium deficiency usually results in few or no symptoms, but severe deficiency can cause hypokalaemia and hypocalcaemia, as well as overlapping clinical features with hypocalcaemia and hypokalaemia. These symptoms include tetany, neuromuscular excitability, hypertonicity, palpitations, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.

      Mild hypomagnesaemia can be treated with oral magnesium salts, while severe cases require cautious intravenous correction. It is important to monitor and correct magnesium levels to prevent the development of cardiac dysrhythmia and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with epilepsy and is prescribed drug Y as...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with epilepsy and is prescribed drug Y as part of her treatment plan. Due to the narrow therapeutic index of drug Y, she will need to undergo regular blood tests to monitor her drug levels.

      Calculate the therapeutic index of drug Y:

      Minimum effective dose = 200 mg
      Median effective dose = 300mg
      Minimum toxic dose = 600mg
      Median toxic dose = 800 mg
      Median lethal dose = 1200mg

      2.67
      33%
      4
      20%
      6
      7%
      400
      30%
      600
      10%

      The 'Therapeutic Index' is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect. It is an important factor to consider when prescribing medication to ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

      To calculate the therapeutic index of drug Y, we use the median toxic dose (the dose at which 50% of people have undesired effects) divided by the median effective dose (the dose at which 50% of people have the desired effect).

      In this case:
      800 / 300 = 2.67

      Other options such as Median lethal dose / Median effective dose or Median toxic dose - median effective dose are not appropriate calculations for therapeutic index in humans. The therapeutic window, which is the range of doses that produce the desired effect in most patients with as few undesired effects as possible, is also an important consideration in medication management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      The LD50 or median lethal dose is not applicable to humans due to ethical reasons. The calculation of the minimum effective dose divided by the LD50 is incorrect and not useful. However, if a drug has a narrow therapeutic index, the result would be a smaller range of effective doses. The minimum toxic dose minus the minimum effective dose is also an incorrect calculation. This value represents the therapeutic window, which is the range of doses that produce the desired effect with minimal undesired effects in most patients.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Which group of pathogens can only cause disease by infecting cells from within?...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of pathogens can only cause disease by infecting cells from within?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viruses

      Explanation:

      Obligate Intracellular Parasites

      Viruses are unique pathogens that cannot survive without a host cell. They are considered non-living because they lack the ability to reproduce on their own. Instead, they rely on host cells to replicate and cause disease. Although viruses contain a genome and some form of casing, they are unable to reproduce without entering other cells.

      In contrast, other pathogens such as bacteria and protozoa are able to cause disease outside of host cells. However, there are some bacteria and protozoa that are also obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they require a host cell to survive and reproduce. Examples of these include Chlamydia and Rickettsia species, as well as malaria-causing protozoa. the unique characteristics of obligate intracellular parasites is important in developing effective treatments and prevention strategies for these types of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A routine ECG is performed on a 24-year-old man. Which segment of the...

    Incorrect

    • A routine ECG is performed on a 24-year-old man. Which segment of the tracing obtained indicates the repolarization of the atria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      During the QRS complex, the process of atrial repolarisation is typically not discernible on the ECG strip.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to osteomyelitis is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be treated by aggressive surgical debridement initially

      Explanation:

      The initial management involves medical treatment with an antistaphylococcal antibiotic, as opposed to septic joints where prompt joint washout is necessary.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A newborn is experiencing feeding difficulties, characterized by frequent choking and coughing during...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is experiencing feeding difficulties, characterized by frequent choking and coughing during breastfeeding and bottle feeding. However, there are no signs of excessive drooling or cyanosis during feeding, and physical examination reveals clear lungs and a heart without adventitial sounds. No external facial deformities are apparent, but an examination of the oral cavity shows a bony gap extending from the hard to soft palate. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What embryologic abnormality is responsible for this infant's feeding difficulties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure of the two lateral palatine shelves to fuse

      Explanation:

      Cleft palate occurs when the lateral palatine shelves or the lateral palatine shelves with the nasal septum do not fuse properly during embryonic development. This condition is not typically associated with genetic or chromosomal disorders and does not affect the appearance of the face. However, it can cause difficulties with feeding, including choking, coughing, aspiration, and poor weight gain in affected children. Other embryonic developmental errors can result in conditions such as cleft lip, tracheoesophageal fistula, and orbital hypertelorism.

      Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate

      Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. They are often isolated developmental malformations, but they can also be a component of more than 200 birth defects. The most common variants are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.

      The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance, and maternal antiepileptic use can increase the risk. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and the nasal septum to fuse.

      Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, and with speech therapy, 75% of children can develop normal speech. Cleft palate babies are at an increased risk of otitis media.

      Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.

      Overall, understanding cleft lip and palate is important for parents and healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and support for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed increased fetal nuchal translucency. Her combined test results indicate a diagnosis of Down's syndrome. She expresses her desire to terminate the pregnancy but is worried about the possibility of the condition being genetic and recurring in future pregnancies.

      What is the probable cytogenetic basis for this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal non-disjunction

      Explanation:

      Down’s syndrome is primarily caused by non-disjunction during maternal meiosis, which accounts for the majority of cases. Paternal errors contribute to only a small fraction of cases of Down’s syndrome. In rare cases, Robertsonian translocation can also be attributed to paternal DNA.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive at his home. He is vomiting, confused, and drowsy with pinpoint pupils. The patient is only responsive to pain, has a respiratory rate of 6/min with shallow breaths, a blood pressure of 65/90mmHg, and a heart rate of 50bpm. It is suspected that he has overdosed. What receptor does the drug class likely agonize?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mu, delta and kappa receptors

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with a severe headache, photophobia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with a severe headache, photophobia, and confusion that started earlier that day. There is no history of trauma, and he rates the pain as 9/10 in severity. The patient has no significant medical history and is only taking ketoconazole cream for a foot rash. Kernig's sign is positive, raising suspicion for meningitis. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is clear with the following results: glucose 3.7mmol/l (blood glucose is 5.1), protein 30 mg/dl (normal range 5 - 45 mg/dl protein), and white blood cells 800/mm3 (normal range < 1000/mm3). What is the most likely cause of meningitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral

      Explanation:

      CSF Analysis for Meningitis

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for meningitis. The appearance, glucose level, protein level, and white cell count in the CSF can provide clues to the type of meningitis present. Bacterial meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with low glucose levels and high protein levels, along with a high number of polymorphs. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, usually results in clear or slightly cloudy CSF with normal or slightly raised protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. Tuberculous meningitis may result in slightly cloudy CSF with a fibrin web and a high number of lymphocytes, along with low glucose and high protein levels. Fungal meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with high protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. In cases of suspected tuberculous meningitis, PCR may be used in addition to the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, which has low sensitivity. It is important to note that mumps and herpes encephalitis may also result in low glucose levels in the CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing 2 DVTs within...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing 2 DVTs within a year. She mentions that her mother passed away at the age of 50 due to a pulmonary embolism. Her full blood count appears normal, but her coagulation screen suggests a coagulopathy.

