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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman visits the general practice clinic with complaints of itchy eyes and crusting on the eyelids. During examination, the upper lids near the eyelash follicles have small flakes of skin, and the eyelids are slightly swollen.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Warm compresses and eyelid hygiene
Explanation:Treatment Options for Blepharitis
Blepharitis is a common eye condition that causes inflammation of the eyelids. The most appropriate first-line treatment for blepharitis is self-care measures such as eyelid hygiene and warm compresses. This involves cleaning the eyelids with warm water and a diluted cleanser such as baby shampoo twice a day, and applying a warm compress to the closed eyelids for 5-10 minutes once or twice a day.
Topical steroids are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, but may be used by secondary care clinicians to reduce inflammation. Topical chloramphenicol may be prescribed for anterior blepharitis if eyelid hygiene and warm compresses are ineffective, while oral tetracycline may be prescribed for posterior blepharitis with meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea if self-care measures are ineffective.
It is important to note that topical ketoconazole is not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, as it is used for other conditions such as fungal skin infections and candidiasis. If self-care measures and prescribed treatments do not improve symptoms, further treatment or referral may be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression after a recent heart attack. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented with worsening pains in the small joints of both her feet with swelling and redness. She experienced stiffness which was worse in the morning. She was initially started on oral prednisolone with a proton-pump inhibitor whilst awaiting a specialist review from a rheumatologist. After seeing the specialist who performed blood tests and x-rays on her feet she was started on a new medication called hydroxychloroquine.
What serious side effects does the specialist need to counsel the patient on when starting this new medication?Your Answer: QT prolongation
Correct Answer: Retinopathy
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine, a drug used to prevent and treat malaria, is now commonly included in treatment guidelines for conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and porphyria cutanea tarda. However, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential severe and permanent retinopathy that can result from chronic use of the drug. The mechanism behind this adverse effect is uncertain, but it can lead to permanent visual loss. To prevent eye toxicity, the daily safe maximum dose of hydroxychloroquine can be estimated based on the patient’s height and weight.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-week-old baby girl comes to her pediatrician with complaints of vomiting and regurgitation after feeding. Her mother also reports that she has been experiencing ongoing issues with diarrhea. The baby appears to be generally fussy, and her mother has noticed some dry patches of skin on the inside of her elbows. The mother mentions that the baby is being fed formula.
Upon examination, the baby appears to be an appropriate size and weight for her age, and the only notable finding is mild eczema in the elbow flexures.
What would be the most suitable course of action at this point?Your Answer: Perform an oral challenge
Correct Answer: Switch to an extensive hydrolysed formula
Explanation:A baby has been diagnosed with cow’s milk protein intolerance, which is a common condition affecting many infants within the first 3 months of life. The severity of the case is considered mild-moderate, as the baby’s size and weight are appropriate for their age. Primary care can manage this condition initially by switching to an extensive hydrolysed formula. An oral challenge is not recommended, as it is typically reserved for cases with significant diagnostic uncertainty or to determine if a food allergy has resolved. Referral to a paediatrician is not necessary at this stage. If the initial switch to an extensive hydrolysed formula does not alleviate symptoms, an amino acid-based formula can be tried. It is not appropriate to suggest that the mother switch to breastfeeding, as this decision should be respected. Even exclusively breastfed babies can develop cow’s milk protein intolerance, and in those cases, the mother should eliminate cow’s milk from her diet while continuing to breastfeed.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he has been experiencing frequent headaches. These headaches are now happening almost every day and can be quite intense. What characteristic in this patient should trigger an investigation for a secondary cause of headaches?
Your Answer: Feeling of nausea during the headache
Correct Answer: Headache triggered by coughing
Explanation:When dealing with an older patient, it is important to rule out glaucoma if they are experiencing severe unilateral eye pain. However, for a 23-year-old patient, this is not a top concern. Migraine and cluster headaches are common causes of unilateral eye pain, as well as sinusitis which can cause pain behind the eye.
Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but some symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has identified several red flags that should prompt further investigation. These include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy, sudden-onset headache, new-onset neurological deficit, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, and symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, orthostatic headache, and a substantial change in the characteristics of the headache. If any of these symptoms are present, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. By identifying these red flags, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive appropriate care and treatment for their headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?
Your Answer: Hyperbaric oxygen
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care
Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.
Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.
In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He reports having to manually push them back in after bowel movements.
Which class of haemorrhoids is most likely present?Your Answer: No classification
Correct Answer: Grade III
Explanation:Understanding the Grading System for Hemorrhoids
Hemorrhoids are a common condition that affects many people. To help diagnose and treat this condition, clinicians use a grading system to classify the severity of the hemorrhoids. The grading system proposed by Banov et al. in 1985 is the most commonly used system.
Grade I hemorrhoids are the mildest form and only project into the anal canal. They often bleed but do not prolapse. Grade II hemorrhoids may protrude beyond the anal verge with straining or defecating, but reduce spontaneously when straining ceases. Grade III hemorrhoids protrude spontaneously or with straining and require manual reduction. Grade IV hemorrhoids are the most severe and chronically prolapse. They cannot be reduced and may present with acute thrombosis or strangulation. These lesions usually contain both internal and external components.
The grading system helps clinicians correlate symptoms with therapeutic approaches. For example, grade I and II hemorrhoids may be treated with conservative measures such as dietary changes and topical medications. Grade III and IV hemorrhoids may require more invasive treatments such as rubber band ligation or surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the grading system for hemorrhoids is important for both patients and clinicians. It helps guide treatment decisions and ensures the best possible outcome for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease for the last 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality in this patient population?
Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to gradually lose their ability to function properly. There are several common causes of this condition, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease.
Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys. Chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition in which the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys, become inflamed and damaged over time. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can cause scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also damage the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition in which cysts form in the kidneys, causing them to enlarge and lose function.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage the condition and prevent further damage to the kidneys. Treatment may involve medications, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, dialysis or kidney transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Kyphoscoliosis
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l (reference range 62–106 μmol/l). Her blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, and fundoscopy reveals mild hypertensive changes and background diabetic retinopathy. She has a neuroischaemic ulcer on her left foot and no palpable pedal pulses. Urine dipstick is negative, and renal ultrasound shows a 8.5-cm left kidney and a 6.2-cm right kidney, with reduced cortical thickness.
What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?Your Answer: Reflux nephropathy
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Renal Dysfunction and Their Clinical Features
Renal dysfunction can have various causes, and identifying the underlying condition is crucial for appropriate management. Here are some common causes of renal dysfunction and their clinical features:
Renal artery stenosis (RAS): RAS can lead to renovascular hypertension and renal impairment, especially in older individuals with atherosclerosis or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms may include sudden worsening of hypertension or renal function, and ultrasonography may show kidney size asymmetry. Treatment options include pharmacologic control of hypertension and serum cholesterol levels, as well as surgical or percutaneous revascularisation in selected cases.
