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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal screening. Her BMI is 23 kg/m², her BP is 136/82 mmHg, her symphysis-fundal height is 29cm and her urine dipstick results are as follows:
Test Results
Ketones negative
Blood negative
Protein negative
Glucose trace
Nitrites negative
Leukocytes negative
What would be the most suitable course of action next?Your Answer: Request an oral glucose tolerance test
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased blood flow to the kidneys and an increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), allowing for more efficient filtering of the blood. The patient’s symphysis-fundal height is within the expected range, indicating that the baby is not macrosomic. The patient does not exhibit symptoms of gestational diabetes, such as polyuria, polydipsia, or nocturia, and does not have any risk factors for the condition. Therefore, arranging for a fasting glucose test is not the best option for diagnosing or excluding gestational diabetes. Instead, an OGTT should be considered the gold standard. Prescribing labetalol is not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any concerning signs of pre-eclampsia. Similarly, prescribing metformin is not indicated as the patient has not been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and does not require medication for diabetes at this time.
Physiological Changes During Pregnancy
The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.
The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.
The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primiparous woman attends her first health visitor appointment. She is currently exclusively breastfeeding, but she complains of sore, cracked nipples. Despite using nipple shields, her symptoms have not improved. The woman is also concerned that her baby is not feeding enough, as she frequently has to stop the feed due to tenderness.
During nipple examination, you observe small surface cracks, but no exudate or erythema.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Prescribe topical fusidic acid
Correct Answer: Advise the patient to consider expressing breast milk and feeding the baby from the bottle until the cracks heal
Explanation:Managing Nipple Cracks During Breastfeeding
Breastfeeding can be a challenging experience for new mothers, especially when they develop nipple cracks. To manage this condition, it is important to observe the breastfeeding technique and ensure correct positioning and latch. If the cracks persist, expressing breast milk and feeding the baby from a bottle may be necessary until the skin heals. Topical fusidic acid should be prescribed for bacterial infections, while miconazole cream is used for Candida infections. Nipple shields and breast shells should be avoided, and reducing the duration of feeds is not recommended. By following these guidelines, mothers can successfully manage nipple cracks and continue to breastfeed their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally to a healthy baby girl after a normal pregnancy. What is a third-degree tear of the perineum?
Your Answer: Injury to the perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter
Correct Answer: Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex
Explanation:Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitate labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A woman at 12 weeks gestation experiences a miscarriage. Out of these five factors, which one is most strongly linked to miscarriage?
Your Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Obesity is the only factor among the given options that has been linked to miscarriage. Other factors such as heavy lifting, bumping your tummy, having sex, air travel, and being stressed have not been associated with an increased risk of miscarriage. However, factors like increased maternal age, smoking in pregnancy, consuming alcohol, recreational drug use, high caffeine intake, infections and food poisoning, health conditions, and certain medicines have been linked to an increased risk of miscarriage. Additionally, an unusual shape or structure of the womb and cervical incompetence can also increase the risk of miscarriage.
Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology
Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.
Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy and underwent a caesarean section at 36 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure has been normal since then and today. What intervention should be suggested to decrease the likelihood of pre-eclampsia recurrence?
Your Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband at 12 weeks’ gestation because she has been experiencing severe morning sickness, palpitations and heat intolerance. Ultrasound of her uterus reveals a ‘snow storm’ appearance and complete absence of fetal tissue.
