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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This is mainly localised over a red patch that has recently developed on the inner part of her thigh.
      On examination, there is a well-demarcated area of erythematous skin on the patient’s thigh, which is warm and tender to touch. There are no other rashes or skin changes present in the rest of her body. Her temperature is 37.5°C and the rest of her parameters are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Lower Limb Rash: Cellulitis, Atopic Dermatitis, Contact Dermatitis, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, and Pretibial Myxedema

      The patient in question is most likely suffering from cellulitis, as evidenced by the presence of erythema, warmth, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area. Cellulitis typically presents as a unilateral rash in the lower limbs, with a well-defined margin and potential skin breakdown or ulceration in severe cases. Localized lymph node swelling may also occur, and systemic symptoms such as tachycardia, fever, confusion, or respiratory distress may be present in more severe cases. It is important to examine the skin carefully for potential points of entry for pathogens, such as wounds, local skin infections, or recent injection sites.

      Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, typically presents as an itchy rash in a flexural distribution, with a history of atopy and episodic flares starting from a young age. Contact dermatitis, which can be either irritant or allergic, is characterized by erythema and may present with crusting or vesicles in rare cases. Necrobiosis lipoidica is a condition that typically occurs in diabetic patients, presenting as shiny, painless areas of yellow or red skin on the shins, often with telangiectasia. Pretibial myxedema, which occurs in patients with Graves’ disease, presents as a shiny, waxy, orange-peel texture on the shins.

      In summary, a lower limb rash can have various causes, and a careful examination of the skin and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her menstrual cycle. After how much time can she consider it a reliable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: 5 days

      Correct Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male intravenous drug user (IVDU) presents with a productive cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male intravenous drug user (IVDU) presents with a productive cough and fever of 2–3 days’ duration. He had a cold last week. Other than a leukocytosis and high C-reactive protein (CRP), his blood results are normal. A chest radiograph shows bilateral cavitating pneumonia.
      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Pneumonia: Causes and Characteristics

      Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Among the bacterial causes, staphylococcal and pneumococcal pneumonia are two of the most prevalent types. However, they have distinct characteristics that can help clinicians differentiate them. In addition, other types of pneumonia, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci, Klebsiella, and fungal pneumonia, have specific risk factors and radiographic patterns that can aid in their diagnosis.

      Staphylococcal pneumonia is often associated with a recent viral infection, intravenous drug use, or the presence of central lines. It typically presents as cavitating bronchopneumonia, which can be bilateral and complicated by pneumothorax, effusion, or empyema. Flucloxacillin is the drug of choice for treatment, although vancomycin can be used in penicillin-allergic patients.

      Pneumococcal pneumonia, on the other hand, is more commonly acquired in the community and does not usually cause cavitating lesions. It can be suspected in patients with fever, cough, and chest pain, and is often treated with antibiotics such as penicillin or macrolides.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is a type of fungal pneumonia that affects immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with HIV. It typically presents with an interstitial pattern on chest radiographs, rather than cavitating lesions.

      Klebsiella pneumonia is another bacterial cause of cavitating pneumonia, often affecting elderly individuals or those with alcohol use disorders.

      Fungal pneumonia, which can be caused by various fungi such as Aspergillus or Cryptococcus, tends to affect immunocompromised patients, but can also occur in healthy individuals exposed to contaminated environments. Its radiographic pattern can vary depending on the type of fungus involved.

      In summary, understanding the different causes and characteristics of pneumonia can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and choose the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling fatigued all the time. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she complains of having 'stiff joints,' you find no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      Platelets 135 * 109/l
      WBC 3.5 * 109/l
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l
      Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
      TSH 1.30 mu/l
      CRP 8 mg/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have...

    Correct

    • A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have recently moved to the UK and have been advised by immigration officials that their son should receive the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis. The boy is currently healthy and shows no symptoms. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange a tuberculin skin test

      Explanation:

      Before administering the vaccine, it is crucial to conduct a tuberculin skin test to rule out any previous exposure to tuberculosis.

      The BCG Vaccine: Who Should Get It and How It’s Administered

      The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is given to high-risk infants and certain groups of people who are at risk of contracting TB. The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy.