Membranous nephropathy: This is a type of nephrotic syndrome that often presents with oedema and significant proteinuria (>3.5 g/24 h). It is more common in adults and may be asymptomatic in some cases.
Cholesterol emboli syndrome: This condition may occur after an invasive arterial procedure and is characterised by renal dysfunction, hypertension, and distal ischaemia due to small-vessel occlusion. Livedo reticularis and blue toe syndrome may also be present.
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: This is a complication of diabetes mellitus that can cause persistent albuminuria, declining glomerular filtration rate, and elevated blood pressure. Physical findings associated with long-term diabetes may also be present.
Reflux nephropathy: This condition is caused by the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys and can lead to renal scarring. It is more common in children with urinary tract abnormalities but can also occur in adults with bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder. Symptoms may include nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infection.
In summary, renal dysfunction can have diverse causes and presentations, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to establish the diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has an HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol after 3 months of lifestyle changes, following a previous reading of HbA1c of 52 mmol/mol. You suggest that he should begin taking metformin standard release in addition to lifestyle interventions. He has normal renal function and no other medical issues. You inform him of the possibility of gastrointestinal discomfort.
What is the typical duration before considering increasing the dosage to alleviate these symptoms for this patient?Your Answer: 14 days
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:It is recommended to increase the dose of metformin gradually, with a minimum of one week between each increase.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis
Explanation:Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.
HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man complains of back pain that occurs during walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange physiotherapy
Correct Answer: Refer for MRI
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes, an MRI is necessary for this presentation.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman attends a routine cervical smear test and is noted to have extensive scarring of her vulva. On further questioning, she reports several visits to the Sexual Health Clinic for recurrent episodes of painful vulval ulceration.
She has had several attendances at the dentist and General Practitioner with recurrent painful mouth ulcers. She has been referred to a dermatologist to investigate a painful nodular rash which developed on her shins several weeks ago but has since resolved. She was recently discharged from the Eye Clinic following treatment for an acutely painful red eye.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Herpes simplex infection
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Behçet’s disease is a rare autoimmune condition that causes painful recurrent mouth and genital ulcers leading to scarring. Diagnosis is often delayed due to the absence of a definitive diagnostic test. This patient has had a rash associated with Behçet’s disease and an episode of acute red eye, which may have been anterior uveitis, another symptom of the condition. Herpes simplex infection, Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, and lichen planus are all conditions that can cause similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the patient’s medical history and physical examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing daily frontal headaches for the past three months, which have not improved with regular paracetamol. Additionally, he has noticed some unusual symptoms such as his wedding ring no longer fitting, his shoe size apparently increasing, and a small amount of milky discharge from both nipples. During examination, his blood pressure is found to be 168/96 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly: Excess Growth Hormone and its Features
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, a minority of cases are caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumours such as pancreatic. The condition is associated with several features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Patients may also have a large tongue, prognathism, and interdental spaces. Excessive sweating and oily skin are also common, caused by sweat gland hypertrophy.
In addition to these physical features, patients with acromegaly may also experience symptoms of a pituitary tumour, such as hypopituitarism, headaches, and bitemporal hemianopia. Raised prolactin levels are also seen in about one-third of cases, which can lead to galactorrhoea. It is important to note that 6% of patients with acromegaly have MEN-1, a genetic disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands.
Complications of acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (seen in over 10% of cases), cardiomyopathy, and an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Early diagnosis and treatment of acromegaly are crucial to prevent these complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient comes to you with a complaint of painful ulcers on the shaft of his penis. He reports having a new sexual partner, but she has not shown any symptoms. The patient feels generally unwell and has tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes on both sides. He denies experiencing dysuria or urethral discharge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex
Explanation:Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and donovanosis (granuloma inguinal) can all lead to the development of genital ulcers that are not accompanied by pain. However, in the case of the patient who has recently changed sexual partners and is not experiencing any other symptoms, herpes simplex is the more probable cause of the painful genital ulcers. Behcets may also cause painful genital ulcers.
STI Ulcers: Causes and Symptoms
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most common causes of genital ulcers is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which is responsible for genital herpes. The primary attack of genital herpes is usually severe and accompanied by fever, while subsequent attacks are less severe and localized to one site. The ulcers caused by genital herpes are multiple and painful.
Syphilis is another STI that can cause genital ulcers. It is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum and is characterized by primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. The primary stage of syphilis is marked by the appearance of a painless ulcer, known as a chancre. The incubation period for syphilis is between 9-90 days.
Chancroid is a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It causes painful genital ulcers that are associated with unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. The ulcers typically have a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border.
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and typically occurs in three stages. The first stage is marked by a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. The second stage is characterized by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, while the third stage is proctocolitis. LGV is treated using doxycycline.
Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale, which is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was prescribed medication but a few days later he complained of stomach cramps and loose stools.
Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Side Effects of Common Oral Diabetic Medications
Managing diabetes often involves the use of oral medications to help control blood sugar levels. However, these medications can come with side effects that need to be considered when choosing a treatment plan. Here are some common side effects of four oral diabetic medications:
Metformin: The most common side effects of metformin are abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, taste disturbance, and vomiting. There is also a risk of developing lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with a history of heart failure and concomitant use of drugs that can acutely impair renal function.
Furosemide: Furosemide is a less likely option due to its potential to exacerbate diabetes and cause hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in certain patients. It can also cause urinary retention in patients with enlarged prostates.
Gliclazide: Gliclazide can encourage weight gain and may cause hypoglycemia if the dosage is excessive.
Pioglitazone: Pioglitazone should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease or in combination with insulin due to an increased risk of heart failure, particularly in elderly people.
It is important to be familiar with these side effects to ensure patient compliance with medication and to choose the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma (MM). He is a newly diagnosed non-transplant candidate.
Various blood tests are being conducted to monitor response to treatment and determine prognosis.
What is considered the most crucial factor for predicting survival and prognosis?Your Answer: C-Reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. Prognostic factors are important in determining the severity of the disease and predicting survival rates. Here are some key factors to consider:
Beta-2 microglobulin: This protein is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)–histocompatibility complex. Elevated levels of serum beta-2 microglobulin are linked to poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients.
Serum creatinine: High levels of creatinine indicate renal impairment, which is common in multiple myeloma patients and is associated with a poor prognosis.
Albumin: Low levels of albumin are related to the extent of myeloma proliferation and are therefore of diagnostic and prognostic importance. An albumin level of 29.0 g/l or less is a sign of advanced disease.
C-Reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels before autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) are associated with worse overall survival in multiple myeloma patients, especially those who had a transplant more than 12 months after diagnosis.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): High LDH levels at the time of diagnosis are a marker of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients. Increased LDH is associated with worse overall survival, progression-free survival, aggressive disease, and high tumor burden.
Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and provide patients with more accurate information about their disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. A chest x-ray reveals infiltrates in both lung bases. On room air, arterial blood gases show the following results:
pH 7.39
pCO2 4.6 kPa
pO2 8.2 kPa
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Thrombotic crisis
Correct Answer: Acute sickle chest syndrome
Explanation:This presentation is characteristic of acute sickle chest syndrome.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.
After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
- Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
- Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
- Weber's test: lateralisation to the right
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Otitis externa
Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.
Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.
Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old G1P0 woman attends her routine antenatal appointment at 12 weeks gestation and reports experiencing burning retrosternal pain. Omeprazole is prescribed, and a urine sample is taken. The urinalysis shows trace protein with no haematuria, nitrates, or white cells, and the patient denies any urinary symptoms. During the appointment, her blood pressure is measured at 135/88 mmHg. Upon further testing, the urine sample is found to have scant growth of Escherichia coli. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should be treated promptly with antibiotics. The recommended treatment is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. This is important to prevent the development of symptomatic urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin is safe to use in the first and second trimester, but should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. The patient’s blood pressure is within normal range and does not require treatment. The trace of protein in her urine is likely related to her asymptomatic bacteriuria and should be monitored with subsequent urine dips. Antihypertensive treatment is not necessary based on the trace of protein alone. Prescribing a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended as it is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy due to the increased risk of neural-tube defects. Prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is not necessary as the patient does not meet the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension. Similarly, prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended for the same reasons.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of feeling tired and having palpitations for the last few days. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and beats at a rate of 123 bpm. His blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg and his chest is clear. An ECG confirms that he has atrial fibrillation. What medication should be prescribed to manage his heart rate?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When considering a rate control strategy for atrial fibrillation, factors such as age and symptoms should be taken into account. According to NICE guidelines, beta-blockers or rate limiting calcium channel blockers (excluding amlodipine) are preferable options.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for two weeks. Upon examination of an endocervical swab sample, Gram-negative diplococci are observed, while other pathogen tests are negative. The patient has no allergies or comorbidities. Which antibiotic option is the most suitable?
Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A mother of a 5-year-old child with cystic fibrosis (CF) visits the clinic to inquire about the likelihood of having another child with CF. She is still with the same partner as before. What is the probability of them having another child with CF?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following pathological changes favours ulcerative colitis (UC) over Crohn disease in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Transmural involvement
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:Differences between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are both types of inflammatory bowel disease, but they differ in several aspects. One of the main differences is the presence of granulomas. While a lack of granulomas does not rule out Crohn’s disease, it is a far more likely option if they are present. Granulomas are not present in ulcerative colitis.
Another difference is the layers of the bowel affected. Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the bowel, known as transmural disease, whereas ulcerative colitis is confined to the mucosa with occasional submucosa inflammation. Only Crohn’s disease has muscularis and serosa involvement. Additionally, Crohn’s disease can affect anything from the mouth to the anus, whereas ulcerative colitis is limited to colonic lesions.
Skip lesions, or areas of discontinuity of the inflammatory process, are characteristic of Crohn’s disease. When skip lesions are present, this is suggestive of Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is a continuous disease, whereas Crohn’s disease can be present in multiple areas of the bowel with sharply demarcated areas.
In terms of histology, both diseases show intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and lymphoid aggregates. However, in fulminant cases of ulcerative colitis, the muscularis propria may be affected. On the other hand, the histologic characteristic pattern of inflammation in Crohn’s disease is transmural involvement of the bowel wall by lymphoid infiltrates that contain non-caseating granulomas.
Therefore, it is important to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis to provide appropriate treatment. Endoscopy must be performed if ulcerative colitis is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Incorrect
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How frequently is the Depo Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) injectable birth control administered?
Your Answer: Every 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Every 12 weeks
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small retracted chin. The mother is a refugee from Syria who gave birth recently but could not attend antenatal screening. What is the probable syndrome?
Your Answer: Edwards' syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Genetic Conditions: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ Syndrome)
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a genetic condition that results in a range of physical and developmental abnormalities. Neonates with trisomy 18 often present with neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures, as well as severe psychomotor and growth retardation. Other common features include microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, micrognathia, clenched fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. Over 90% of individuals with trisomy 18 have cardiac defects, commonly ventricular septal defect (VSD), as well as anomalies in most organ systems. Unfortunately, many fetuses will die in utero, and neonates born with trisomy 18 have a 40% chance of survival to 1 month.
It is important to note that an Edwards’ syndrome diagnosis should be made in the prenatal period. Low levels of AFP (α-fetoprotein), estradiol, and hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) on triple test biochemistry are suggestive, and the diagnosis can be confirmed on ultrasonography.
Other genetic conditions, such as Pierre-Robin syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome, have their own distinct features and should be differentiated from trisomy 18. Understanding these conditions and their unique characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?
Your Answer: Lupus vulgaris
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.
What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up. What ECG findings should be considered worrisome?
Your Answer: Wenckebach phenomenon
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:Left bundle branch block is typically indicative of underlying ischaemic or structural heart disease and is never considered normal. However, there are several normal variants that can appear on an ECG, such as sinus arrhythmia, right axis deviation (common in tall and thin individuals), left axis deviation (common in short, obese individuals), and partial right bundle branch block. Additionally, athletes may exhibit certain normal variants due to their high vagal tone, such as sinus bradycardia and 1st degree atrioventricular block.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Correct
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The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint space and bone erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Radiographic Features of Common Rheumatologic Conditions
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of joint space, juxta-articular bony erosions, subluxation, gross deformity, and periarticular soft tissue swelling. In the hands, swan neck deformity of fingers, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, boutonnière deformity of the thumb, and Bouchard’s nodes are common. However, the presence of Bouchard’s nodes without Heberden’s nodes is more indicative of RA than osteoarthritis.
Gout may present with gouty tophi, which are soft tissue masses created by the deposition of urate crystals. Punched-out erosions caused by bone absorption may also be present. These changes tend to be sporadic and asymmetrical.
Osteoarthritis is characterized by subchondral bone cysts, osteophytes, narrowing of joint space, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, both Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may be present.
Psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects the hands and feet. Radiographic features include erosions along the shaft of the phalanges, leading to ‘pencil-in-cup’ deformity and tufting of the bones. Unlike RA, osteoporosis is not a feature, and typically the more distal joints are affected.