      What is the underlying pathological mechanism of the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      The presence of factor V Leiden mutation leads to resistance to activated protein C.

      The most probable cause of the patient’s recurrent DVTs and family history of thrombo-embolic events is factor V Leiden, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation results in activated protein C resistance, as activated factor V is not inactivated as efficiently by protein C.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired thrombophilia that can cause both arterial and venous thromboses, and may present with thrombocytopenia. However, the patient’s positive family history and normal full blood count make this diagnosis less likely than factor V Leiden.

      Protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, and antithrombin III deficiency are all inherited thrombophilias, but they are less prevalent in the population compared to factor V Leiden. Therefore, they are less likely to be the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Factor V Leiden

      Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.

      Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.

      Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.

      Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.

      Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
      — | — | —
      Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
      Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
      Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
      Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
      Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
      Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP after being prescribed carbimazole for Grave's disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP after being prescribed carbimazole for Grave's disease. The GP must inform her of crucial side effects that require immediate medical attention if they occur. What is the most significant side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sore throat

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole, although generally safe, can have a rare but severe side effect of bone marrow suppression. This can lead to a weakened immune system due to low white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, resulting in neutropenia and agranulocytosis. The most common symptom of this is a sore throat, and if this occurs, treatment with carbimazole should be discontinued.

      Hair loss and headaches are common side effects but are not considered harmful to the patient’s health. Other reported side effects include nausea, stomach pains, itchy skin, rashes, and muscle and joint pain.

      It is important to note that chest pain and changes in vision are not known side effects of carbimazole.

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A baby girl is born at 38 weeks gestation. She is healthy at...

    Incorrect

    • A baby girl is born at 38 weeks gestation. She is healthy at birth with no issues noted and no concerns from the obstetrics team.

      Fifteen days later, the mother notices that the baby's eye is stuck closed with discharge, along with a reddening of the sclera and swelling of the eyelids. The baby is taken to the Pediatrician's office. A diagnosis of ophthalmia neonatorum is suspected and tests are done to confirm this.

      What are the two bacteria that are most likely to be identified by the tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent culprits behind ophthalmia neonatorum are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, with the former being more prevalent. Typically, these two organisms manifest at different stages and necessitate distinct antibiotic treatments. Although less frequent, mixed infections can also occur. While the remaining choices may cause ophthalmia neonatorum, they are not as commonly observed.

      Understanding Ophthalmia Neonatorum

      Ophthalmia neonatorum is a term used to describe an infection that affects the eyes of newborn babies. This condition is caused by two main organisms, namely Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is important to note that suspected cases of ophthalmia neonatorum should be referred for immediate ophthalmology or paediatric assessment.

      To prevent complications, it is crucial to identify and treat ophthalmia neonatorum as soon as possible. This condition can cause severe damage to the eyes and even lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, parents and healthcare providers should be vigilant and seek medical attention if they notice any signs of eye infection in newborns. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, the prognosis for ophthalmia neonatorum is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. The GP refers him to the respiratory clinic for suspected lung cancer, and further investigations reveal a stage 2 squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. What is the most frequently associated paraneoplastic phenomenon with this type of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is PTHrP, which is a paraneoplastic syndrome often associated with squamous cell lung cancer. PTHrP is a protein that functions similarly to parathyroid hormone and can cause hypercalcaemia when secreted by cancer cells.

      Acanthosis nigricans is another paraneoplastic phenomenon that is commonly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma. This condition causes hyperpigmentation of skin folds, such as the armpits.

      The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is often linked to small cell lung cancer. This condition involves the hypersecretion of ADH, which leads to dilutional hyponatraemia and its associated symptoms.

      Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome that is typically associated with neuroendocrine tumours that have metastasised to the liver. This condition causes hypersecretion of serotonin and other substances, resulting in facial flushing, palpitations, and gastrointestinal upset.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve laterally

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve is in the front compartment and the tibial nerve is on the inner side. The tibial nerve is located beneath the flexor retinaculum at its end.

      Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery

      The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.

      The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.

      Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the adductor...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the adductor longus muscle? Also, can you provide information on the relationship between the adductor longus muscle and nearby structures for a 12-year-old student?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tendon of iliacus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bordered by the Adductor longus medially, Inguinal ligament superiorly, and Sartorius muscle laterally. The Adductor longus muscle is located along the medial border of the femoral triangle and is closely associated with the long saphenous vein and the profunda branch of the femoral artery. The femoral nerve is located inferiorly to the Adductor longus muscle. However, the tendon of iliacus inserts proximally and does not come into contact with the Adductor longus muscle.

      Adductor Longus Muscle

      The adductor longus muscle originates from the anterior body of the pubis and inserts into the middle third of the linea aspera. Its main function is to adduct and flex the thigh, as well as medially rotate the hip. This muscle is innervated by the anterior division of the obturator nerve, which originates from the spinal nerves L2, L3, and L4. The adductor longus is one of the adductor muscles, which are a group of muscles located in the thigh that work together to bring the legs towards the midline of the body. The schematic image below illustrates the relationship of the adductor muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of central chest pain that started 15 minutes ago. An ECG is conducted and reveals ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V6. Which coronary artery is the most probable cause of obstruction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The presence of ischaemic changes in leads I, aVL, and V5-6 suggests a possible issue with the left circumflex artery, which supplies blood to the lateral area of the heart. Complete blockage of this artery can lead to ST elevation, while partial blockage may result in non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Other areas of the heart and their corresponding coronary arteries are listed in the table below.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 48-year-old male comes to his doctor with redness in his left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male comes to his doctor with redness in his left leg. The man is generally healthy, but noticed redness in his left shin after being bitten by an insect the previous day. Upon examination, there is a 10cm area of erythema with poorly defined borders on the left shin. The area is warm to the touch and slightly tender, but there is no tenderness in the calf. The right leg appears normal and there are no other significant clinical findings.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette has a warm and erythematous lesion on their shin, which is poorly demarcated. This suggests that the infection is in the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues, indicating a diagnosis of cellulitis. The cause of the infection is likely an insect bite. Deep vein thrombosis is an incorrect answer as it typically presents acutely and in the calf, whereas this patient’s symptoms developed gradually on the shin. Erysipelas is a superficial infection in the upper dermis and lymphatics, which is typically well-demarcated. Rosacea is a chronic condition that affects the face and would not present as a warm and erythematous lesion on the shin. It is important to note that cellulitis and erysipelas can be difficult to distinguish, and similar management strategies are used for both conditions.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.

      During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.

      Where is this location?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.

      Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - During your placement on the pediatric ward, you have the opportunity to participate...

    Incorrect

    • During your placement on the pediatric ward, you have the opportunity to participate in a study on a new medication for children with asthma. While compiling the data, the consultant and principal investigator mention that the study is expected to reveal a significant difference with the new drug.

