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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to acute delirium. Upon assessment, he appears disoriented to time and place, and is exhibiting responses to unseen stimuli. His family reports that he has been experiencing increased confusion over the past week, as well as complaining of stomach pains and constipation.
The patient has not been prescribed any new medications, but is regularly taking atorvastatin and ramipril. It is important to note that he is currently receiving palliative treatment for lung adenocarcinoma. The suspected cause of his delirium is paraneoplastic production of parathyroid hormone-related protein.
Which set of blood test results would best match the patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer: Raised parathyroid hormone, low calcium and high phosphate
Correct Answer: Low parathyroid hormone, high calcium and low phosphate
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypercalcemia caused by a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, specifically squamous cell, adenocarcinoma, and small cell. Paraneoplastic syndromes occur when cancer cells produce hormones that disrupt the body’s normal balance. In this case, the cancer cells are producing a parathyroid-like hormone, which increases bone turnover and releases calcium, resulting in elevated serum calcium and decreased phosphate levels. The malignancy is producing an ectopic form of parathyroid hormone, which suppresses the body’s natural supply. If the patient had elevated parathyroid hormone levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism, which typically causes high calcium and low phosphate levels. Normal parathyroid hormone levels would indicate that the body’s homeostatic mechanisms are functioning properly, resulting in normal calcium and phosphate levels. Low parathyroid hormone levels, along with low calcium and high phosphate levels, may indicate primary hypoparathyroidism.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man arrives at the emergency department stating that his severe depression has worsened due to a recent breakup. He admits to taking multiple packs of paracetamol in the past 24 hours but denies taking any other medications. As per national guidelines, you initiate the appropriate therapy to prevent liver damage.
What is the mechanism behind this treatment?Your Answer: Replenish NAPQI stores within the liver
Correct Answer: Replenish glutathione stores within the liver
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose occurs when the body’s glutathione stores are depleted, leading to an increase in the production of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), a highly toxic molecule. In therapeutic doses, the liver produces small amounts of NAPQI, which is quickly metabolized into safer compounds by reacting with glutathione. However, in cases of overdose, the liver’s supply of glutathione is exhausted, resulting in the accumulation of NAPQI and subsequent liver damage. To counteract this, N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) is used as a precursor to glutathione, which helps convert NAPQI into less toxic metabolites. Chelation medications like penicillamine can remove heavy metals from the blood, but there are no drugs that can speed up the excretion of paracetamol. Methionine, an amino acid important in angiogenesis, is not relevant to the management of paracetamol overdose. While many drugs activate CYP450, NAC is not one of them, and upregulating this pathway could actually worsen the outcomes of an overdose since it produces the toxic NAPQI by-product.
Paracetamol Overdose and Metabolic Pathways
Paracetamol overdose can lead to saturation of the liver’s conjugation system, which normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. This saturation results in the oxidation of paracetamol by P450 mixed function oxidases, producing a toxic metabolite known as N-acetyl-B-benzoquinone imine. Glutathione usually acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin, forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. However, if glutathione stores run out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death. This process occurs not only in hepatocytes but also in the renal tubules.
To manage paracetamol overdose, N-acetyl cysteine is used as it is a precursor of glutathione and can increase hepatic glutathione production. It is important to note that there is a lower threshold for treating patients who take P450 inducing medications, such as phenytoin or rifampicin, due to the increased risk of paracetamol overdose. Proper management of paracetamol overdose is crucial to prevent liver and renal damage, and N-acetyl cysteine plays a vital role in this process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is recuperating on the surgical ward after undergoing a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The surgery involved creating a primary anastomosis and there were no complications during the procedure. The patient had no significant medical history prior to the surgery.
After 5 days, the patient has not had a bowel movement. What is the probable reason for this?Your Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Paralytic ileus is a common issue following surgery, which can be caused by factors such as handling of the bowel, hyperkalemia, and acidosis. A low fibre diet, anastomotic leak, and volvulus are less likely causes in this clinical scenario.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemic, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old male has undergone renal transplantation due to end-stage renal disease. There are concerns about solid organ rejection and the use of cyclosporine and tacrolimus is being considered for prevention. Is there a difference in the mechanism of action between these two drugs, and is one superior to the other in preventing rejection?
Your Answer: Inhibit calcineurin
Explanation:Cyclosporine and tacrolimus are immunosuppressants that work by inhibiting calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors. This inhibition leads to a decrease in the production of IL-2, which in turn reduces the clonal proliferation of T cells.