Hypercalcaemia does not have specific radiographic features. The changes seen would be those associated with the underlying cause of the hypercalcaemia, such as hyperparathyroidism or cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by their caregiver. The infant is exhibiting a fever, lethargy, and decreased muscle tone. Additionally, a non-blanching rash is observed on the right arm of the infant. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: IV piperacillin with tazobactam
Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone
Explanation:For an unwell child with suspected meningitis who is over 3 months old, the recommended initial empirical therapy is IV 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. IV cefuroxime, a 2nd generation cephalosporin, is not recommended for this purpose. IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin is recommended for babies at risk of jaundice, but as the child in this case is 4 months old, this is not necessary. IV co-amoxiclav and piperacillin do not provide adequate coverage for meningitis and are not suitable for central nervous system infections.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with known ovarian cancer presented to the emergency department complaining of severe right leg pain since yesterday. She had a hysterectomy 1 month ago.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Air embolus
Correct Answer: DVT (deep-vein thrombosis)
Explanation:After undergoing surgery, a woman presents with leg pain. Several potential causes are considered, including deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), acute limb ischaemia, air embolus, lumbar disc herniation, and paradoxical embolus. Based on the patient’s risk factors and symptoms, DVT is deemed the most likely diagnosis. Other causes are ruled out due to lack of relevant history or low probability. Understanding the possible causes of leg pain after urological surgery can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 36
Correct
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A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?
Your Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure Management
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve outcomes. Two drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers. Aspirin, on the other hand, is used to reduce the risk of mortality and further cardiovascular events following myocardial infarction and stroke, but it has no role in heart failure alone.
Digoxin can be used for short-term rate control for atrial fibrillation, but long-term use should be approached with caution as it may lead to increased mortality. Furosemide is useful in managing symptoms and edema in heart failure, but it has not been shown to have a mortality benefit.
Lidocaine and other antiarrhythmic agents are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure and should only be used with specialist support for ventricular arrhythmias in an unstable patient. Standard drugs such as digitalis and diuretics have not been shown to improve survival rates.
Studies have shown that reducing left ventricular afterload prolongs survival rates in congestive heart failure. Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors are effective in inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, affecting coronary artery tone and arterial wall hyperplasia. There is also evidence for the use of beta blockers in heart failure management.
In conclusion, proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with heart failure. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators have been shown to reduce mortality rates, while other drugs such as aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide have specific roles in managing symptoms and associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic complaining of vomiting that has been ongoing for the past day. She reports feeling nauseous at present, with her last episode of vomiting occurring just 5 minutes ago. She mentions attending a barbecue the day before and is concerned that the sausages she ate may not have been cooked thoroughly. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and is currently taking oral hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.
What advice would be most appropriate to give to this patient?Your Answer: Take IM fludrocortisone until her vomiting stops
Correct Answer: Take IM hydrocortisone until her vomiting stops
Explanation:If a person with Addison’s disease experiences vomiting, they should take IM hydrocortisone until the vomiting stops. This is especially important if the vomiting is caused by food poisoning from undercooked meat. IM hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid steroid hormone that is used to manage Addison’s disease and prevent an Addisonian crisis. It is important to note that doubling the fludrocortisone dose or pausing hydrocortisone is not the correct approach in this situation. The patient requires extra hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis, not extra fludrocortisone. While drinking plenty of fluids is generally good advice for someone who is vomiting, it is not sufficient for a person with Addison’s disease in this situation.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2 years of unsuccessful attempts at conceiving. Neither she nor her partner have any children from previous relationships. The patient has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits and her BMI is 24 kg/m². What is the recommended initial approach to enhance fertility?
Your Answer: In-vitro fertilisation
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Clomifene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. This patient has been diagnosed with PCOS, which can cause infertility and other symptoms such as hirsutism. Clomifene works by inducing ovulation and has been shown to improve fertility outcomes in these patients.
Goserelin is not a suitable treatment for infertility in PCOS patients. It is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions such as prostate carcinoma, endometriosis, and dysfunctional uterine bleeding. In-vitro fertilisation is not typically the first option for improving fertility in PCOS patients and is usually considered later on.
While metformin is an important drug in the management of PCOS, it is not the primary treatment for improving fertility. It is often prescribed in combination with clomifene to address metabolic issues associated with PCOS. However, clomifene is the key drug for improving overall fertility outcomes in these patients.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomifene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like clomifene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with clomifene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. After four days of taking the antibiotics, the boy develops a highly itchy, maculopapular rash. His blood tests from four days ago reveal a lymphocytosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Diagnosing Glandular Fever: Understanding Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is a viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. One common symptom is the development of a maculopapular rash, which can be triggered by taking penicillin. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule out conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, allergy to penicillin, herpes zoster, and streptococcal throat infection.
To confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers may perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology may also be tested in certain cases. Treatment for glandular fever is primarily supportive, and patients are advised to avoid contact sports to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and manage this viral illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes on metformin hydrochloride presents to her GP after an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring revealed an average reading of 140/83 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to add an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker regardless of age. In this case, Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, would be the appropriate choice. However, if the patient did not have a history of type 2 diabetes, the initial management would be to prescribe a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine, especially if the patient is over 55 years old. If the blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic or calcium channel blocker can be added to the ACE inhibitor. If the blood pressure still remains elevated, a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic can be considered. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that can be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor or as an additional therapy with an ACE inhibitor and calcium channel blocker if the blood pressure is not well controlled. Bisoprolol, a beta-blocker, can also be considered if the blood pressure remains high despite the combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She has a significant history of alcohol and smoking. Her blood tests reveal macrocytosis, abnormal liver function tests, elevated TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and normal free thyroxine (fT4) levels.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms & blood results?Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with alcohol excess, elevated liver function tests, macrocytosis, and compensated hypothyroidism
Chronic excess alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of health problems, including liver disease, neurological damage, and endocrine dysfunction. In this case, the patient presents with elevated liver function tests and macrocytosis, which are consistent with alcohol excess. The thyroid function tests show compensated hypothyroidism, which can also be caused by alcohol-related liver damage. However, the proximal myopathy is not typical of hypothyroidism, which usually causes muscle weakness in a more diffuse pattern. Cushing’s syndrome, pernicious anaemia, and thyrotoxicosis are less likely diagnoses based on the absence of specific clinical features and laboratory findings. Therefore, the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation is alcohol excess, which may require further evaluation and management to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His parents report that he has been feverish and lethargic for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 39.5ºC, heart rate is 165/min, and respiratory rate is 52/min. The anterior fontanelle is visibly swollen, but no petechial rash is observed. Apart from cefotaxime, what other intravenous antibiotic should be administered?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:To ensure coverage for Listeria, it is recommended to administer IV amoxicillin along with cefotaxime when treating meningitis in children under 3 months of age.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female presents with a red eye on one side that is watering but not causing any pain. She has a history of well-managed Crohn's disease and reports feeling generally healthy. Her vital signs are normal. Upon examination, a small area of redness is observed, but there is no vision impairment, and the patient does not display any sensitivity to light. Eye drops are given, resulting in a brief whitening of the blood vessels. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retrobulbar haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Episcleritis is a condition that can cause redness in the eye, but it is typically not accompanied by pain.
