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Question 1
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A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department by her mother who informs the Consultant of her repeated nosebleeds. She is an avid basketball player, and her mother has noticed multiple bruises after games. The Consultant goes through the list of recent laboratory investigations ordered by the girl’s Paediatrician. Full blood count (FBC), haemoglobin, platelet count, white blood cell count and clotting times [prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT)] were all found to be within normal values. Additional haematological test results were also normal, including activity assays for factor VIII and XIII, platelet aggregation assay and von Willebrand factor (vWF) antigen.
Which of the following physical findings would give the most effective information regarding her diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypermobility of fingers and toes
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values
Introduction:
Bleeding problems with normal haematological values can be challenging to diagnose. This article discusses possible diagnoses for such cases based on physical findings.Hypermobility of Fingers and Toes:
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, a collagen-based disorder, is a possible diagnosis for bleeding problems with normal haematological values. This is associated with hypermobility of the fingers and toes, ocular cutaneous haemorrhages, joint hypermobility, and increased skin elasticity.Subconjunctival Haemorrhages:
Subconjunctival haemorrhages can be caused by ocular or systemic factors. Systemic causes include hypertension, diabetes, and bleeding disorders. It is difficult to diagnose the specific cause without further investigation.Bruises in the Shins:
Easy bruising of the skin can be attributed to platelet disorders, drugs, and hepatic disorders. However, since the coagulation profiles and levels of clotting factors are normal, it is difficult to diagnose the specific cause. Further investigation is necessary.Petechial Rashes on Pressure Sites:
Petechial rashes, conjunctival haemorrhages, and bruising over the shins can indicate an associated bleeding disorder. However, normal haematological values make it difficult to diagnose a specific condition.Visual Acuity Defects and Albinism:
Normal haematological values do not rule out bleeding disorders. Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, can cause visual acuity defects and albinism along with bleeding tendencies. However, the platelet aggregation assay is typically deranged in these cases, which is not the case in this scenario.Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values and Associated Physical Findings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump under his chin that causes him pain and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be functioning normally. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Submandibular Swelling: Understanding the Causes
Submandibular swelling can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to understand the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. One of the most common causes is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition obstructs the salivary ducts and can lead to infection, resulting in pain and swelling after eating. Sialolithiasis is more common in men over the age of 40 and typically affects the submandibular gland.
Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands, usually bilaterally. However, unilateral acute pain and swelling after eating are more typical of a salivary stone, rather than Sjögren syndrome.
Pleomorphic adenomas are benign tumors that usually present as a painless lump, slowly enlarging over time. They do not typically cause acute pain and swelling.
Warthin’s tumor is another slow-growing lump that is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland. Unlike sialolithiasis, it does not cause pain.
Adenoid cystic carcinoma is a malignant tumor that presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area. It does not typically cause pain, but if left unchecked, it can invade local structures such as the facial nerve.
In conclusion, understanding the differential diagnosis of submandibular swelling is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Sialolithiasis, Sjögren syndrome, pleomorphic adenomas, Warthin’s tumor, and adenoid cystic carcinoma are all potential causes, and each requires a different approach to management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender and in the midline of the neck, just below the cricoid cartilage. A thyroglossal cyst is suspected.
Which of the following features is most indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Associated with lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: Rises when patient protrudes her tongue
Explanation:Thyroglossal Cysts: Causes and Symptoms
Thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can occur due to a developmental abnormality in the thyroid gland. These cysts are usually located in the midline of the neck and can cause various symptoms. Here are some important facts about thyroglossal cysts:
Causes:
Thyroglossal cysts occur when part of the thyroglossal duct, which connects the tongue to the thyroid gland during embryonic development, remains and transforms into a cyst. This can happen due to incomplete closure of the duct.Symptoms:
One of the most distinctive symptoms of a thyroglossal cyst is that it rises upwards when the patient protrudes their tongue. This is because the cyst is still connected to the tongue. However, it remains immobile when the patient swallows. Thyroglossal cysts are usually painless, but they can become tender if infected. They are not typically associated with lymphadenopathy. Most thyroglossal cysts present in the teens or early twenties.Treatment:
Surgical removal is the most common treatment for thyroglossal cysts. This involves removing the cyst and the portion of the thyroglossal duct that is still present. The surgery is usually performed under general anesthesia and has a high success rate.In conclusion, thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can cause distinctive symptoms. While they are usually benign, they should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out other conditions and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been referred to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Clinic. He denies any other symptoms and is in good health. Radiology confirms a parotid swelling. What is the most likely pathology he has?
Your Answer: Parotid abscess
Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:Possible Parotid Gland Conditions and Their Characteristics
The parotid gland is a salivary gland located in front of the ear. It can be affected by various conditions, including pleomorphic adenoma, lymphoma, parotid adenitis, parotid abscess, and adenocarcinoma.
Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It is a slow-growing, mixed benign tumour that can potentially become malignant and has a high chance of recurrence. Surgical removal through a parotidectomy is the current treatment approach.
Lymphoma is a possibility in the parotid gland, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Patients with lymphoma may have constitutional symptoms, such as night sweats, weight loss, and fever.
Parotid adenitis is inflammation of the parotid gland, which can occur for various reasons. It may be unilateral or bilateral, as seen in mumps. Inflammatory conditions typically cause more tenderness than swelling.
Parotid abscess is a collection of pus in the parotid gland. However, the unusual shape of the gland in combination with normal overlying skin is not typical of abscesses or inflammation.
Adenocarcinoma of the parotid gland is a malignant tumour that can involve the facial nerve. However, the lack of facial nerve involvement and the relative size of the tumour make adenocarcinoma unlikely in this case.
In summary, the characteristics of each condition can help differentiate between them, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, who presented to the Emergency Department a day before for uncontrollable epistaxis, has been admitted following Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) referral. Bleeding was located and managed by posterior nasal packing. He had no complications following the procedure. However, on the next day, he developed fever, myalgia, hypotension, rashes in the oral mucocutaneous junctions, generalized oedema and several episodes of watery diarrhoea, with nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following investigations/findings would help you make a diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood culture
Correct Answer: Culture and sensitivity of posterior nasal swab
Explanation:Interpreting Clinical Findings in a Patient with Posterior Nasal Swab Procedure
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a potential complication of an infected posterior nasal swab in the management of epistaxis. Clinical signs and symptoms of multiorgan involvement, along with a positive swab from the posterior pharyngeal mucosa, would be diagnostic for TSS caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Blood cultures are not necessary for diagnosis, as they are positive in only 5% of cases. Eosinophilia is not characteristic of TSS, but rather a hallmark of drug reactions with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS). Kawasaki’s disease, another systemic inflammatory disease, is characterised by an increase in acute phase reactants (ESR, CRP) and localised oedema. A non-blanching purpuric rash is typically seen in meningococcal infection and does not match with the clinical features and history of posterior nasal swab procedure in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Eustachian tube dysfunction
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy
Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on the right lateral aspect of his neck, just below the angle of the jaw. The mother reports intermittent discharge from a small pit located just in front of the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the cause of this cyst, resulting from the failure of proliferation of which mesenchyme?
Your Answer: Second pharyngeal arch
Explanation:During embryonic development, the pharyngeal arches give rise to various structures in the head and neck. The second arch forms the external auditory meatus and can sometimes lead to the formation of a branchial cleft cyst. The third arch becomes the common carotid artery and gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle. The first arch becomes the maxillary and mandibular prominences and gives rise to the muscles of mastication. The fourth arch forms the laryngeal cartilages and is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. The fifth arch regresses quickly. Understanding the development of these arches is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6 weeks. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day and has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past 3 months. He denies any episodes of coughing up blood. During an initial examination, an otolaryngologist observes that the right vocal fold is immobile while speaking.
What is the most probable underlying cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Left-Sided Vocal Cord Paralysis
Left-sided vocal cord paralysis can be caused by various factors, including nerve damage and stroke. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a common cause, resulting in hoarseness due to the vocal cord lying in a paramedian position. This type of nerve damage is often associated with an underlying lung malignancy with mediastinal lymph node involvement. On the other hand, left glossopharyngeal nerve palsy does not affect the larynx, while left superior laryngeal nerve palsy is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and is also more common on the left side. Cerebrovascular accidents involving the left middle or anterior cerebral artery can also cause vocal cord paralysis, but the history provided does not suggest a stroke. Accurately identifying the cause of left-sided vocal cord paralysis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use
Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.
IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.
For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function
Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.Vagus Nerve Damage
Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with a tumour of the left submandibular gland underwent surgery. While operating on the left submandibular gland, the lingual nerve was damaged. What is the most probable postoperative complaint of the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the left side of the tongue
Explanation:Understanding Lingual Nerve Injury: Effects on Tongue Sensation and Movement
The lingual nerve is a crucial component of the mandibular nerve, responsible for providing sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and floor of the mouth. It also carries taste sensation fibers from the facial nerve via the chorda tympani special sensory nerves. Injuries to the lingual nerve can result in numbness, dysesthesia, paraesthesiae, and dysgeusia, affecting the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side. Such injuries can occur during invasive dental and surgical procedures.
However, it is important to note that the lingual nerve does not contain a motor component, and thus, it does not affect tongue movement. Deviation of the tongue to either side is not expected in cases of lingual nerve injury.