      What element of the research could have led the consultant to make this statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High power

      Explanation:

      A double-blind study with randomized groups is more reliable in providing strong evidence, but it does not increase the probability of discovering a significant difference.

      The significance level (alpha) can impact the likelihood of a type I error and can serve as an indicator of the study’s quality, but it does not affect the probability of detecting a significant difference.

      Enforcing strict inclusion criteria can enhance the study’s quality, but it does not alter the chances of detecting a significant difference.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A patient presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and fatigue. Upon examination, a purpuric rash is discovered on their torso, arms, and legs. The initial blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 78 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 43 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      A blood film reveals numerous fragmented red cells (schistocytes) and marked thrombocytopenia, indicating intravascular hemolysis with high levels of free hemoglobin. To confirm this diagnosis, which of the following additional test results would be helpful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low haptoglobins

      Explanation:

      Haptoglobin is a liver-produced protein that binds to free haemoglobin in blood plasma, allowing the reticuloendothelial system to remove it. This consumption of haptoglobin reduces its detectable levels in the blood, making it a useful indicator of haemolysis.

      If an individual has a functioning liver, conjugated bilirubin levels will increase in haemolysis. This is because the liver generates conjugated bilirubin from unconjugated bilirubin, which is produced from the porphyrin rings of haemoglobin. Conjugated bilirubin is more soluble in water and can be secreted through the kidneys.

      Lactate dehydrogenase is an intracellular enzyme that is leaked from cells, including erythrocytes, which are broken down. Its levels increase due to cell breakdown, not only in haemolysis but also in cardiomyocyte damage due to infarction and lymphocyte turnover due to leukaemia.

      Potassium is an intracellular ion that can increase in levels due to haemolysis and cell breakdown. This can lead to cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation.

      Low platelets and a purpuric rash suggest that the likely form of intravascular haemolysis is a microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) such as thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS). These rare conditions result in the accumulation of intravascular thrombosis, leading to platelet and clotting factor consumption.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 2-day-old girl presents with sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and acidosis. Upon examination, pulses...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl presents with sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and acidosis. Upon examination, pulses are found in the right upper limb but not in the left upper limb or legs. What congenital abnormality is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interruption of the aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Circulatory collapse in newborns on day 1 is often caused by duct-dependent cardiac defects such as interruption of the aortic arch or left hypoplastic heart syndrome. These defects cause hypoxia, acidosis, and hypotension. Interruption of the aortic arch presents with upper limb pulses, while left hypoplastic heart syndrome presents with absent upper limb pulses. Anomalous pulmonary venous circulation and tetralogy of Fallot are not associated with early circulation collapse. Coarctation is a non-cyanotic defect that may be detected by weak femoral pulses, upper limb hypertension, or a pansystolic subclavicular/subscapular murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing fatigue, nosebleeds, and swollen gums. The admitting physician suspects the possibility of acute leukemia and seeks consultation with their senior colleague. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is more likely to be cured than if he was diagnosed with a chronic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia Types and Prognosis

      As with high-grade lymphomas, acute leukaemias have a higher chance of being cured than chronic leukaemias. However, chronic leukaemias such as CLL may not require treatment at the time of diagnosis and may not cause death for many years. Acute leukaemias, on the other hand, have a higher initial mortality rate.

      The diagnosis of acute leukaemia can be made if the blasts account for more than 20% of the bone marrow or peripheral blood, or if there is a blast count with a recognized cytogenetic abnormality associated with AML. Gum hypertrophy is more commonly associated with AML, especially acute monocytic leukaemia.

      Females generally have a better prognosis than males when it comes to acute leukaemias. ALL most commonly arises from B-lymphocyte populations, while AML arising from pre-existing conditions such as the myeloproliferative neoplasms is associated with a poorer prognosis than that arising de novo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his feet. His past medical history includes alcohol misuse.

      Upper and lower limb motor examinations identify bilateral extensor plantar reflexes with absent knee jerks. Sensory examination identifies reduced sensation to vibration and proprioception distal to the elbows and knees, and reduced light touch sensation in a stocking distribution.

      Blood tests:

      Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Platelets 170 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      MCV 112 fL (80 - 100)
      Fasting blood glucose 4.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.6)
      Serum vitamin B12 125 ng/L (190-950)
      Serum folate 2.3 ng/ml (2.7-17.0)

      Which affected areas of the nervous system are causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral corticospinal tracts and dorsal columns

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts. This condition is often caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse. The patient’s examination reveals upper motor neuron signs, reduced proprioception, and vibration sense. The anterior corticospinal tract, anterior spinocerebellar tract, anterior spinothalamic pathway, and lateral spinothalamic pathway are all unaffected by this condition.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A researcher is creating a method in which they warm up a DNA...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is creating a method in which they warm up a DNA sample to 96ºC and then cool it down to 56ºC while introducing primers to particular sequences. After each primer, heat-resistant DNA polymerase is included, and the process is repeated.

      What is the name of the molecular procedure being discussed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a widely used method for amplifying a specific segment of DNA through denaturation, annealing, and elongation processes. Southern blotting is utilized for DNA detection, while Western blotting is used for RNA detection. SDS-PAGE is a technique for separating proteins through electrophoresis.

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 27-year-old male visits a sexual health clinic due to concerns about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male visits a sexual health clinic due to concerns about a possible sexually transmitted infection. After a swab is taken, the lab results indicate the presence of gram-negative diplococci. What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      gonorrhoeae is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus that can be identified on gram staining. Another important gram-negative diplococcus to remember is Neisseria meningitidis. Chlamydia trachomatis is not the causative organism for gonorrhoeae, as it is a rod-shaped intracellular bacteria that is hard to stain. Gardnerella vaginalis is not the causative organism for gonorrhoeae, but is often involved in bacterial vaginosis and has a gram-variable cocco-bacilli shape. Trichomonas vaginalis is also not the causative organism for gonorrhoeae, as it is a parasite that causes trichomoniasis.

      Understanding gonorrhoeae: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoeae can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoeae involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A 58-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of constipation and a decrease in...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of constipation and a decrease in his sex drive. The man cannot recall when the symptoms began, but he does recall falling off a ladder recently. Upon examination, the man appears to be in good health.

      What is the most probable site of injury or damage in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacral spine (S2,3,4)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Autonomic Nervous System

      The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary functions in the body, such as heart rate, digestion, and sexual arousal. It is composed of two main components, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, as well as a sensory division. The sympathetic division arises from the T1-L2/3 region of the spinal cord and synapses onto postganglionic neurons at paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. The parasympathetic division arises from cranial nerves and the sacral spinal cord and synapses with postganglionic neurons at parasympathetic ganglia. The sensory division includes baroreceptors and chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose, as well as arterial pressure and the contents of the stomach and intestines.