      The Greenbook provides guidelines on who should receive the BCG vaccine. It is recommended for all infants living in areas of the UK where the annual incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with a high incidence of TB. The vaccine is also recommended for previously unvaccinated tuberculin-negative contacts of cases of respiratory TB, new entrants under 16 years of age who were born in or have lived for a prolonged period in a high-risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, staff of care homes for the elderly, and those who work with homeless people.

      Before receiving the BCG vaccine, any person being considered must first be given a tuberculin skin test, except for children under 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is given intradermally, normally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm. It can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, but if not administered simultaneously, there should be a 4-week interval.

      There are some contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous BCG vaccination, a past history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux). It is not given to anyone over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it works for people of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.3
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear, with occasional vertigo. His coworkers have recently commented that he speaks loudly on the phone. On examination his tympanic membranes appear normal.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ménière’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Ménière’s disease is a progressive inner ear disorder that can cause a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. In contrast, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by specific movements, while cholesteatoma typically presents with recurrent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Presbyacusis, or age-related hearing loss, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Although impacted ear wax can cause similar symptoms, normal tympanic membranes suggest that Ménière’s disease is more likely.

      Diagnosis of Ménière’s disease is based on a history of at least two spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting 20 minutes each, along with tinnitus and/or a sense of fullness in the ear canal, and confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry. Management includes self-care advice such as vestibular rehabilitation, medication such as prochlorperazine for acute attacks and betahistine for prevention, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other causes. Patients should also consider the risks of certain activities, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, during severe symptoms. With proper management, patients with Ménière’s disease can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which X-ray alteration is not linked to osteoarthritis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which X-ray alteration is not linked to osteoarthritis?

      Your Answer: Subchondral sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Periarticular erosions

      Explanation:

      X-Ray Changes in Osteoarthritis

      Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the most common diagnostic tools used to identify osteoarthritis is an X-ray. X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by the acronym LOSS, which stands for loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.

      Loss of joint space refers to the narrowing of the space between the bones in a joint. This occurs as the cartilage that cushions the joint wears away, causing the bones to rub against each other. Osteophytes are bony growths that form at the edges of the joint. These growths can cause pain and limit joint movement. Subchondral sclerosis is a hardening of the bone beneath the cartilage. This occurs as the bone tries to compensate for the loss of cartilage. Subchondral cysts are fluid-filled sacs that form in the bone beneath the cartilage. These cysts can cause pain and further damage to the joint.

      In summary, X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by LOSS: loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. These changes can help doctors diagnose and monitor the progression of osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia. She is now wheelchair-bound. On examination, she is now dysarthric, with bilateral optic atrophy. There is ataxia in both upper limbs. Reflexes in her lower limbs are absent, with bilateral extensor plantar response. She has absent vibration and impaired joint position in both feet. Bilateral pes cavus is apparent. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows inverted T waves. Echocardiogram reveals left ventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

      Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is a common inherited progressive ataxia in the UK that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. The earliest symptom is gait ataxia, followed by limb ataxia, absent lower limb reflexes, and later weakness and wasting of the limbs. Other common features include reduced or absent vibration sense and proprioception, spasticity, dysarthria, dysphagia, cardiac abnormalities, scoliosis, pes cavus, equinovarus, sleep apnea, and urinary frequency/urgency. The history is classic for this condition, and the ECG may show left ventricular hypertrophy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Huntington’s disease, and multiple sclerosis are not consistent with this history, while vitamin B12 deficiency may cause similar symptoms but is generally a condition of adults and does not fit the clinical picture as well as Friedreich’s ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and red eye with watering and mild sensitivity to light. The diagnosis was uncertain, but it was suspected to be either episcleritis or scleritis. The on-call ophthalmologist was contacted, and they requested that a specific eye drop be administered to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Which of the following eye drops is capable of distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis?

      Your Answer: Phenylephrine eye drops

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis can be achieved using eye drops. By administering the drops, it is possible to observe whether the redness in the eye blanches or not. If it does, then the condition is episcleritis, but if it doesn’t, then it is scleritis. This skill is particularly valuable for those working in an Emergency Medicine rotation. None of the other options are useful for distinguishing between these two conditions.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Passmed