It is also worth noting that the lingual nerve only supplies sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The posterior third of the tongue, on the other hand, is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve. Therefore, lingual nerve injury does not affect general sensation in the posterior third of the tongue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain on and off for about 2 weeks, particularly during meals. However, the pain has increased significantly over the last 2 days. During examination, he is found to be febrile at 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals poor dental hygiene and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Left Submandibular Gland Infection
Left submandibular gland infection can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them for proper treatment. Sialolithiasis, or a submandibular gland calculus, is a common cause and presents with dull pain around the gland, worsened by mealtimes or sour foods. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes sharp tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth. Mumps parotitis affects younger patients and presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth. However, if left untreated, it can progress to Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth. Ludwig’s angina typically follows a dental infection and requires early specialist intervention to secure the airway and prevent fatal consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His mother had a right adrenal phaeochromocytoma which was successfully removed. The patient is 1.9m tall and weighs 74 kg. During examination, the doctor notices multiple yellowish white masses on the patient's lips and tongue. Three months later, the patient undergoes a total thyroidectomy. Which structure is innervated by the nerve most at risk during this procedure, and is also part of the vagus nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:The aortic arch has baroreceptors that send afferent fibers to the vagus nerve. A patient with an enlarging neck mass, a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B), and a marfanoid habitus may have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is a feature of MEN2B. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but the recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, is at risk during thyroidectomy. The chorda tympani innervates the taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve innervate the general somatic sensation and motor function, respectively. The platysma muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VII, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries general visceral afferent information from the carotid sinus to the brainstem. The spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain, swelling, and itching. Her mother reports that it all started after her daughter began swimming lessons two months ago. During examination, the clinician notes tenderness when pulling the right ear upwards. Otoscopy is challenging due to the painful, swollen ear canal and white discharge. Additionally, the girl has tender cervical lymph nodes on the right side below the ear and experiences pain when moving her jaw sideways. She has a mild fever (38.3 °C), but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acetic acid 2% spray (with wick placement) and oral antibiotics
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this patient’s severe otitis externa involves a combination of topical acetic acid 2% spray with wick placement and oral antibiotics. The use of wick placement is necessary due to the swelling in the ear canal, which can hinder the effectiveness of the topical solution. Oral antibiotics are necessary in cases where the infection has spread to adjacent areas, as evidenced by the patient’s tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin are commonly used for severe cases. Cleaning and irrigation of the ear canal may be performed under otoscope guidance to remove debris and promote better absorption of topical medication. Oral aminoglycosides are effective but should only be used if the tympanic membrane is intact. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not sufficient for treating severe otitis externa. While topical acetic acid 2% spray is a first-line treatment for mild cases, a combination of topical therapy and oral antibiotics is necessary for severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal symptoms, cough, feeling feverish and general malaise for the past week. She reports that she is eating and drinking well. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1°C and her chest is clear. Her tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. She has no significant medical history except for carpal tunnel syndrome. Based on her Fever PAIN score, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Safety net and review in 1 week if no improvement
Explanation:Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use in Pharyngitis
Pharyngitis, or sore throat, is a common reason for patients to seek medical attention. However, not all cases of pharyngitis require antibiotics. In fact, inappropriate antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other negative outcomes. To help providers determine which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal pharyngitis, the FeverPAIN Score was developed.
The FeverPAIN Score assesses five factors: fever, presence of pus, how quickly symptoms attenuate, inflamed tonsils, and cough. A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection, while a score of 4 or more is associated with a high likelihood. For patients with a score of 2 or 3, delayed antibiotic use may be appropriate.
In the case of a woman with inflamed tonsils, her FeverPAIN Score indicates that antibiotics are not necessary. However, it is important to safety net patients and review their condition in one week if there is no improvement. By using the FeverPAIN Score, providers can make informed decisions about antibiotic use in pharyngitis and help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning
Explanation:When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis
Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.
The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.
For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.
Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department after being involved in a fight. He reports being punched on his left ear and has since lost hearing in that ear. He has a GCS score of 15 and has been coherent and lucid throughout the incident. He experiences a mild headache but has not vomited or felt drowsy. On examination, there are no focal neurological signs, and his cervical spine is not tender. Fundoscopy reveals a normal retina, but there is a ruptured left tympanic membrane with a small amount of blood. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him a week’s course of co-amoxiclav, and advise him to keep his ear dry and to see his general practitioner in 6 weeks
Explanation:Managing a Ruptured Tympanic Membrane: Treatment Options
A ruptured tympanic membrane can occur due to otitis media or trauma. In most cases, the membrane heals on its own within six weeks. To promote healing, it is important to keep the ear dry and avoid exposing it to potentially contaminated water.
Treatment options for a ruptured tympanic membrane depend on the severity of the condition. In most cases, a week’s course of co-amoxiclav is sufficient. However, if symptoms persist after six weeks, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist may be necessary for a tympanoplasty.
There is no need for neurosurgical intervention or a CT scan unless there are complications or signs of an intracranial bleed. Overall, prompt treatment and careful management can help ensure a full recovery from a ruptured tympanic membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain
Explanation:Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.
Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.
The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test
Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus
Explanation:The Role of Nerves in Voice Production
The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.
The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.
Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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