Azathioprine works by antagonizing purine metabolism, while methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. Sirolimus inhibits the activation of the mammalian target of rapamycin, and mycophenolate mofetil reversibly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Cyclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.
In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his limbs, a 45-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is sent for blood tests. The results reveal a vitamin deficiency and the general practitioner explains he has a condition called beriberi. Which vitamin is this patient deficient in?
Your Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1)
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old male visits the rheumatology clinic with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is presently taking rituximab, which decreases the production of antibodies. Which immune cell is most likely to be affected by this medication?
Your Answer: B cells
Explanation:Rituximab is a biological drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis by depleting B-cells and reducing inflammation. It increases the risk of infection and requires TB status checks before treatment.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is another term for the pre-test probability?
Your Answer: Pre-test odds x likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: The prevalence of a condition
Explanation:The prevalence refers to the percentage of individuals in a population who currently have a particular condition, while the incidence refers to the frequency at which new cases of the condition arise within a specific timeframe.
Understanding Pre- and Post-Test Odds and Probability
When it comes to medical testing, it’s important to understand the concepts of pre-test and post-test probability and odds. Pre-test probability refers to the proportion of people with a particular disorder in a given population before any testing is done. For example, the prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis in the UK is 1%. Post-test probability, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of patients with a particular test result who actually have the target disorder.
To calculate post-test probability, you need to know the post-test odds, which is the odds that the patient has the target disorder after the test is carried out. To calculate post-test odds, you first need to know the pre-test odds, which is the odds that the patient has the target disorder before the test is carried out. Pre-test odds can be calculated by dividing the pre-test probability by 1 minus the pre-test probability.
To calculate post-test odds, you need to know the likelihood ratio for a positive test result, which is the sensitivity divided by 1 minus the specificity. Once you have the likelihood ratio, you can multiply it by the pre-test odds to get the post-test odds. Finally, to get the post-test probability, you divide the post-test odds by 1 plus the post-test odds. Understanding these concepts can help healthcare professionals interpret test results and make informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are asked to speak to a 72-year-old man in the respiratory clinic regarding his recent diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). He originally presented with a 4-week history of productive cough and night sweats. Samples taken from a broncho-alveolar lavage showed a dense infiltration of macrophages which had formed a granuloma.
What cytokines are produced by this cell type?Your Answer: Interferon-γ
Correct Answer: Interleukin-1
Explanation:Macrophages are the primary source of IL-1, which plays a crucial role in acute inflammation and the fever response. Th1 cells produce interferon-γ, which activates macrophages. IL-2, produced by T helper 1 cells, is essential for the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells, to combat infections. T helper 2 cells produce IL-4, which aids in the proliferation and differentiation of B cells, while IL-5 stimulates the production of eosinophils.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Correct
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In the realm of evidence based medicine, what is the purpose of utilizing the GRADE approach?
Your Answer: Assessing the quality of evidence
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?
Your Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:Precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity remain consistent regardless of the prevalence of the condition as they are inherent qualities. However, the positive predictive value may be impacted in situations where the prevalence of the condition is low. This is because a decrease in true positives results in a smaller numerator, leading to a lower PPV.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Correct
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A randomized, double-blinded clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the effect of a new anti-inflammatory drug on the pain relief of patients with osteoarthritis. A total of 200 patients with osteoarthritis were randomly assigned to the drug or placebo group. For the study, 100 patients were assigned to each group. The two groups were then followed for six months for the development of adverse effects. Severe gastrointestinal bleeding was reported as a rare side effect of the drug therapy, but the difference between the two groups was not statistically significant (p=0.08). The same side effect was reported in several small clinical trials of this drug (p=0.05-0.10).
What is the most likely reason for the failure to detect a significant statistical difference in the occurrence of gastrointestinal bleeding between the treatment and placebo groups?Your Answer: Small sample size
Explanation:A larger sample size can enhance the power of a study and reduce the likelihood of type II error. Power refers to the ability to detect a difference in the outcome of interest between two groups, if such a difference exists. With a bigger sample size, the study’s power to detect a difference increases, and the p-value can reach statistical significance.
Attrition bias is a systematic error that arises from unequal loss of participants in a randomized controlled trial. However, since patients are not lost to follow-up in this study design, the likelihood of attrition bias is low.
The Hawthorne effect is a type of reactivity where individuals modify their behavior in response to being observed. This effect does not occur in double-blinded randomized clinical trials.
Double-blinding techniques can reduce the potential for observer’s bias.
Increasing the follow-up period may not necessarily increase the power of the study, as side effects can occur in susceptible individuals relatively early after starting the therapy.Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies
Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.
Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on overall mortality. The mortality rate in the group taking medication Y is 5%, while it is 10% in the control group. What is the number of individuals who need to receive medication Y to prevent one death?
Your Answer: 50
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Steps to Calculate NNT:
Calculate the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR):
ARR=Control Event Rate (CER)−Experimental Event Rate (EER)
Here:
- Control Event Rate (CER) = 10% or 0.10
- Experimental Event Rate (EER) = 5% or 0.05
So,
ARR=0.10−0.05=0.05
Calculate the NNT:
NNT=1/ARR
NNT=1/0.05=20
Conclusion:
The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is 20. This means that 20 individuals need to receive medication Y to prevent one death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old farmer is brought to the emergency department by his wife after she found him unresponsive in the fields. He had gone out in the morning to spray the fields with pesticides. Upon arrival, his temperature is 36 ºC, blood pressure is 120/60 mmHg, pulse is 53 bpm, and respirations are 45/min. Diffuse wheezes are heard upon chest auscultation. The patient has pinpoint pupils and is salivating excessively.
What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning is caused by the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, resulting in an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Symptoms such as bradycardia, tachypnea, miosis, and excessive salivation are indicative of this type of poisoning. Farmers who use pesticides are at a higher risk of organophosphate poisoning.
In contrast, inhibition of adrenergic receptors, such as with α-blockers or β-blockers, would result in decreased sympathetic activity, but without the presence of salivation or diffuse wheezes. Conversely, inhibition of muscarinic receptors, as with atropine, would present with dryness of mouth and eyes, mydriasis, and high body temperature. Stimulation of adrenergic receptors, such as with dobutamine, would result in elevated sympathetic activity, typically with tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.
The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?
Your Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding the H1N1 influenzae Pandemic
The H1N1 influenzae pandemic, also known as swine flu, emerged in Mexico in early 2009 and was declared a global pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) in June of the same year. This outbreak was caused by a new strain of the H1N1 virus, which is a subtype of the influenzae A virus and the most common cause of flu in humans. The pandemic posed a significant threat to certain groups, including patients with chronic illnesses, those on immunosuppressants, pregnant women, and young children under 5 years old.
The symptoms of H1N1 influenzae are similar to those of a typical flu-like illness, including fever, myalgia, lethargy, headache, rhinitis, sore throat, cough, and diarrhea and vomiting. However, a minority of patients may develop acute respiratory distress syndrome, which can be life-threatening and require ventilatory support.
Currently, there are two main treatments available for H1N1 influenzae: oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza). Oseltamivir is an oral medication that works as a neuraminidase inhibitor, preventing new viral particles from being released by infected cells. Common side effects of oseltamivir include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headaches. Zanamivir, on the other hand, is an inhaled medication that also works as a neuraminidase inhibitor. However, it may induce bronchospasm in asthmatics. Intravenous preparations of zanamivir are available for patients who are acutely unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking will reduce his lifespan. You explain that it is not possible to determine this precisely for him but you can tell him what proportion of deaths in drinkers happen due to their alcohol consumption. Select the epidemiological term that describes this and its correct definition.
Your Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group
Explanation:The rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group is known as the attributable risk. This measure helps determine the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that can be attributed to the exposure. On the other hand, relative risk compares the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group to that of the unexposed group. Lastly, the attributable proportion indicates the percentage of disease that could be eliminated in a population if the disease rate in the exposed group was reduced to that of the unexposed group.
Understanding Disease Rates and Relative Risk
Disease rates are measurements used to monitor and establish causation of diseases, as well as to evaluate interventions. These rates are calculated by comparing the number of individuals with a disease to the total population. The attributable risk is a measure of the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that were caused by the exposure. It is calculated by subtracting the rate of the disease in the unexposed group from the rate in the exposed group.
The relative risk, also known as the risk ratio, is a measure of the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of the disease in the exposed group by the rate in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference between the two groups, while a relative risk of less than 1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, and a relative risk of greater than 1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group.
The population attributable risk is a measure of the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It is calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group. Understanding these measures is important for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and identifying risk factors for diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother after she began experiencing increasing dyspnoea.
On examination, she is cyanotic, drooling, and refuses to lie back, opting instead to crouch forwards with one arm out.
A lateral X-ray radiograph of the neck displays thumb sign.
