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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal symptoms, cough, feeling feverish and general malaise for the past week. She reports that she is eating and drinking well. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1°C and her chest is clear. Her tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. She has no significant medical history except for carpal tunnel syndrome. Based on her Fever PAIN score, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Safety net and review in 1 week if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use in Pharyngitis

      Pharyngitis, or sore throat, is a common reason for patients to seek medical attention. However, not all cases of pharyngitis require antibiotics. In fact, inappropriate antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other negative outcomes. To help providers determine which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal pharyngitis, the FeverPAIN Score was developed.

      The FeverPAIN Score assesses five factors: fever, presence of pus, how quickly symptoms attenuate, inflamed tonsils, and cough. A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection, while a score of 4 or more is associated with a high likelihood. For patients with a score of 2 or 3, delayed antibiotic use may be appropriate.

      In the case of a woman with inflamed tonsils, her FeverPAIN Score indicates that antibiotics are not necessary. However, it is important to safety net patients and review their condition in one week if there is no improvement. By using the FeverPAIN Score, providers can make informed decisions about antibiotic use in pharyngitis and help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 2 - A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any blockages in the drainage pathways and perform balloon catheter dilation of the paranasal sinus openings. During the procedure, the surgeon aims to access the middle meatus of the nasal cavity to insert a cannula into the ostia.
      Which of the paranasal sinuses empties into the sphenoethmoidal recess?

      Your Answer: Anterior ethmoidal sinus

      Correct Answer: Sphenoidal sinus

      Explanation:

      Sinus Drainage Pathways in the Nasal Cavity

      The nasal cavity contains several sinuses that drain into different areas of the cavity. The sphenoidal sinus drains into the sphenoethmoid recess, which is located posterior and superior to the superior concha. The anterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the middle meatus via the semilunar hiatus, as does the maxillary sinus. The frontal sinus, on the other hand, drains into the infundibulum of the middle meatus. Finally, the middle ethmoidal sinus drains to the ethmoid bulla of the middle meatus. Understanding these drainage pathways is important for diagnosing and treating sinus issues.

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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vestibular colorimetric test

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on the right lateral aspect of his neck, just below the angle of the jaw. The mother reports intermittent discharge from a small pit located just in front of the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the cause of this cyst, resulting from the failure of proliferation of which mesenchyme?

      Your Answer: Second pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the pharyngeal arches give rise to various structures in the head and neck. The second arch forms the external auditory meatus and can sometimes lead to the formation of a branchial cleft cyst. The third arch becomes the common carotid artery and gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle. The first arch becomes the maxillary and mandibular prominences and gives rise to the muscles of mastication. The fourth arch forms the laryngeal cartilages and is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. The fifth arch regresses quickly. Understanding the development of these arches is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the head and neck.

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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?

      Your Answer: External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Nerves in Voice Production

      The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.

      The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.

      Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.

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  • Question 6 - Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Reassure his parents that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures

      Correct Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.

      It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.

      While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.

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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender and in the midline of the neck, just below the cricoid cartilage. A thyroglossal cyst is suspected.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Rises when patient protrudes her tongue

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal Cysts: Causes and Symptoms

      Thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can occur due to a developmental abnormality in the thyroid gland. These cysts are usually located in the midline of the neck and can cause various symptoms. Here are some important facts about thyroglossal cysts:

      Causes:
      Thyroglossal cysts occur when part of the thyroglossal duct, which connects the tongue to the thyroid gland during embryonic development, remains and transforms into a cyst. This can happen due to incomplete closure of the duct.

      Symptoms:
      One of the most distinctive symptoms of a thyroglossal cyst is that it rises upwards when the patient protrudes their tongue. This is because the cyst is still connected to the tongue. However, it remains immobile when the patient swallows. Thyroglossal cysts are usually painless, but they can become tender if infected. They are not typically associated with lymphadenopathy. Most thyroglossal cysts present in the teens or early twenties.

      Treatment:
      Surgical removal is the most common treatment for thyroglossal cysts. This involves removing the cyst and the portion of the thyroglossal duct that is still present. The surgery is usually performed under general anesthesia and has a high success rate.

      In conclusion, thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can cause distinctive symptoms. While they are usually benign, they should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out other conditions and determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gingivostomatitis

      Correct Answer: Submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
      Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain

      Explanation:

      Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss

      Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.

      Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.

      The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.