      The autonomic nervous system releases neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline and acetylcholine to achieve necessary functions and regulate homeostasis. The sympathetic nervous system causes fight or flight responses, while the parasympathetic nervous system causes rest and digest responses. Autonomic dysfunction refers to the abnormal functioning of any part of the autonomic nervous system, which can present in many forms and affect any of the autonomic systems. To assess a patient for autonomic dysfunction, a detailed history should be taken, and the patient should undergo a full neurological examination and further testing if necessary. Understanding the autonomic nervous system is crucial in diagnosing and treating autonomic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 42-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of a tickly cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of a tickly cough that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. He reports no other symptoms and his respiratory exam appears normal. The patient recently began taking an ACE inhibitor, which you suspect may be the cause of his cough. You decide to switch him to an angiotensin receptor blocker instead. Many antihypertensive medications target components of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen to produce the hormone angiotensin I, an important player in this system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The kidneys produce renin in their juxtaglomerular cells, which plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This enzyme converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I through a hydrolysis reaction. More information on this system can be found below.

      Another important enzyme in this system is angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE), which is primarily located in the lungs but can also be found in smaller quantities in endothelial cells of the vasculature and kidney epithelial cells. ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is the target of ACE inhibitors.

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that facilitates the reaction between water and carbon dioxide to form bicarbonate, and it can also catalyze the reverse reaction. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors target this enzyme.

      Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins, and NSAIDs are believed to work by inhibiting both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - What is true about the Salmonella species? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the Salmonella species?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A relative bradycardia is often seen in typhoid fever

      Explanation:

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in 40% of patients with paratyphoid. Possible complications of enteric fever include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in 1% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with acute onset chest pain:
      Serum Cholesterol 7.3 mmol/L (<5.2)
      He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease.
      What abnormalities might be expected upon examination of this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tendon nodules

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia and its Manifestations

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of cholesterol in the blood. This condition is often indicated by the deposition of cholesterol in various parts of the body. The history of the patient suggests that they may be suffering from familial hypercholesterolaemia. The deposition of cholesterol can be observed around the corneal arcus, around the eye itself (xanthelasma), and in tendons such as achilles, knuckles or triceps tendons (tendon xanthomas).

      While dietary and lifestyle modifications are recommended, they are usually not enough to manage the condition. High dose lifelong statin therapy is often necessary to control the levels of cholesterol in the blood. It is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to prevent further complications associated with familial hypercholesterolaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of statin therapy in conjunction with lifestyle modifications for the management of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine check-up. During the visit, the woman expresses her concern about her inability to breastfeed her baby, despite several attempts.

      The woman has a medical history of sensorineural deafness, which she acquired after contracting bacterial meningitis as a child.

      Her serum prolactin levels are within the normal range at 250 g/L (34-386 ng/mL). The doctor explains that the milk let-down reflex also requires the hormone oxytocin.

      Can you identify the part of the brain where oxytocin is synthesized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraventricular nucleus

      Explanation:

      The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin. This hormone is synthesized in the periventricular nucleus and then secreted into the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and eventually released into the systemic circulation. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the milk let-down reflex, causing the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract and release milk. However, this patient may have difficulty breastfeeding due to complications from her childhood meningitis. It is important to note that oxytocin is not synthesized or released from the arcuate nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, or pineal gland.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI during the study period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.

      High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.

      Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 13-year-old girl, who recently moved from South America to Canada, is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl, who recently moved from South America to Canada, is brought to the hospital with jaw swelling. She is immediately referred to a specialist team for further evaluation. Upon testing, she is found to be positive for the Epstein-Barr virus. A sample of the mass is taken for microscopy, revealing a characteristic 'starry sky' appearance.

      What oncogene is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: c-MYC

      Explanation:

      Burkitt’s lymphoma is often linked to the c-MYC gene, which codes for a transcription factor. The diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma is supported by the patient’s demographics, presentation, positive Epstein-Barr virus finding, and the characteristic starry sky appearance on microscopy. This cancer is typically associated with a reciprocal translocation involving the c-MYC gene, usually t(8:14).

      The ABL gene codes for a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and is commonly involved in the fusion gene BCR-ABL1, which is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia.

      BCL-2 codes for an apoptosis regulatory protein and is frequently mutated in follicular lymphoma.

      RAS genes code for small proteins involved in G-protein coupled receptor signal transduction and are often mutated in various cancers, particularly pancreatic cancer.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A 65-year-old male presents with multiple episodes of haematuria. He has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents with multiple episodes of haematuria. He has a history of COPD due to prolonged smoking. What could be the probable root cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      TCC is the most common subtype of renal cancer and is strongly associated with smoking. Renal adenocarcinoma may also cause similar symptoms but is less likely.

      Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.

      The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 49-year-old male presents to the ENT clinic with a 9-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male presents to the ENT clinic with a 9-month history of constant right-sided deafness and a sensation of feeling off-balance. He has no significant medical history. Upon examination, an audiogram reveals reduced hearing to both bone and air conduction on the right side. A cranial nerve exam shows an absent corneal reflex on the right side and poor balance. Otoscopy of both ears is unremarkable. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma)

      Explanation:

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 68-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of persistent hiccups that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of persistent hiccups that have been ongoing for 5 days. During the consultation, he mentions feeling increasingly fatigued over the past 7 months. Apart from these issues, he reports no other health concerns. After conducting some blood tests, you discover that he is experiencing renal failure, and his potassium levels are at 6.2 (normal range is 3.5-5 mmol/l). You urgently advise him to go to the hospital, and upon arrival, the medical team requests an ECG to check for signs of hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG indication of hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wide QRS complexes

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be identified on an ECG by the presence of broad QRS complexes, which may appear bizarre and form a sinusoidal waveform. Other signs include tall-tented T waves and small or absent P waves. Asystole can also occur as a result of hyperkalaemia.

      On the other hand, hypokalaemia can be identified by ECG signs such as small or inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and prominent U waves. A prolonged PR interval and long QT interval may also be present, although a short PR interval may suggest pre-excitation or an AV nodal rhythm.

      In the case of a patient presenting with hiccups, persistent hiccups may indicate uraemia, which can be caused by renal failure. Fatigue is another common symptom of renal failure, which is also a common cause of hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 29 weeks gestation presents to her GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 29 weeks gestation presents to her GP with her 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with erythema infectiosum. The GP is worried as the mother is a close contact of her child and refers her to the obstetricians for an abdominal ultrasound scan.

      During the scan, the obstetricians observe pleural effusion and ascites in the foetus.

      What is the term used to describe this complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrops fetalis

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 can cause serious complications in pregnant women, including suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, leading to severe anemia and eventually heart failure. This can result in the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities, known as hydrops fetalis. The virus has an incubation period of 4 to 14 days and infects erythroblastic precursors in the bone marrow. Empyema, pericarditis, and viral peritonitis are not associated with parvovirus B19 infection and would not explain the pleural effusion and ascites seen on fetal ultrasound scans.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 67-year-old man with a stable angina history for two years visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a stable angina history for two years visits his cardiologist for a regular check-up. During the review, the cardiologist observes that the patient's heart rate is low at 46 bpm. As a result, the cardiologist decides to replace his beta-blocker with a new anti-anginal drug called nicorandil.