Both episcleritis and scleritis can cause unilateral redness in the eye, tearing, and no sensitivity to light. However, a key difference between the two is that the use of phenylephrine or neosynephrine eye drops will cause the blood vessels in episcleritis to become pale, while this will not occur in scleritis.
In contrast, closed-angle glaucoma often presents with a painful, red eye that is unilateral. The cornea may appear hazy, and the pupil may be mid-dilated. Patients may also experience nausea, vomiting, and see halos around lights.
A stye, or hordeolum, is a bacterial infection of one of the glands in the eyelid. This can cause a tender, red bump on the edge of the eyelid.
Retrobulbar hemorrhage can occur due to various factors, such as AV malformation, trauma, or increased venous pressure. Symptoms include a painful, red eye that may protrude, particularly at night. Patients may also experience reduced vision, nausea, vomiting, and double vision.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute rectal pain. He has a 2-month history of perianal pain and bright red rectal bleeding at the time of defaecation. He has been taking regular codeine for the past six months for low back pain.
On examination, there is a thrombosed haemorrhoid visible externally. It is impossible to proceed with digital rectal examination because the patient is in too much pain.
What is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Thrombectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thrombosed Haemorrhoids
Thrombosed haemorrhoids can cause severe pain and discomfort. The best treatment option in the acute phase is evacuation of the clot through incision and drainage. This provides immediate relief from the pain. Rubber-band ligation and injection sclerotherapy are effective outpatient treatments for haemorrhoids, but they are not used in the acute setting. Stool softeners should be prescribed to prevent constipation, which is the main cause of haemorrhoids. Topical treatments containing multiple ingredients, including corticosteroids, may help relieve symptoms but are not useful in treating the acute pain of a thrombosed haemorrhoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a management option for individuals with hyperhidrosis?
Your Answer: Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy
Correct Answer: Topical atropine
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left side. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer: Fasciculation of the tongue
Correct Answer: Absent corneal reflex
Explanation:Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and body temperature is accurate?
Your Answer: Body temperature rises just before ovulation
Correct Answer: Body temperature rises following ovulation
Explanation:The increase in body temperature after ovulation is utilized in certain cases of natural family planning.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.
During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.
The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.
Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 49
Correct
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He works as a software engineer and has no other medical conditions. What should be his initial target for HbA1c?
Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. It is crucial to monitor the condition regularly as it can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and lead to micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide valuable information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be considered. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also essential, with a minimum of four tests per day, including before meals and bedtime. Blood glucose targets should be between 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens as the preferred choice for adults with type 1 diabetes, rather than twice-daily mixed insulin regimens. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins. Metformin may also be considered if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher.
In summary, managing type 1 diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors. NICE guidelines provide a useful framework for clinicians to ensure optimal care for their patients with type 1 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 50
Correct
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.Your Answer: Thrombocytosis
Correct Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)
Explanation:The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. There is a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for migraine. She admits to taking multiple painkillers for her headaches. Blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Urinalysis reveals haematuria, and the GP commences her on a 2-week course of nitrofurantoin. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of a normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine level of 230 μmol/l (reference range 44–97 μmol/l).
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Reflux nephropathy
Correct Answer: Analgesic nephropathy
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Excessive Analgesic Consumption
Excessive consumption of analgesic medications such as aspirin and paracetamol can lead to kidney injury, a condition known as analgesic nephropathy. This is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidney, rapid consumption of antioxidants, and subsequent oxidative damage to the kidney, resulting in renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. The kidney injury may lead to progressive chronic kidney disease, abnormal urinalysis results, hypertension, and normochromic normocytic anaemia.
Other possible diagnoses for renal damage include reflux nephropathy, acute nephritis, renal failure secondary to sepsis, and hypertensive renal disease. Reflux nephropathy is characterized by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys, while acute nephritis is caused by infections or drug-associated hypersensitivity. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and hypertensive renal disease is defined by the coexistence of renal arterial vascular disease and hypertension.
In the given clinical scenario, the most likely diagnosis is analgesic nephropathy due to the patient’s history of excessive analgesic consumption. However, other diagnoses cannot be ruled out without further evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating migraines in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Patients older than 55 years
Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Triptan use is contraindicated in individuals with cardiovascular disease.
Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are medications that act as agonists for 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors and are commonly used in the acute treatment of migraines. They are often prescribed in combination with NSAIDs or paracetamol and are typically taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache, rather than at the onset of an aura. Triptans are available in various forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally well-tolerated, some patients may experience triptan sensations, such as tingling, heat, tightness in the throat and chest, heaviness, or pressure. It is important to note that triptans are contraindicated in patients with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease.
In summary, triptans are a commonly used medication for the acute treatment of migraines. They should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache and are available in various forms. However, patients should be aware of potential adverse effects and contraindications before taking triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Giant cell tumour
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Skin prick testing before starting treatment
Correct Answer: No further testing required, start treatment
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST
Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.
Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Early first intercourse
Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with human papillomavirus, specifically types 16, 18, and 33, among others.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: Arrange an urgent chest radiograph
Correct Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist
Explanation:If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.
Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes
Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.
When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?
Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You are consulted by the parents of a 5-year-old girl. She has a lifelong history of bedwetting at night, and they are becoming increasingly concerned that the problem is not getting any better. She never has accidents in the day and opens her bowels at least once a day. She has been potty-trained since the age of two. Apart from hay fever, there is no relevant family history. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no abnormality. Things have come to a head as she is starting school in two weeks’ time, and they do not want her to wet the bed.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and commence treatment with an enuresis alarm to prepare him for his camping trip and advise to restrict fluid from 1600 h to prevent bedwetting during the camping trip
Correct Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting
Explanation:Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal wetting without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. Parents of children with primary enuresis may be reassured that their child is likely to grow out of the problem by age 15, with only 1% of patients continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.
Treatment options for primary enuresis include the use of an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system to teach and reward good habits. Fluid should not be restricted. In children over the age of 5, short-term control can be achieved with a prescription of desmopressin to prevent enuresis during sleepovers or school trips.
It is important to involve the child in the management plan and explore family habits. Referral to a paediatric urologist may be necessary for children with primary enuresis and daytime symptoms or for those who have failed two complete courses of treatment with an enuresis alarm or desmopressin.
Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa pain. She reports the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a medical history of endometriosis and type 2 diabetes mellitus and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her last menstrual period was 35 days ago, and she is concerned about being pregnant. She has a 4-year-old daughter, and her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Based on her history, what is a potential risk factor for her current presentation?
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Having endometriosis increases the risk of experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This patient’s symptoms and positive pregnancy test suggest a likely diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy. Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, fallopian tube damage, and IVF. However, multiparity, previous pre-eclampsia, twin pregnancy, and type 2 diabetes mellitus are not associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.