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  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has been going on for 6 weeks. He reports hearing a ringing noise in his left ear only and experiencing hearing loss on the left side. The noise is intrusive and is causing him to have trouble sleeping at night. He denies experiencing any vertigo, headache, or other neurological symptoms. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes atenolol for it.
      Upon examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Perform Epley manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tinnitus: Red Flags and Treatment Options

      Unilateral tinnitus is a rare but concerning symptom that should always warrant urgent referral to an ENT specialist. It may indicate an underlying condition such as acoustic neuroma, cerebellopontine angle tumor, glomus tumor, or Ménière’s disease. Other red flag symptoms include pulsatile tinnitus, tinnitus with significant vertigo or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus causing psychological distress, and tinnitus with significant neurological symptoms or signs.

      Vestibular retraining, an exercise-based treatment program, can help manage vertigo in patients with tinnitus. However, medication has no direct role in treating tinnitus, although it can be used to alleviate associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

      It is important to note that there is no conventional or complementary medication that has been proven to have specific tinnitus-ameliorating qualities. In fact, repeatedly trying unsuccessful therapies may worsen tinnitus. Therefore, it is crucial to seek prompt medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan.

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  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left ear for the last six months presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department. She describes the ringing sound to be pulsatile in nature. She has no history of fever, hearing loss, trauma or any recent ear infections. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis under remission for the past two years. Clinical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation which will help to reach a final diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) (contrast-enhanced) scan of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pulsatile Tinnitus in a Patient with Multiple Sclerosis

      Pulsatile tinnitus, a constant ringing or humming sound perceived in the absence of actual sound, can be psychologically debilitating to the patient. In a patient with multiple sclerosis, pulsatile tinnitus may be caused by spontaneous spasm of middle ear muscles. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging for all patients with pulsatile tinnitus to identify the underlying cause. In this case, contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the temporal bone is the best investigation to identify middle ear/osseous pathology. Tympanometry and otoscopy can also be valuable initial investigations for suspected middle ear pathologies. Magnetic resonance angiography is not the best investigation in this scenario as the patient’s history suggests a muscular cause of pulsatile tinnitus. Weber’s test is not relevant in this case as the patient does not report any hearing loss.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?

      Your Answer: Five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year

      Correct Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis

      Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.

      The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.

      For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.

      Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.

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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in the left parotid area for the past week. The pain is triggered when the patient is eating or about to eat. The GP suspects a parotid duct stone.
      Regarding the parotid gland, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: It has a duct that pierces the masseter muscle to enter the mouth opposite the upper second molar tooth

      Correct Answer: It has secretomotor action via the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland is innervated by parasympathetic nerves originating in the inferior salivary nucleus at the lower pons. These nerves travel along the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves, and synapse in the otic ganglion before hitch-hiking with the auriculotemporal nerve to reach the gland. Injury to these nerves during parotidectomy can cause Frey syndrome. The gland consists of superficial and deep lobes separated by the neurovascular bundle, and its duct passes around the anterior border of the masseter muscle before piercing the buccinator muscle and exiting opposite the second upper molar tooth. The gland produces mainly serous secretion, which is why salivary stones are rarely found in the parotid gland.

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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy

      Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there is a 2-cm smooth, round lump at the anterior border of the upper third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Neck Swellings and Their Characteristics

      There are several types of neck swellings that can occur, each with their own unique characteristics. Here are some common neck swellings and their descriptions:

      1. Branchial cyst – This type of cyst typically appears as a painless, smooth swelling in young adults. The cause is unknown, but surgical removal is usually recommended to prevent the development of an abscess.

      2. Goitre – A goitre, or thyroid lump, is a swelling that rises on swallowing and is usually located in the midline of the neck.

      3. Acute parotitis – This condition presents as a painful swelling in front of the ear.

      4. Cystic hygroma – These benign cystic structures are typically found in infants and are located in the posterior triangle of the neck.

      5. Thyroglossal cyst – This type of cyst is located in the midline of the neck and moves as the tongue protrudes.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you notice any unusual swelling in your neck, as some of these conditions may require treatment.

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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in her ears for the past six months. She experienced this after being hospitalized for two weeks due to a soft tissue infection that was complicated by a bloodstream infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. During her hospital stay, she was treated with flucloxacillin, gentamicin, and vancomycin. The tinnitus is present in both ears, and her ear and neurological examinations are normal. What is the probable underlying cause of this patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Correct Answer: Ototoxic medication

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hearing loss and tinnitus

      Gentamicin-induced ototoxicity

      A patient presenting with bilateral tinnitus and hearing loss after recent use of gentamicin is likely experiencing ototoxicity from this antibiotic. Gentamicin can damage the vestibular system and cause sensorineural hearing loss.