      What is the mode of action of the patient's new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium channel activator through activation of guanylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil activates potassium channels, leading to vasodilation. This activation triggers guanylyl cyclase, which increases the production of cyclic GMP (cGMP) and activates protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates and inhibits GTPase RhoA, reducing Rho-kinase activity and increasing myosin phosphatase activity. As a result, the smooth muscle becomes less sensitive to calcium, leading to dilation of the large coronary arteries and improved perfusion. Nicorandil does not significantly affect calcium or sodium channels. This mechanism helps alleviate anginal symptoms.

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - As a junior doctor, you are taking the medical history of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor, you are taking the medical history of a patient who is scheduled for an elective knee replacement. During the physical examination, you hear a diastolic murmur and observe a collapsing pulse while checking the heart rate. Upon examining the hands, you notice pulsations of red coloration on the nail beds. Other than these findings, the examination appears normal.

      What could be the probable reason behind these examination results if the patient is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s examination findings suggest aortic regurgitation, which is characterized by an early diastolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur that is louder when the patient sits forward and at the left sternal edge. Aortic regurgitation can also cause a collapsing pulse, dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and visible pulsing red colouration of the nails (quincke’s sign).

      It is important to note that aortic stenosis does not cause a diastolic murmur or collapsing pulse. Instead, it typically produces an ejection systolic murmur that is louder on expiration and may cause a slow rising pulse.

      Similarly, mitral regurgitation does not cause a diastolic murmur or collapsing pulse. It typically produces a pansystolic murmur.

      Mitral stenosis causes a mid-late diastolic murmur but does not commonly cause a collapsing pulse.

      Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur but does not commonly cause a collapsing pulse or diastolic murmur.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. Upon examination, the doctor determines that it is probably caused by a viral infection.

      What structures will display antigens to activate cytotoxic T cells and initiate an immune response against this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MHC class I molecules

      Explanation:

      Cytotoxic T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class I molecules. CD8 receptors, which are present on cytotoxic T cells, can bind with MHC class I molecules.

      On the other hand, MHC class II molecules can bind with CD4 receptors that are expressed on T helper cells. MHC class III molecules do not exist.

      Antibodies are generated by the body to aid the immune response and do not participate in presenting antigens to immune cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - A 67-year-old widower is brought to the acute psychiatric ward due to treatment-resistant...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old widower is brought to the acute psychiatric ward due to treatment-resistant severe depression. Upon physical examination, the patient displays slow movements and rigid limbs. Their body is bent, and they have a sad expression on their face with slow speech. All tests show no evidence of organic disorder, and the patient is not taking any psychotropic medication. What term best describes this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Psychomotor Retardation in Depression

      Psychomotor retardation is a common manifestation of depression, characterized by slow movement, speech, and rigidity in limbs. Patients may also exhibit a bent body posture and feelings of emptiness and hopelessness. It is crucial to rule out other potential causes, such as medication side effects or neurological disorders like Parkinson’s disease.

      In severe cases, psychomotor retardation can progress to catatonia, where the patient is unresponsive to external stimuli despite being awake. It is essential to recognize and address these symptoms promptly to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. By the signs and symptoms of psychomotor retardation, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to individuals experiencing depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on overall mortality. The mortality rate in the group taking medication Y is 5%, while it is 10% in the control group. What is the number of individuals who need to receive medication Y to prevent one death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Steps to Calculate NNT:

      Calculate the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR):

      ARR=Control Event Rate (CER)−Experimental Event Rate (EER)

      Here:

      • Control Event Rate (CER) = 10% or 0.10
      • Experimental Event Rate (EER) = 5% or 0.05

      So,

      ARR=0.10−0.05=0.05

      Calculate the NNT:

      NNT=1/ARR

      NNT=1/0.05=20

      Conclusion:

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is 20. This means that 20 individuals need to receive medication Y to prevent one death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to you worried that her...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to you worried that her baby boy may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) after reading about it in a magazine. She is a nursing student who has taken a break for a year. You educate her on the likelihood of her child having DMD and the genetic mutation that causes it.

      Which gene is impacted by a deletion mutation in DMD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dystrophin gene

      Explanation:

      The cause of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a mutation in the dystrophin gene. While mutations in the myostatin gene can lead to myostatin-induced muscle hypertrophy, there is no known association with DMD. The dysferlin gene is involved in skeletal muscle repair and mutations can result in various muscular myopathies, but there is no known association with DMD. It should be noted that the myodystrophin gene is fictitious and does not exist.

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Which of the following medications can lead to hyperkalemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications can lead to hyperkalemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be caused by both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin due to their ability to inhibit aldosterone secretion. Salbutamol is a known remedy for hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for a follow-up evaluation of a deep cut injury that happened 4 weeks ago while preparing food, requiring multiple stitches. She has no significant medical history and is in good health. The nurse observes that the wound appears smaller than before and that a pale scar has begun to develop. The nurse informs the patient that this is a positive sign, but that this stage of the healing process takes the longest time.

      Which stage of the healing process is the nurse likely referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remodelling

      Explanation:

      The remodelling phase of wound healing is the lengthiest, lasting from six weeks to a year. Given that the injury happened a few weeks ago, it is probable that the patient is currently in this stage of the healing process.

      The Four Phases of Wound Healing

      Wound healing is a complex process that involves four distinct phases: haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodelling. During the haemostasis phase, the body works to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels and forming a clot. This is followed by the inflammation phase, during which immune cells migrate to the wound site to fight infection and release growth factors that stimulate the production of new tissue. Fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen, also migrate to the wound site during this phase.

      The regeneration phase is characterized by the production of new tissue, including blood vessels and collagen. This phase can last several weeks and is critical for the formation of granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms at the wound site and helps to promote healing. Finally, during the remodelling phase, the body works to remodel the new tissue and form a scar. This phase can last up to a year or longer and involves the differentiation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts, which help to facilitate wound contraction.

      Overall, wound healing is a complex process that involves multiple phases and a variety of different cell types. By understanding these phases, researchers and clinicians can develop new treatments and therapies to help promote healing and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Excessive levels of glucocorticoids can lead to various negative consequences such as skin thinning, osteonecrosis, and osteoporosis. Steroids can cause the body to retain sodium and water, while also resulting in potassium loss and potentially leading to hypokalaemic alkalosis.

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 23-year-old mother brings in her 6-week-old child worried about a 'growth' in...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old mother brings in her 6-week-old child worried about a 'growth' in the child's abdomen. The mother is a carrier for Cori's disease.