It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 61
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular menstrual cycles. She reports feeling weak and depressed. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple purplish striae on her abdomen and bruises on her lower extremities. Laboratory tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and TSH, but elevated cortisol secretion. If the patient has adrenal hyperfunction, what other symptom may also be present?
Your Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications
Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:
Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.
Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 62
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period
Explanation:If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.
In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with dizziness and headache. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be 190/120 mmHg. She said that she had been diagnosed with hypertension on two previous occasions but discontinued drugs both times. She is a computer analyst and drinks 3–5 units of alcohol every day. Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.03 mmol/l 2.20-2.60 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l 35–55 g/l
Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.60 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wagenmann–Froboese syndrome or MEN 2b
Correct Answer: Sipple syndrome or MEN 2a
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension, Hypercalcemia, and Low Magnesium in a Patient
One possible diagnosis for a patient with severe hypertension, hypercalcemia, and low magnesium is MEN 2a, also known as Sipple syndrome. This is because these symptoms can be explained by the presence of a phaeochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism, which are both associated with MEN 2a.
Conn syndrome, which is characterized by asymptomatic hypertension and hypokalemia, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case since the patient is normokalemic and has high calcium levels. Phaeochromocytoma could explain the hypertension, but not the hypercalcemia and low magnesium.
MEN 1, also known as Wermer syndrome, is associated with hyperparathyroidism, pancreatic endocrine tumors, and pituitary tumors, but rarely with phaeochromocytoma. Wagenmann-Froboese syndrome, or MEN 2b, is associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma and phaeochromocytoma, but hyperparathyroidism is rarely present.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms, MEN 2a or Sipple syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 65
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with elevated intraocular pressure and peripheral vision loss. He also has a history of asthma. What is the most suitable course of treatment to begin in this scenario?
Your Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Medications for Glaucoma: Uses and Contraindications
Glaucoma is a condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The primary goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure. Here are some common medications used for glaucoma and their uses and contraindications:
1. Latanoprost: This prostaglandin analogue increases scleral permeability to aqueous fluid, reducing intraocular pressure. It is safe to use in asthmatics and is recommended as a first-line medication.
2. Brinzolamide: This carbonic anhydrase inhibitor also lowers intraocular pressure but is not a first-line medication for glaucoma. It is safe to use in those with concurrent asthma.
3. Pilocarpine: This muscarinic receptor agonist improves the flow rate of aqueous humour but is not a first-line medication. It is cautioned against use in asthmatics as it can increase bronchial secretions and airway resistance.
4. Sodium cromoglicate: This mast-cell stabiliser is not usually used in glaucoma but is commonly used in conditions such as allergic rhinitis.
5. Timolol: This beta-receptor antagonist is contraindicated in asthmatics as it can lead to increased airway resistance through bronchospasm.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for individual cases of glaucoma, taking into consideration any contraindications or potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were part of a routine health screening conducted three days ago. He is currently on day five of antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated by one of your colleagues. Apart from this recent infection, he has no medical history and no new symptoms to report. His renal function is normal, and the rest of his blood tests are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/l
- Platelets: 540 * 109/l
- WBC: 13 * 109/l
- MCV: 76 * 109/l
- Ferritin: 330 * 109/l
All values were normal one year ago. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?Your Answer: Thalassemia
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:This man is suffering from microcytic anemia, which is typically caused by a lack of iron. It is important to note that he was unwell when his blood was taken, as inflammation can cause ferritin levels to rise and potentially mask true iron deficiency. Therefore, additional iron studies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. While thalassemia can also lead to microcytic anemia, his previous blood test showed no abnormalities.
Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.
In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.
Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Radiofrequency ablation
Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs
Explanation:Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases
Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.
Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate
Explanation:When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Which of the following symptoms is not typically associated with a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer: Back pain
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Exclusion of underlying malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease is necessary as weight loss is not a characteristic of IBS.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Azithromycin 1g PO stat
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on his face resembling a butterfly, joint pain, and overall fatigue. Based on the probable diagnosis, which auto-antibody has the greatest sensitivity?
Your Answer: Anti-citrulline antibodies (anti-CCP)
Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)
Explanation:Common Autoantibody Tests for Diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body. The diagnosis of SLE can be challenging due to its diverse clinical manifestations and the absence of a specific diagnostic test. However, several autoantibodies have been identified in patients with SLE, and their detection can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Here are some common autoantibody tests used for diagnosing SLE:
Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): This is the most commonly used screening test for SLE. ANA is present in 98% of patients with SLE, but it can also be positive in other autoimmune and non-autoimmune conditions.
Anti-citrulline antibodies (anti-CCP): This test has the highest specificity for rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.
Anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (anti-dsDNA): This test is positive in 70% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.
Anti-smooth muscle autoantibodies (anti-sm): This test is positive in 25% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.
Rheumatoid factor: This test is used for investigating rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.
In summary, the detection of autoantibodies can be helpful in diagnosing SLE, but the interpretation of the results should be done in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other laboratory tests. ANA remains the best screening test for SLE due to its high sensitivity, but the presence of other autoantibodies can increase the specificity of the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and little finger on his left hand. Upon examination, the GP notes thickening of the palm and limited extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to a diagnosis of Dupuytren's contracture. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, epilepsy, heart failure, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most commonly linked to the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin treatment may lead to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture as a potential adverse effect.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor as he noticed a new spot on his arm while showering. Upon examination, there is a lesion that appears to be dark brown and has a raised appearance.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Seborrhoeic Keratoses: A Common Benign Skin Condition in the Elderly
Seborrhoeic keratoses, also known as senile warts, are a benign overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes that commonly present in individuals over the age of 60. These warty nodules are usually found on the trunk and can be light tan to black in color. While they can be unsightly, seborrhoeic keratoses are not harmful and do not require treatment. However, there is a small risk of infection if the lesion is picked at. If a growth becomes excessively itchy or irritated, it can be removed through various methods such as cryotherapy, curettage, shave biopsy, or excision biopsy. It is important to understand this common skin condition to avoid unnecessary worry or concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent low mood. Despite undergoing CBT in the past, he has not experienced any improvement and wishes to try medication. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking amlodipine and warfarin.
Which antidepressant should be steered clear of in this patient?Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Patients who are taking warfarin or heparin should avoid taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) due to their antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, citalopram is the appropriate choice. It is important to note that some tricyclic antidepressants and mirtazapine can also increase the INR, so caution is necessary when prescribing these medications. According to the Nice CKS guidelines on warfarin administration, trazodone may be the preferred antidepressant for these patients.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively following surgery for a tibial shaft fracture. The plaster cast is removed and examination reveals tender swelling of her lower leg. All distal pulses are present and the foot and leg are warm. Pain is significantly worse with passive extension of the toes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Correct Answer: Acute compartment syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Swollen Calf: Understanding Acute Compartment Syndrome and Other Potential Causes
A swollen calf can be a concerning symptom, especially following trauma or surgery on the lower limb. One potential cause is acute compartment syndrome, which is a surgical emergency that can lead to limb-threatening complications. This condition occurs when pressure within a closed fascial compartment increases and compromises the neurovascular supply to the muscles within that compartment. Other potential causes of a swollen calf include a ruptured Baker’s cyst, acute limb ischaemia, cellulitis, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to inquire about the safety of taking multivitamin supplements. She confesses that she has been consuming high doses of vitamin B6 supplements, believing that it would alleviate her anemia and boost her energy levels. She seeks your advice on whether she should continue taking the supplements.