      Bacteraemia and viral labyrinthitis

      Bacteraemia, especially from methicillin-resistant S. aureus, would not cause tinnitus. Viral labyrinthitis may cause tinnitus, but it is usually accompanied by severe vertigo and hearing loss.

      Hyperlipidaemia and noise-induced hearing loss

      Hyperlipidaemia, particularly hypertriglyceridaemia, has been linked to an increased risk of noise-induced hearing loss and tinnitus. A low-cholesterol diet and atorvastatin may help alleviate these symptoms.

      Ménière’s disease and betahistine

      Ménière’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by excess endolymph, leading to severe vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Betahistine is a medication used to manage the symptoms of Ménière’s disease, but there is no cure for this condition.

      Otosclerosis and conductive hearing loss

      Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bony ossicles of the ear, leading to conductive hearing loss. It results from abnormal sclerosis of the malleus, incus, and stapes, which are crucial for sound conduction from the outer to the inner ear.

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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man visits his GP complaining of ear pain, itch and pus-like...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man visits his GP complaining of ear pain, itch and pus-like discharge that has been present for 3 days. He reports no fever and no hearing loss. The patient has a history of psoriasis. On examination, the doctor observes a raised red lesion on the ear with thick, silvery-white adherent scales. The tympanic membrane is intact and there is no visible mucous. The external auditory canal shows mild erythema and swelling. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment for this man's acute ear condition?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is an infection of the outer ear canal. It can be caused by breaks in the skin, such as those seen in psoriasis. Treatment options depend on the severity of the infection and may include topical antibiotics, topical steroids, intravenous antibiotics, oral antibiotics, or topical antifungal agents.

      Topical Antibiotics
      The first line of treatment for otitis externa is topical antibacterial therapy. This may include 2% acetic acid, neomycin, or aminoglycosides. If swelling is severe, a wick may be inserted after cleaning the ear canal. Steroids may also be added to the ear drops to decrease inflammation and swelling, but their effectiveness is not always clear. Drops should be given for three days beyond the cessation of symptoms.

      Topical Steroids
      In addition to antibiotics, steroids may be added to ear drops to reduce inflammation and swelling. However, they should be used in conjunction with antibiotics.

      Intravenous Antibiotics
      If the infection is severe or unresponsive to oral antibiotics, intravenous antibiotics may be necessary. Topical cultures may be recommended to guide treatment in severe cases.

      Oral Antibiotics
      Oral antibiotics are rarely needed for otitis externa but may be used if the infection is persistent, if associated otitis media is present, or if there is local or systemic spread. Signs of systemic spread include a temperature over 38.3 °C, severe initial pain, or lymphadenopathy.

      Topical Antifungal Agents
      Fungal infections may present with white to off-white discharge or black, grey, bluish-green, or yellow discharge. Aspergillus spp. may be identified by small black or white conidiophores on white hyphae. Suspected fungal otitis externa can be treated with topical antifungal agents such as clotrimazole.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
      What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use

      Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.

      IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.

      For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis

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      • ENT
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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a mass on the right side of his neck that has been growing in size. On examination, a mass is found on the side of the neck, behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laryngocoele

      Correct Answer: Cystic hygroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Abnormalities: Cystic Hygroma, Laryngocoele, Cervical Rib, Branchial Cyst, and Enlarged Lymph Node

      Neck abnormalities can be challenging to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in proper diagnosis. Cystic hygromas are lymphatic abnormalities that are commonly found in the posterior triangle of the neck and transilluminate. They may not be noticeable at birth but typically grow as the child grows. Laryngoceles are abnormal cystic dilatations of the saccule or appendix of the laryngeal ventricle, which communicate with the lumen of the larynx and are filled with air. They are usually benign but can cause airway obstruction. Cervical ribs are extra ribs that arise from the seventh cervical vertebra and are located above the first rib. They do not transilluminate. Branchial cysts are remnants of the second branchial cleft and occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, most commonly at the junction of the lower and middle thirds of the muscle. They do not transilluminate. Enlarged lymph nodes are usually secondary to an infection and settle to normal size after six to eight weeks. Understanding the characteristics of these neck abnormalities can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • ENT
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