      During the clinical examination, the healthcare provider observes hepatomegaly and a characteristic sign of Cori's disease.

      What is the distinctive sign observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Cori’s disease is characterized by muscle hypotonia as a prominent feature. However, the Finkelstein sign, which is present in De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, is not observed in Cori’s disease. Additionally, hyperventilation due to lactic acidosis is a distinguishing feature of von Gierke disease rather than Cori’s disease.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold? ...

    Incorrect

    • What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are essential amino acids

      Explanation:

      Essential Amino Acids and their Importance in the Diet

      There are approximately 20 essential amino acids that are crucial for human health. These amino acids are considered essential because the body cannot produce them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. While some of these essential amino acids can be used to create other non-essential amino acids, they are still necessary for overall health and wellbeing.

      Some examples of essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. However, the amount of these essential amino acids can vary depending on the type of dietary protein consumed. Additionally, cooking or preserving proteins can alter the amino acid composition, making them less effective for the body.

      In summary, essential amino acids play a vital role in maintaining human health and must be obtained through the diet. the importance of these amino acids and their sources can help individuals make informed decisions about their dietary choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea and is in a critical condition. Despite the absence of peritonism, which of the following arterial blood gas patterns is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH 7.20, pO2 9.0, pCO2 3.5, Base excess -10, Lactate 8

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is experiencing metabolic acidosis as a result of a mesenteric infarction.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of generalised puffiness....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of generalised puffiness. She has been feeling lethargic and noticed swelling in her hands, feet, and face over the past few weeks. Additionally, she has been experiencing shortness of breath on exertion and cannot lie flat, frequently waking up at night gasping for air. She also reports tingling and loss of sensation in both feet, which has now extended to her knees. She has no regular medications and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient has decreased sensation over the distal lower limbs and hepatomegaly. Urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and urinalysis reveals hyperalbuminuria. Serology shows hypoalbuminaemia and hyperlipidaemia. An outpatient echocardiogram reveals both systolic and diagnostic heart failure, with a restrictive filling pattern. The Mantoux skin test was negative.

      What is the probable mechanism behind this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deposition of light chain fragments

      Explanation:

      The deposition of light chain fragments in various tissues is the most common cause of amyloidosis (AL), which can present with symptoms such as nephrotic syndrome, heart failure, and peripheral neuropathy.

      Symptoms in the upper respiratory tract and kidneys are typically seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which is caused by anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-induced inflammation. Therefore, this answer is not applicable.

      Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium, but the absence of pulmonary features and negative Mantoux skin test make it unlikely in this case. Therefore, this answer is not applicable.

      Amyloidosis is a condition that can occur in different forms. The most common type is AL amyloidosis, which is caused by the accumulation of immunoglobulin light chain fragments. This can be due to underlying conditions such as myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, or MGUS. Symptoms of AL amyloidosis can include nephrotic syndrome, cardiac and neurological issues, macroglossia, and periorbital eccymoses.

      Another type of amyloidosis is AA amyloid, which is caused by the buildup of serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant. This form of amyloidosis is often seen in patients with chronic infections or inflammation, such as TB, bronchiectasis, or rheumatoid arthritis. The most common symptom of AA amyloidosis is renal involvement.

      Beta-2 microglobulin amyloidosis is another form of the condition, which is caused by the accumulation of beta-2 microglobulin, a protein found in the major histocompatibility complex. This type of amyloidosis is often seen in patients who are on renal dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?...

    Incorrect

    • As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The triangular space serves as a pathway for the radial nerve to exit the axilla. Its upper boundary is defined by the teres major muscle, which has a close association with the radial nerve.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - A 20-year-old medical student comes to you with complaints of shoulder pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old medical student comes to you with complaints of shoulder pain and limited mobility after a rough tackle during a rugby match. Upon examination, you observe that his shoulder is visibly dislocated, leading you to suspect an anterior shoulder dislocation. Can you identify which nerve is most vulnerable to injury in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Injuries in the Upper Arm

      When the proximal humerus moves downward, it can cause damage to the nerves of the brachial plexus, particularly the axillary nerve. Signs of axillary nerve damage include sensory loss on the lateral side of the upper arm, inability to raise the arm (deltoid), and weakened lateral rotation (teres minor).

      Other nerve injuries in the upper arm include median nerve damage, which can cause tingling in the thumb and first two and a half digits, as well as loss of function in the thenar muscles. Musculocutaneous nerve damage can lead to tingling in the lateral forearm and inability to flex the elbow. Radial nerve damage can cause tingling in the posterior compartment of the forearm and dorsum of the hand, as well as wrist drop. Ulnar nerve damage can result in tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger, as well as loss of grip strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing...

    Incorrect

    • A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing the surgery, the trigeminal nerve is severely affected in Meckel's cave. What is the least probable deficit that the child will experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaesthesia over the entire ipsilateral side of the face

      Explanation:

      The sensory fibres of the trigeminal nerve do not provide innervation to the angle of the jaw, which means that this area is not affected by this type of injury. However, since the trigeminal nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, an injury in close proximity to the motor fibres may result in some degree of compromise in muscle function.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.

      What medication will be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A 75-year-old man has been experiencing illness for several years and after his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has been experiencing illness for several years and after his passing, an autopsy is conducted. Microscopic examination of tissue samples reveals the presence of apple green birefringence under polarised light in sections of the myocardium. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      When viewed under polarised light, amyloidosis exhibits a distinctive apple green birefringence.

      Understanding Amyloid: Protein Deposits that Affect Tissue Structure and Function

      Amyloid refers to the accumulation of insoluble protein deposits outside of cells. These deposits can disrupt the normal structure of tissues and, if excessive, can impair their function. Amyloid is composed of a major fibrillar protein that defines its type, along with various minor components. The different types of amyloid are classified with the prefix A and a suffix that corresponds to the fibrillary protein present. The two main clinical types are AA and AL amyloidosis.

      Systemic AA amyloidosis is a long-term complication of several chronic inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease, malignancies, and conditions that predispose individuals to recurrent infections. On the other hand, AL amyloidosis results from the deposition of fibril-forming monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains, most commonly of lambda isotype, outside of cells. Most patients with AL amyloidosis have evidence of isolated monoclonal gammopathy or asymptomatic myeloma, and the occurrence of AL amyloidosis in patients with symptomatic multiple myeloma or other B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders is unusual. The kidney and heart are two of the most commonly affected sites.

      Diagnosis of amyloidosis is based on surgical biopsy and characteristic histological features, which consist of birefringence under polarised light. Immunohistochemistry is used to determine the subtype. Treatment is usually targeted at the underlying cause. Understanding amyloid and its different types is crucial in the diagnosis and management of patients with amyloidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle in the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The greater sciatic foramen does not serve as a pathway for the obturator nerve.

      The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents

      The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.

      The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.