What is the most suitable parameter to monitor for effective treatment of this patient’s condition?Your Answer: CA-125
Correct Answer: Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG)
Explanation:Common Tumor Markers and their Clinical Significance
Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG)
β-HCG levels are monitored in cases of molar pregnancy, which can present with morning sickness and symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to high levels of HCG. Monitoring levels of β-HCG is important to ensure that no fetal tissue remains after treatment to minimise the risk of developing choriocarcinoma or a persistent mole.Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
AFP is a marker used to screen for neural tube defects, hepatocellular carcinoma and endodermal sinus tumours.CA-125
CA-125 is a marker of ovarian malignancy. Although it is used to monitor response to chemotherapy and tumour recurrence, it has not been widely used as a screening tool.Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Increased LDH is strongly associated with dysgerminomas.Oestriol
Urine unconjugated oestriol is measured as part of the quadruple screen for trisomy 21. Low levels of oestriol are suggestive of Down syndrome.Understanding Tumor Markers and their Clinical Implications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given a dose of intramuscular syntocinon before the placenta was delivered. During the wait for the placenta, she experiences a blood loss of 400ml. Even after the placenta is delivered, the bleeding continues and she loses an additional 500ml of blood. The medical team initiates the necessary resuscitation measures and the major haemorrhage protocol. The cause of the bleeding is identified as uterine atony, and the patient is given boluses of syntocinon, ergometrine, and carboprost. However, the bleeding persists. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: Intra-uterine Bakri catheter
Explanation:The correct first-line surgical intervention for postpartum haemorrhage is an intra-uterine Bakri catheter. This device is used to tamponade the bleeding caused by uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine myometrium cells to contract. Hysterectomy is not the first option as it is a last resort and will make the patient infertile. Lying the patient on her left lateral side is not relevant for a woman who has already delivered her baby. Ligation of the internal iliac artery may be used, but it is not the next most appropriate step as it may lead to ischaemic complications. Intra-uterine balloon tamponade is the first-line surgical intervention if other measures fail.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents at 18 weeks’ gestation, seeking advice. She was collecting her son from school the other day when the teacher alerted the parents that a few children had developed ‘slapped cheek syndrome’. One of those children was at her house with his parents for dinner over the weekend.
She is concerned she may have been infected and is worried about her baby. She had all her paediatric vaccinations, as per the National Health Service (NHS) schedule.
Which of the following should be the next step in the investigation of this patient?Your Answer: No further investigation is required as there was no significant contact
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) serology
Explanation:Serology Testing for Parvovirus B19 and Rubella During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to investigate exposure to certain viruses, such as parvovirus B19 and rubella, as they can have detrimental effects on the fetus. Serology testing for immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies is used to determine if a patient has had a previous infection or if there is a recent or acute infection.
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that commonly affects children and can cause slapped cheek syndrome. If a patient has had significant exposure to parvovirus B19, IgG and IgM serology testing is performed. A positive IgG and negative IgM result indicates an old infection, while a negative IgG and IgM result requires repeat testing in one month. A positive IgM result indicates a recent infection, which requires further confirmation and referral to a specialist center for fetal monitoring.
Varicella IgG serology is performed if there was exposure to chickenpox during pregnancy. A positive result indicates immunity to the virus, and no further investigation is required.
Rubella IgG and IgM serology is used to investigate exposure to rubella during pregnancy. A positive IgG indicates previous exposure or immunity from vaccination, while a positive IgM indicates a recent or acute infection.
In conclusion, serology testing is an important tool in investigating viral exposure during pregnancy and can help guide appropriate management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and is otherwise feeling well. On examination, she is tender in the right iliac fossa and has a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault with a closed cervical os. There is no cervical excitation. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, heart rate of 80 bpm, temperature of 36.5ºC, saturations of 99% on air, and respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute. A urine dip reveals blood only, and a urinary pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for assessment at the Early Pregnancy Unit within the next 7 days
Correct Answer: Refer for immediate assessment at the Early Pregnancy Unit
Explanation:A woman with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment due to the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Arranging an outpatient ultrasound or reassuring the patient is not appropriate. Urgent investigation is necessary to prevent the risk of rupture. Expectant management may be appropriate for a woman with vaginal bleeding and no pain or tenderness, but not for this patient who has both.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.
In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who is worried about her current mood. He reports that she has been sleeping and eating very little since the birth of their baby, which was a month ago. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Ask the mother to complete the 'Edinburgh depression scale'
Explanation:The Edinburgh Scale is a useful tool for screening postnatal depression. The fact that the husband is bringing his wife to the GP practice a month after giving birth suggests that her mood change is not due to baby blues, which typically resolve within three days of giving birth. It is more likely that she is suffering from postnatal depression, but it is important to assess her correctly before offering any treatment such as ECT. The Edinburgh depression scale can be used to assess the patient, with a score greater than 10 indicating possible depression. If there is no immediate harm to the mother or baby, watchful waiting is usually the first step in managing this condition. There is no indication in this question that the mother is experiencing domestic abuse.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had an active third stage of labour with 10 mg of Syntocinon® administered intramuscularly. The placenta was delivered ten minutes ago and appears complete. The midwife has called you, as there is a continuous small stream of fresh red blood loss. It is estimated that the patient has lost 1050 ml of blood so far. You palpate the abdomen, and you cannot feel any uterine contractions.