What is the most likely causative pathogen in this presentation, given the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, although cases are now rare in the UK due to the Hib vaccine. It is crucial to not miss this condition as it can be fatal. Haemophilus haemolyticus is not associated with acute epiglottitis as it is a non-pathogenic bacteria. Parainfluenza virus causes croup, which is a differential diagnosis for acute epiglottitis but has a more gradual onset. Streptococcus pyogenes can be associated with epiglottitis, but it is a rarer cause than H. influenzae and is usually linked to other conditions such as impetigo, cellulitis, tonsillitis, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. However, it is not typically linked with acute epiglottitis.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier.
Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only by senior or airway trained staff. X-rays may be done if there is concern about a foreign body. A lateral view in acute epiglottitis will show swelling of the epiglottis, while a posterior-anterior view in croup will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the steeple sign.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those able to provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. If suspected, do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. Oxygen and intravenous antibiotics are also important in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Correct
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At which of the following anatomical sites does latent tuberculosis most commonly reactivate?
Your Answer: Apex of the lung
Explanation:The lung apex is the most common site for TB reactivation. This is because it has better oxygenation compared to other areas, which facilitates the rapid multiplication of mycobacteria and their subsequent spread both locally and distantly.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A study is proposed to determine if adolescent obesity in girls increases the likelihood of developing polycystic ovarian syndrome. What study design would be most suitable?
Your Answer: Case-control study
Correct Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:A cohort study is a more reliable source of evidence compared to a case-control study as it involves selecting two groups based on their exposure to a specific agent and monitoring their development of a disease or outcome.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman is undergoing rituximab treatment for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the specific target of rituximab?
Your Answer: CD20
Explanation:Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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Question 20
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A 9-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department unresponsive by her parents. The child has reportedly been drowsy and refusing feeds for the last 24 hours before becoming completely limp. On further questioning, the parents admit to giving the child honey in the preceding days.
On examination, the child appears drowsy and has globally reduced tone with no spontaneous movements noted. There is shallow breathing with vesicular breath sounds and no murmurs. A diagnosis of botulism is suspected.
Which neurotransmitter release is inhibited by the likely toxin?Your Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:The correct answer is acetylcholine. The symptoms presented by the child are consistent with botulism, also known as ‘floppy baby syndrome’, which is a neurological condition caused by the ingestion of preformed spores of Clostridium botulinum. Botulism can cause hypotonia in infants and may result in respiratory failure if left untreated.
It is important to note that botulinum toxin does not inhibit GABA, glutamate, or glycine release. Tetanospasmin, the tetanus toxin, inhibits GABA and glycine release from Renshaw cells, causing trismus and opisthotonus. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that may be dysregulated in seizure activity.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal discharge and a burning sensation while urinating. She is worried about contracting sexually transmitted infections due to a recent sexual encounter.
During the examination, a high vaginal swab is taken, and stippled vaginal epithelial cells are observed under the microscope. Additionally, the whiff test yields a positive result.
Which organism is the probable culprit behind her symptoms?Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, which leads to a decrease in aerobic lactobacilli and an increase in vaginal pH. Although not a sexually transmitted infection, BV is commonly found in sexually active women. Clue cells, or stippled vaginal epithelial cells, are a characteristic finding in BV, and a positive whiff test (fishy odor after the addition of potassium hydroxide) is also indicative of the condition. Yeast infections are caused by Candida, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and lactobacilli are naturally occurring in the vagina.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a tumor-inducing gene?
Your Answer: erb-B
Correct Answer: Ki 67
Explanation:Ki 67 is an immunohistochemical marker that indicates nuclear proliferation. While Ki67 positivity is indicative of malignancy, it is not an oncogene in and of itself.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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Question 23
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A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to undergo an anterior resection surgery. During pre-operative discussions, she expresses her worries about experiencing pain after the surgery. You explain to her the different options available for pain relief after major bowel surgery.
What is the recommended method of pain management after major bowel surgery?Your Answer: Epidural analgesia
Explanation:For pain relief after major bowel surgery, epidural analgesia is the preferred method. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like diclofenac can hinder healing and increase the risk of anastomotic leak, so they are not commonly used. While paracetamol is the initial step in the WHO pain ladder, it may not be sufficient on its own after major bowel surgery. Local anesthesia can be effective for localized pain, but it is not the optimal form of pain relief.
The management of pain can involve the use of various drugs and techniques. The World Health Organisation and World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists have developed guidelines for the use of analgesics, starting with peripherally acting drugs and progressing to weak and strong opioids. Local anaesthetics can also be used, either for anaesthesia during surgery or for postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anaesthesia are other options, but have potential side effects and limitations. Transversus Abdominis Plane blocks are a newer technique that can provide wide field blockade without the need for indwelling devices. Patient Controlled Analgesia allows patients to self-administer intravenous analgesia. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine can be effective but have potential side effects and limitations. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, but have their own contraindications and limitations.