      In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this medication, her other medications are reviewed for potential contraindications. Is there any medication that should be reconsidered or adjusted before initiating warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing warfarin to a patient, it is crucial to thoroughly check for potential interactions with other medications. Warfarin is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver, which means that medications that affect this enzyme system can impact warfarin metabolism.

      Certain medications, such as NSAIDs, antibiotics like erythromycin and ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, and SSRIs like fluoxetine, can inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes and slow down warfarin metabolism, leading to increased effects.

      On the other hand, medications like phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampicin can induce cytochrome P450 enzymes and speed up warfarin metabolism, resulting in decreased effects.

      However, medications like simvastatin, salmeterol, bisoprolol, and losartan do not interfere with warfarin and can be safely prescribed alongside it.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with complaints of shortness of breath and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.5ºC, heart rate of 96 bpm, respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 125/95 mmHg. The right clavicle is tender and deformed, and there is hyper resonance over the right thorax. A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a right-sided apical pneumothorax. Which part of the clavicle is most likely fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle third of the clavicle

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle third of the clavicle. The apex of the pleural cavity is located behind this area, with its tip situated in the supraclavicular fossa.

      The acromioclavicular junction, lateral third of the clavicle, medial third of the clavicle, and sternoclavicular junction are all incorrect answers. These areas have different anatomical structures and functions.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 25-year-old man is playing rugby and sustains a compound fracture of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is playing rugby and sustains a compound fracture of the distal third of his clavicle with arterial bleeding. During surgical exploration, which vessel is likely to be encountered first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracoacromial artery

      Explanation:

      The thoracoacromial artery originates from the axillary artery’s second part. It is a broad, brief trunk that penetrates the clavipectoral fascia and terminates by dividing into four branches, located deep to pectoralis major.

      The Thoracoacromial Artery and its Branches

      The thoracoacromial artery is a short trunk that originates from the axillary artery and is usually covered by the upper edge of the Pectoralis minor. It projects forward to the upper border of the Pectoralis minor and pierces the coracoclavicular fascia, dividing into four branches: pectoral, acromial, clavicular, and deltoid.

      The pectoral branch descends between the two Pectoral muscles and supplies them and the breast, anastomosing with the intercostal branches of the internal thoracic artery and the lateral thoracic artery. The acromial branch runs laterally over the coracoid process and under the Deltoid, giving branches to it before piercing the muscle and ending on the acromion in an arterial network formed by branches from the suprascapular, thoracoacromial, and posterior humeral circumflex arteries. The clavicular branch runs upwards and medially to the sternoclavicular joint, supplying this articulation and the Subclavius. The deltoid branch arises with the acromial branch, crosses over the Pectoralis minor, and passes in the same groove as the cephalic vein, giving branches to both the Pectoralis major and Deltoid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma originating from the uterine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma originating from the uterine body. Which nodal region will the tumor spread to first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliac lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      In the case of uterine body tumours, the initial spread is likely to occur in the iliac nodes. This becomes clinically significant when nodal clearance is carried out during a Wertheims type hysterectomy, as the tumour may cross different nodal margins.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing chemotherapy for ovarian cancer. A CT scan during...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing chemotherapy for ovarian cancer. A CT scan during the cancer diagnosis and staging showed liver metastases and lymphadenopathy. Which lymph node group would the cancer have spread to initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar

      Explanation:

      The lumbar lymph nodes, also referred to as the para-aortic lymph nodes, receive drainage from the ovary.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 57-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis. She has been prescribed a new medication to prevent joint destruction and disease progression. However, she needs to take folic acid daily and undergo frequent blood tests. What medication is she likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is a commonly used first-line drug for rheumatoid arthritis. It belongs to the group of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs, which also includes sulfasalazine, rituximab, and etanercept.

      This medication is taken once a week and works by acting on the immune system. It is effective in treating RA and psoriatic arthritis, as it functions as both an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant.

      Before starting treatment with methotrexate, blood tests are required to check for FBC, U&Es, LFTs, and protein and blood in the urine.

      During treatment, regular monitoring is necessary. FBC should be checked every other week until six weeks after the last dose increase, then monthly for a year, and thereafter as clinically indicated. LFTs should be tested every three months due to the potential impact of methotrexate on the liver, while U&Es should be checked every 6-12 months.

      As methotrexate is a folate antagonist, patients may experience side effects such as hair loss and mouth ulcers. To mitigate these effects, patients are often advised to take folate supplements on the days they are not taking methotrexate.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with hemiparesis. During your conversation...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with hemiparesis. During your conversation with him, you discover that his speech is fluent but his repetition is poor. He is conscious of his inability to repeat words accurately but persists in trying. You suspect that a stroke may be the cause of this condition.

      Which region of the brain has been impacted by the stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arcuate fasciculus

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of conduction aphasia, which is typically caused by a stroke that affects the arcuate fasciculus.

      If the lesion is in the parietal lobe, the patient may experience sensory inattention and inferior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Lesions in the inferior frontal gyrus can cause speech to become non-fluent, labored, and halting.

      Occipital lobe lesions can result in visual changes.

      If the lesion is in the superior temporal gyrus, the patient may produce sentences that don’t make sense, use word substitution, and create neologisms, but their speech will still be fluent.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - An elderly man, aged 74, is admitted to the acute medical ward due...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man, aged 74, is admitted to the acute medical ward due to experiencing shortness of breath. He has no significant medical history except for primary open-angle glaucoma, for which he is taking timolol. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta-blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by decreasing the production of aqueous humour, which in turn reduces intraocular pressure. Prostaglandin analogues like latanoprost, on the other hand, are the preferred first-line treatment for this condition as they increase uveoscleral outflow, but do not affect aqueous production. Miotics such as pilocarpine work by constricting the pupil and increasing uveoscleral outflow. Conversely, pupil dilation can worsen glaucoma by decreasing uveoscleral outflow. Brimonidine, a sympathomimetic, has a dual-action mechanism that reduces ocular pressure by decreasing aqueous production and increasing outflow.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant vertigo and right-sided deafness for the past year. She has no significant medical history. Upon conducting an audiogram, it is discovered that her right ear has reduced hearing to both bone and air conduction. During a cranial nerve exam, an absent corneal reflex is observed on the right side, and she has poor balance. Otoscopy of both ears is normal. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma)

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with loss of the corneal reflex, the likely diagnosis is vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma). This is a noncancerous tumor that affects the vestibular portion of the 8th cranial nerve, leading to sensorineural deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. As the tumor grows, it can also press on other cranial nerves. Loss of the corneal reflex is a classic sign of early trigeminal (cranial nerve 5) involvement, which is unlikely in any of the other listed conditions.

      Meniere’s disease is not the correct answer. This is a disorder of the middle ear that causes episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, and a sensation of aural fullness or pressure.

      Otosclerosis is also incorrect. This is an inherited condition that causes conductive deafness and tinnitus, typically presenting in patients aged 20-40 years.