Observations:
Heart rate (HR) 107 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 158/105 mmHg
Temperature 37.1 °C
Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturations 98% on air
Which of the following is the next step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Transfuse two units of O-negative blood
Correct Answer: Uterine massage and oxytocin infusion
Explanation:Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage: Conservative and Pharmacological Methods
Postpartum hemorrhage is a common complication of childbirth and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly. The causes of postpartum hemorrhage fall under four categories, known as the 4Ts: tissue problems, tone problems, trauma, and thrombin. In cases of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, conservative and pharmacological methods should be employed first.
The initial assessment should include securing two large-bore cannulae, sending blood for urgent full blood count, group and save, clotting and crossmatch of four units of blood, and commencing intravenous fluids. Uterine massage of the fundus, as well as an oxytocin infusion, should be the first step in management. If pharmacological methods fail to arrest the bleeding, then an intrauterine balloon can be employed as second line. If this still fails, the patient should be transferred to theatre for exploration and hysterectomy if necessary.
Ergometrine is contraindicated in women with hypertension, and therefore, should not be used in patients with a raised blood pressure. Hysterectomy is a last resort in women with massive postpartum hemorrhage where mechanical and pharmacological methods have failed to stop the bleeding and the patient is haemodynamically compromised. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is an effective mechanical method to stop postpartum hemorrhage in cases where other methods have failed.
It is important to ensure that blood is available if necessary, but transfusion should not be treated lightly due to the potential for severe complications. An up-to-date hemoglobin level should be obtained, and the patient should be fluid-resuscitated and monitored before any decision for transfusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of postpartum hemorrhage is crucial for ensuring positive maternal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of light per-vaginal spotting. Based on her last menstrual period date, she is 8 weeks and 4 days gestation and has not yet undergone any scans. She reports no abdominal pain or flooding episodes and has no prior medical history. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a closed cervical os with a single intrauterine gestational sac, a 2 mm yolk sac, and a crown-rump length measuring 7.8mm, without cardiac activity. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Inevitable miscarriage
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:A diagnosis of miscarriage can be made when a transvaginal ultrasound shows a crown-rump length greater than 7mm without cardiac activity. In this case, the patient has experienced a missed miscarriage, as the ultrasound revealed an intrauterine foetus of a size consistent with around 6 weeks gestation, but without heartbeat. The closed cervical os and history of spotting further support this diagnosis. A complete miscarriage, inevitable miscarriage, and partial miscarriage are not applicable in this scenario.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is eight weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She has had clinical hypothyroidism for the past four years and takes 50 micrograms of levothyroxine daily. She reports feeling well and denies any symptoms. You order thyroid function tests, which reveal the following results:
Free thyroxine (fT4) 20 pmol/l (11–22 pmol/l)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.1 μu/l (0.17–3.2 μu/l)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests should be performed in the first and second trimesters
Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine by 25 mcg and repeat thyroid function tests in two weeks
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Importance of Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Tests
Hypothyroidism is a common condition in pregnancy that requires careful management to ensure optimal fetal development and maternal health. Levothyroxine is the mainstay of treatment for hypothyroidism, and its dosing needs to be adjusted during pregnancy to account for the physiological changes that occur. Here are some key recommendations for managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy:
Increase Levothyroxine by 25 mcg and Repeat Thyroid Function Tests in Two Weeks
As soon as pregnancy is confirmed, levothyroxine treatment should be increased by 25 mcg, even if the patient is currently euthyroid. This is because women without thyroid disease experience a physiological increase in serum fT4 until the 12th week of pregnancy, which is not observed in patients with hypothyroidism. Increasing levothyroxine dose mimics this surge and ensures adequate fetal development. Thyroid function tests should be repeated two weeks later to ensure a euthyroid state.
Perform Thyroid Function Tests in the First and Second Trimesters
Regular thyroid function tests should be performed in pregnancy, starting in the preconception period if possible. Tests should be done at least once per trimester and two weeks after any changes in levothyroxine dose.
Continue on the Same Dose of Levothyroxine at Present if Euthyroid
If the patient is currently euthyroid, continue on the same dose of levothyroxine. However, as soon as pregnancy is confirmed, increase the dose by 25 mcg as described above.