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Question 24
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A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer: He should avoid rugby
Explanation:Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is prescribed warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The doctor explains that this is to reduce his risk of a stroke, by preventing clots from forming in his heart. The same man is admitted to the hospital some months later for an upper gastrointestinal bleed, and the medical team seeks to reduce his bleeding by giving him vitamin K.
What is the mechanism of action of this reversal agent?Your Answer: As cofactor in acetylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
Correct Answer: As cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
Explanation:Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are essential in secondary haemostasis. In cases where warfarin has reduced the vitamin K dependent carboxylation of these factors, vitamin K can be used as a reversal agent.
It is important to note that vitamin K is not involved in the acetylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are vitamin K dependent. Additionally, factors V and VIII are not vitamin K dependent clotting factors and do not undergo carboxylation or acetylation involving vitamin K.
Furthermore, vitamin K does not have any role in primary haemostasis, which involves platelet activation and adherence to the endothelium. Its involvement is limited to the clotting cascade and activation of fibrin in secondary haemostasis.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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Question 26
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A 28-year-old man with severe asthma is participating in a clinical study. The study is testing a new medication for severe asthma and has demonstrated a reduction in serum leukotriene levels in mouse models.
The lead physician in the clinical trial explains that the investigational drug blocks the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs.
Which enzyme is blocked by the experimental medication?Your Answer: Lipoxygenase
Explanation:Lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into HPETEs.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. He is health-conscious and likes to maintain his fitness.
Upon examination, his blood work revealed a deficiency in vitamin D, for which he was prescribed calcitriol. He was advised to return for a follow-up appointment in two weeks to monitor his blood results.
During his follow-up appointment, his blood work showed normal results, except for an electrolyte abnormality.
What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality seen in his blood results?Your Answer: Low phosphate
Correct Answer: High phosphate
Explanation:The action of calcitriol on the body results in an increase in the reabsorption of phosphate by the kidneys, leading to an increase in plasma phosphate levels. Additionally, calcitriol promotes osteoclast activity, which further contributes to an increase in plasma calcium levels through bone resorption. It should be noted that calcitriol does not have any significant effect on potassium and magnesium levels. On the other hand, the hormone PTH has the opposite effect on plasma phosphate levels, causing a decrease in its concentration.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 28
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A 59-year-old man is referred to an ophthalmologist by his physician due to complaints of blurry vision and floaters. He has a medical history of type II diabetes and hypertension.
During the slit lamp examination, the ophthalmologist observes a posterior vitreous detachment.
The ophthalmologist explains that the cause of his symptoms is likely due to a defect in the collagen that makes up the vitreous membrane, leading to its separation from the retina.
What type of collagen is the ophthalmologist referring to?Your Answer: Type II collagen
Explanation:Type II collagen is the main component of the vitreous membrane, and any abnormalities in this collagen can raise the risk of vitreous haemorrhage. For more information on the various types of collagen and their respective locations, please refer to the notes provided.
Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders
Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.
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- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A toddler is hospitalized with symptoms indicative of meningitis, and is effectively treated. Eight weeks later, his guardians bring him to their family doctor, concerned that he is not communicating with them as he previously did. What is the probable aftermath of meningitis that he has encountered?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Meningitis can lead to various complications, including deafness, behavioural difficulties, and cognitive impairment. Deafness is the most common complication, particularly in children who may not show obvious signs. While behavioural and cognitive issues may arise, they are unlikely to present solely as described and would likely affect daily functioning. Epilepsy, which involves seizures, is not present in this case. Depression is not typically diagnosed in young children.
Meningitis is a serious medical condition that can be caused by various types of bacteria. The causes of meningitis differ depending on the age of the patient and their immune system. In neonates (0-3 months), the most common cause of meningitis is Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes. In children aged 3 months to 6 years, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes. For individuals aged 6 to 60 years, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the primary causes. In those over 60 years old, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes. For immunosuppressed individuals, Listeria monocytogenes is the primary cause of meningitis.
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Question 30
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An academic clinician is conducting research into the 12-month effects of a new medication on blood pressure levels in patients over the age of 60. As part of their data analysis, they want to determine if there is a significant difference between blood pressure levels at baseline and after 12 months of treatment with the new medication. However, the data is non-normally distributed.
What would be the most appropriate method to assess for a significant difference between the two groups?Your Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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