      Vestibular mononeuritis is not the correct answer either. This condition is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve following a recent viral infection and presents with vertigo, but hearing is not affected.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an open surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an open surgical repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. During examination, he presents with a positive Grey Turner's sign, indicating retroperitoneal haemorrhage and resulting in blue discolouration of the flanks. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can occur due to trauma to retroperitoneal structures. Can you identify which of the following structures is not retroperitoneal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tail of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal structure mentioned, while all the others are retroperitoneal. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can be caused by various factors, including ruptured aneurysms and acute pancreatitis. A helpful mnemonic to remember retroperitoneal structures is SAD PUCKER.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the obstetrics clinic at 34 weeks' gestation for her first antenatal visit. The mother has no significant medical history and is in good health. She is up to date with all her immunisations.

      During the examination, the symphyseal-fundal height measures 30cm. An ultrasound scan is conducted, which reveals that the fetus has an abdominal circumference below the 3rd percentile for age, femur length below the 3rd percentile, and head circumference along the 90th percentile. The estimated weight of the baby is below the 10th percentile.

      What is the most probable cause of the abnormality observed in this fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant has been linked to the birth of a Small for Gestational Age baby. This is indicated by the baby’s birth weight being below the 10th percentile and fetal measurements suggesting asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), with the head circumference being significantly higher than the abdominal circumference and femur length. Maternal smoking is a possible cause of the baby’s small size, as it has been associated with reduced birth weight and asymmetrical IUGR. Multiple gestation is a known risk factor for fetal growth restriction, but singleton gestation is not. Maternal rubella infection and advanced maternal age may also cause small for gestational age babies, but these are less likely causes in this case as the mother’s immunisations are up to date and she is only 23 years old.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - John, 72-years-old, visits his GP with concerns of frequent urination accompanied by a...

    Incorrect

    • John, 72-years-old, visits his GP with concerns of frequent urination accompanied by a burning sensation and interrupted flow of urine that have persisted for approximately 5 months. During a digital rectal examination, an enlarged, nodular prostate is detected and his PSA levels are significantly elevated. Following a biopsy, he is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which zone of the prostate is commonly affected by prostate cancer and experiences enlargement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral zone

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is a common condition with up to 30,000 men diagnosed and 9,000 deaths per year in the UK. Diagnosis involves PSA measurement, digital rectal examination, and imaging for staging. Pathology shows 95% adenocarcinoma, often multifocal and graded using the Gleason system. Treatment options include watchful waiting, radiotherapy, surgery, and hormonal therapy. Active surveillance is recommended for low-risk men, with treatment decisions made based on disease progression and individual factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 10-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a painful left ankle following...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a painful left ankle following a fall. An x-ray reveals a fracture that runs through the tibial growth plate and metaphysis. What Salter-Harris fracture classification does this injury fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Type II Salter-Harris Fractures

      The Salter-Harris classification system is a way to categorize fractures that involve the growth plate or physis. These types of fractures are common in children and teenagers whose growth plates are still open. Type II Salter-Harris fractures are the most common, accounting for 75% of all growth plate fractures. This type of fracture involves a defect that runs through the growth plate and then the metaphysis.

      To put it simply, a Type II Salter-Harris fracture occurs when a bone breaks through the growth plate and into the surrounding bone tissue. This type of fracture is often caused by a sudden impact or trauma to the affected area. It is important to diagnose and treat Type II fractures promptly to prevent any long-term complications, such as growth abnormalities or joint problems.

      In summary, Type II Salter-Harris fractures are a common type of growth plate fracture that involves a defect running through the growth plate and then the metaphysis. These fractures can have long-term consequences if not treated properly, making prompt diagnosis and treatment essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - What is the name of the illusion that occurs when Fred sees a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the illusion that occurs when Fred sees a face in the clouds while walking his dog in the park?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pareidolia

      Explanation:

      Types of Illusions and Their Characteristics

      Illusions are vivid perceptions that occur from unclear stimuli. They can happen without conscious effort and are often intensified with concentration. There are three broad types of illusions: completion, affect, and pareidolia. Completion illusions occur due to inattention when reading, such as misreading words or completing faded letters. Affect illusions are associated with specific mood states, where someone may ‘see’ their loved one who has recently passed away. Pareidolia occurs when an individual perceives a clear image in an otherwise vague stimulus, such as seeing faces or animals in clouds.

      Auditory illusions can also occur when someone overhears a conversation and ‘completes’ overheard phrases or words, often in a way that makes it appear that they are being discussed. Trailing phenomena are associated with hallucinogenic drugs and are changes in perception where an individual perceives a moving object as a series of discontinuous images. Overall, illusions can occur in any sensory modality, but the most commonly reported are visual. They are not related to affect or state of mind, but rather a result of fantasy and vivid visual imagery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - Which statement about the standard error of the mean is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the standard error of the mean is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing early satiety over...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing early satiety over the past month. The doctor suspects a gastric tumor and inquires about potential risk factors, including the patient's diet, which seems to consist of a lot of processed meats.

      What chemical component is most likely responsible for causing gastric and esophageal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrosamine

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrosamine increases the likelihood of developing oesophageal and gastric cancer. Nitrosamine is commonly added to processed meats like bacon, ham, sausages, and hot dogs, making frequent consumption of these foods a risk factor for these types of cancer. Nitrosamine is also present in tobacco smoke. On the other hand, flavonoids, which are abundant in plants, have been linked to a decreased risk of gastric cancer. Acrylamide is present in starchy foods, while fluoride is used in water and toothpaste to prevent tooth decay.

      Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer

      Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.

      It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and discomfort in both legs. During the examination, the GP observes pitting edema and decides to prescribe a brief trial of a diuretic. Which diuretic targets the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)

      Explanation:

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A 55-year-old male visited his doctor complaining of pain and paresthesia in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male visited his doctor complaining of pain and paresthesia in his right hand, especially upon waking up. During the examination, the doctor observed weakness in the affected hand and a sensory disturbance in the front of his thumb and index finger. The patient was subsequently referred to an orthopaedic specialist who identified the ailment as carpal tunnel syndrome. What anatomical structure passes through the carpal tunnel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      The median nerve innervates the abductor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis brevis muscles. To remember other muscles innervated by the median nerve, use the acronym LOAF for lumbricals (first and second), opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. De Quervain Syndrome affects the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. Structures within the carpal tunnel include the flexor digitorum profundus (four tendons), flexor digitorum superficialis (four tendons), flexor pollicis longus, and median nerve.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - During your placement in paediatrics, you evaluate a 6-year-old patient who has recently...

    Incorrect

    • During your placement in paediatrics, you evaluate a 6-year-old patient who has recently undergone chemotherapy. Can you identify the most prevalent types of cancer in children between the ages of 0 and 15?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/3) 67%
Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
Reproductive System (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
General Principles (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (1/4) 25%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Passmed