Return to Pre-Pregnancy Dosing Immediately Post-Delivery
After delivery, thyroid function tests should be performed 2-6 weeks postpartum, and levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to return to pre-pregnancy levels based on the test results.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful attention to levothyroxine dosing and regular thyroid function testing. By following these recommendations, we can ensure the best outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are a male FY1 working in obstetrics. A 35-year-old female is on the ward in labour, 10 minutes ago she suffered a placental abruption and is in need of emergency care. Her midwife comes to see you, informing you that she is requesting to only be seen and cared for by female doctors. How do you respond?
Your Answer: Accept her wishes and ask around for a female doctor to come to the ward
Correct Answer: Ask the midwife to immediately summon senior medical support, regardless of gender
Explanation:Placental abruption is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent severe blood loss and potential harm to both the mother and baby. While patients have the right to choose their doctor, this right does not apply in emergency situations where prompt treatment is necessary to save the patient’s life. Therefore, suggesting that the patient wait for a female doctor or return in an hour is inappropriate and could result in a dangerous delay in medical care. It is also unnecessary to label the comment as sexist and document it in the patient’s notes. While it is important to respect the patient’s preferences, the priority in this situation is to provide urgent medical attention. Similarly, asking a midwife to take on the role of a doctor is not a safe or appropriate solution, as their training and responsibilities differ. Ultimately, if a female doctor is not available, the patient must be treated by a male doctor to address the emergency as quickly and effectively as possible.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors
Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A first-time mother who is currently exclusively breastfeeding her infant, now six months old, is considering introducing solid foods and she is wondering about breastfeeding recommendations.
Which of the following best describes the World Health Organization (WHO) breastfeeding recommendations?Your Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding for six months, followed by a combination of foods and breastfeeding for up to one year of age
Correct Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding for six months, followed by a combination of foods and breastfeeding up to two years of age or beyond
Explanation:The Importance of Breastfeeding and Weaning
Breastfeeding is crucial for a child’s development and should begin within the first hour of life, according to the WHO and UNICEF. For the first six months, exclusive breastfeeding is recommended, with the baby receiving only breast milk for nutrition. Breastfeeding should occur on demand, and breast milk provides numerous benefits for the child’s cognitive, motor, and immune system development.
After six months, weaning should begin with the introduction of solid foods, while breast milk continues to provide at least half of the child’s nutrition. The WHO recommends breastfeeding for up to two years of age or beyond, with breast milk providing at least one-third of the child’s nutrition in the second year of life.
Overall, breastfeeding and weaning play a crucial role in a child’s growth and development, and it is important to follow the recommended guidelines for optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A woman in her late twenties at 28 weeks gestation, complains of painless bright red vaginal bleeding. She mentions experiencing two previous instances of slight painless vaginal bleeding, but believes that this episode is much more severe. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cervical polyp
Correct Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:Placenta praevia is characterized by painless and bright red bleeding, while placental abruption is accompanied by dark red bleeding and pain. The history of previous bleeding also suggests placenta praevia. Vasa praevia may also cause painless vaginal bleeding, but fetal bradycardia and membrane rupture are expected symptoms.
Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an APGAR score of 10 at 1, 5, and 10 minutes. However, during delivery, the mother experienced a perineal tear, and the midwife has called the doctor to suture it. Upon examination, it was found that the injury affected the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, but the anal sphincter remained intact. What is the degree of injury?
Your Answer: Third degree
Correct Answer: Second degree
Explanation:The patient in this case had a second degree perineal tear, which is a tear in the skin and soft tissue structures between the vagina and anus that occurs during childbirth due to excessive strain. This type of tear involves the perineal muscle but does not include the anal sphincter. Fifth degree tears do not exist, and first degree tears only involve superficial damage without muscle involvement. Fourth degree tears are severe and involve injury to the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, but in this case, the anal sphincter was spared.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old, G2P1, presents to the obstetrics assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and mild abdominal pain at 15 weeks gestation. What aspect of her medical history would raise concern for a possible miscarriage?
Your Answer: Primigravid
Correct Answer: Large cervical cone biopsy
Explanation:There are several factors that can increase the risk of miscarriage, including age, previous miscarriages, chronic conditions, uterine or cervical problems (such as large cervical cone biopsies or Mullerian duct anomalies), smoking, alcohol and illicit drug use, and weight. Invasive prenatal tests like chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis also carry a slight risk of miscarriage. It’s important to note that other options are not considered risk factors for 2nd-trimester miscarriage.
Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology
Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.
Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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