What is a potential adverse effect of excessive intake of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?Your Answer: Jaundice
Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is essential for the formation of haemoglobin and can be obtained from various food sources such as chicken, fish, vegetables, eggs, peanuts, milk, and potatoes. The recommended daily intake of vitamin B6 is 1.4mg for men and 1.2mg for women, which can be easily met through a balanced diet. However, prolonged consumption of over 200mg of vitamin B6 per day can result in peripheral neuropathy.
Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Causes and Symptoms
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be categorized into two types based on the predominant symptoms: motor loss and sensory loss. Motor loss conditions include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth), chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria. On the other hand, sensory loss conditions include diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.
Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. It typically presents with sensory symptoms before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also lead to peripheral neuropathy, specifically subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. In this case, the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Understanding the causes and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has been going on for nine months. Upon examination, her abdomen appears normal and urinalysis results are normal. The doctor diagnoses her with detrusor muscle over-activity and prescribes oxybutynin. What is the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?
Your Answer: Anti-oestrogenergic
Correct Answer: Anti-muscarinic
Explanation:The detrusor muscle’s contraction is regulated by muscarinic cholinergic receptors, and oxybutynin acts as a direct antimuscarinic agent. Sympathetic control, which decreases detrusor muscle activity, is influenced by serotonin and noradrenaline. The bladder does not contain GABAergic or estrogen receptors.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy with a history of eczema and asthma suddenly experiences breathlessness, nausea, and swelling of the face after eating a chicken skewer at a party. A 999 call is made, and his friends report that his skin is covered in raised red bumps and his lips are turning blue. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000)
Explanation:Emergency Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Interventions
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate intervention. The following medications and interventions are commonly used in the emergency management of anaphylaxis:
Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000): This is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should be administered immediately. It can be repeated every 5 minutes as needed, guided by vital signs, until the patient is stable.
Intravenous (IV) adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1 : 10 000: This is used in severe cases of anaphylaxis that do not respond to initial treatment. It should only be administered by experienced specialists and titrated carefully.
IV chlorphenamine in 0.9% saline (500 ml): Chlorphenamine is no longer recommended for initial emergency anaphylaxis management.
Reassurance and breathing exercises: These may be appropriate for a panic attack, but anaphylaxis requires immediate medical intervention.
Salbutamol: While bronchodilator therapy may be considered after initial resuscitation, the most important treatment for anaphylaxis is oxygen administration and IM adrenaline.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis and to act quickly to administer appropriate medications and interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of primary generalised epilepsy visits her GP as she intends to conceive. She is currently on lamotrigine as a single therapy. What guidance should be provided to prevent neural tube defects?
Your Answer: Folic acid 10 mg per day starting now
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg per day starting now
Explanation:During pregnancy, women with epilepsy should take 5mg of folic acid. Additionally, due to the potential harm of antiepileptic drugs to the fetus, they should receive specialized medical care.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits her GP at 12 weeks gestation complaining of dysuria. Apart from this, she is healthy and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Upon urine dip, leucocytes, nitrates, blood, and protein are detected. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Although UTI in pregnancy may not show any symptoms, it still needs to be treated promptly to prevent the development of pyelonephritis. The common medications used to treat UTIs are nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided at term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy. Penicillins and cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy, but sulfonamides (such as sulfasalazine) and quinolones (such as ciprofloxacin) should be avoided.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old infant presents to the clinic with a red rash on their scalp accompanied by yellow flakes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Symptoms and Management
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that affects children, typically appearing on the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the earliest signs is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. This condition is characterized by a red rash with coarse yellow scales.
Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children is not harmful and usually resolves within a few weeks. Parents can help manage the condition by massaging a topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brushing gently with a soft brush, and washing off with shampoo. If the condition is severe or persistent, a topical imidazole cream may be prescribed.
It’s important to note that seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. Parents should not be overly concerned and can take comfort in knowing that this condition is common and easily managed. By following these simple steps, parents can help their child feel more comfortable and alleviate any discomfort associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits the Urgent Treatment Centre as she has discovered a tick-like insect attached to her ankle. She had been hiking in a nearby forest earlier today and is worried because her sister was diagnosed with Lyme disease after a similar experience.
There are no signs of inflammation or infection in the skin surrounding the tick.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Irrigate the calf with a saline solution to ‘soak’ the tick off
Correct Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick by the head as close to the skin as possible and pulling firmly upwards
Explanation:Proper Tick Removal Techniques and Treatment Options
Ticks are common parasites that can cause a range of illnesses, including Lyme disease. It is important to remove ticks properly to prevent infection. The best way to remove a tick is by using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick as close to the skin as possible and pulling upwards firmly. This will prevent the body from detaching and leaving mouthparts in the skin. After removal, the bite area should be cleaned with antiseptic or soap and water. Irrigating the area with saline solution is not recommended as it may lead to partial removal of the tick. Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended for tick bites, but antibiotics may be prescribed if a patient is diagnosed with Lyme disease. Vaccines for Lyme disease are not currently available. If there is a clear indication of infection, oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Proper tick removal and treatment can help prevent the spread of tick-borne illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old construction worker visits his GP complaining of elbow swelling that has been present for three weeks. He reports that it started gradually and has no known triggers. The area is painful and warm to the touch, but he has no swelling in other parts of his body and feels generally well. The patient has a history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is taking methotrexate, and has no other medical conditions. During the examination, the doctor detects a tender, soft, fluctuant mass on the back of the patient's elbow. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute gout
Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. Inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows. The condition can be categorized as septic or non-septic depending on whether an infection is present.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, while some may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. Patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-colored bursal fluid favors a non-infective cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a new rash on his abdomen. The parents deny any recent infections or injuries. Upon examination, you observe a widespread petechial rash on the anterior abdomen and right forearm. The child appears pale and uninterested in the toys provided. Additionally, you note hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. While waiting for blood test results, you perform a urinalysis, which is unremarkable, and record a tympanic temperature of 36.6º. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:DIC can cause haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications in cases of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
While a petechial rash can be a result of trauma, it is unlikely to be the case with this child given the other significant symptoms present. The non-blanching rash may initially suggest meningococcal disease, but the absence of fever and a clear source of infection makes this less likely. Additionally, the lesions associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically appear on specific areas of the body and are accompanied by other symptoms such as haematuria or joint pain, which are not present in this case.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental polishing. He has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the recommended prophylaxis for preventing infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Oral doxycycline
Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis needed
Explanation:In the UK, it is no longer standard practice to use antibiotics as a preventative measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures, as per the 2008 NICE guidelines which have brought about a significant shift in approach.
Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having lung cancer.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Paraneoplastic syndromes occur more commonly with squamous-cell carcinomas.
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia may occur without bone metastasis.
Explanation:Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that can occur in patients with certain types of cancer, but are not caused by metastases, infections, metabolic disorders, chemotherapy, or coagulation disorders. These syndromes can present with a variety of symptoms affecting different body systems. Some of these syndromes are specific to certain types of cancer and may be the first sign of the disease. Therefore, if a patient presents with symptoms of a paraneoplastic syndrome, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying malignancy. While certain paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with specific types of cancer, there can be some overlap.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 88
Correct
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You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?
Your Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby
Explanation:Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.
Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.
However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 89
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old child to you, complaining of frequent respiratory infections, a persistent cough, and poor weight gain. The child is currently at the 3rd percentile for their age. The parents are of Romanian descent and have recently moved to the UK. What test should be performed to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sputum culture
Correct Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In the United Kingdom, newborns are screened for cystic fibrosis on the sixth day of life using a dried blood spot collected on a Guthrie card.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is presented for surgery due to recurring headaches. What is the primary reason for headaches in children?
Your Answer: Refractive errors
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:In children, primary headache is most commonly caused by migraine.
Understanding Headaches in Children
Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.
Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.
In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 92
Incorrect
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You are the foundation year two doctor on the paediatric medical assessment unit. You are asked to clerk a 10-year-old boy who has been brought in by his father due to abdominal pain and strong smelling urine.
A urine dip is positive for nitrites and leucocytes. You start treatment for a urinary tract infection. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Escherichia coli is the most frequent organism responsible for UTIs in both children and adults. Streptococcus pneumonia is more commonly associated with pneumonia or otitis media, while Staphylococcus aureus is more likely to cause skin infections like impetigo. Herpes is a viral infection that causes oral or genital ulcerations and whitlow. Although not impossible, a fungal-induced UTI is unlikely.
Investigating Urinary Tract Infections in Children
When a child develops a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to consider the possibility of underlying causes and kidney damage. Unlike in adults, UTIs in children can lead to renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for imaging the urinary tract in children with UTIs. Infants under six months of age who have their first UTI and respond to treatment should have an ultrasound within six weeks. However, children over six months of age who respond to treatment for their first UTI do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection or recurrent infection.
Features that suggest an atypical infection include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicemia, failure to respond to suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. If any of these features are present, further investigations may be necessary. Urine should be sent for microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months of age who present with atypical or recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 93
Correct
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A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for focal impaired awareness seizures. She drinks alcohol moderately. After three months, she experiences a series of seizures and her carbamazepine levels are found to be subtherapeutic. Despite being fully compliant, a pill-count reveals this. What is the probable cause?
Your Answer: Auto-induction of liver enzymes
Explanation:Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme system, leading to increased metabolism of carbamazepine through auto-induction.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts on the eyelashes and a gritty feeling in both eyes. What is the primary treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Oily tear eye drops
Correct Answer: Eyelid hygiene with warm compresses, lid massage and lid margin cleaning
Explanation:The initial step in treating blepharitis is to apply hot compresses to the affected area. This is followed by eyelid hygiene, which involves cleaning the lid margins and massaging them. If this does not work, chloramphenicol eye drops and oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Oily tear eye drops can be used to prevent rapid evaporation of tears caused by blepharitis. While an omega-3 rich diet may help improve the condition, it is not considered a first-line treatment.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of pleuritic chest pain. She states that this started in the evening and has gotten worse since then. The pain is central and seems to improve when she leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which shows widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR interval depression. Extensive investigations reveal no underlying cause.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best treatment option?
Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.
Your Answer: No treatment needed
Correct Answer: NSAIDs until symptomatic resolution along with colchicine for three months
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis requires prompt treatment to prevent complications such as recurrent pericarditis, pericardial effusions, cardiac tamponade, and chronic constrictive pericarditis. The initial treatment for idiopathic or viral pericarditis involves high-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or aspirin in combination with colchicine. The duration of NSAID or aspirin treatment depends on symptom resolution and normalization of C-reactive protein (CRP), while colchicine treatment is continued for three months using a low, weight-adjusted dose. Strenuous physical activity should be restricted until symptom resolution and normalization of inflammatory markers, and gastroprotection with a proton-pump inhibitor is recommended.
If NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated, low-dose corticosteroids are the next step in the treatment algorithm, after exclusion of infectious causes. However, when the cause of the pericarditis is known, it must be treated first before starting anti-inflammatory treatment.
Managing Acute Pericarditis: Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children
Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.
To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).
Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 98
Incorrect
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During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Suggest use of an emollient ointment
Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A patient underwent an 80-cm ileum resection for Crohn's disease 2 years ago. She now presents with anaemia. Her haemoglobin is 88 g/l (female – 120–160 g/l) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (Mean Corpuscular Volume) 105 fl/red cell (normal 80-96 fl/red cell.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Chronic bleeding after surgery
Correct Answer: Impaired vitamin B12 absorption
Explanation:Causes of Different Types of Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the blood. There are different types of anaemia, and each has its own causes. Here are some of the causes of different types of anaemia:
Impaired Vitamin B12 Absorption: Vitamin B12 deficiency is a potential consequence of ileal resection and Crohn’s disease. Vitamin B12 injections may be required. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes a macrocytic anaemia.
Impaired Iron Absorption: Iron deficiency causes a microcytic anaemia. Iron deficiency anaemia is multifactorial, with gastrointestinal (GI), malabsorption and gynaecological causes being the most common causes. Ileal resection is not associated with impaired iron absorption, but gastrectomy can be.
Chronic Bleeding after Surgery: Iron deficiency due to chronic blood loss causes a microcytic anaemia. Acute blood loss would cause a normocytic anaemia.
Haemolysis: Haemolysis is the abnormal destruction of red blood cells. It causes a normocytic anaemia.
Bacterial Infection: A bacterial infection is not a common cause of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A mother visits the GP clinic seeking information on the hearing tests conducted during school entry. She is anxious about the hearing screening tests as her sister had a language delay caused by hearing impairment that went unnoticed. Her daughter is 4 years old and is about to start preschool. What kind of hearing screening test will be provided to her?
Your Answer: Otoacoustic emission test
Correct Answer: Pure tone audiometry
Explanation:In the majority of regions in the UK, pure tone audiometry is conducted when children start school. Newborns and infants undergo an Auditory Brainstem Response test if the otoacoustic emission test yields abnormal results. The newborn hearing screening programme includes an otoacoustic emission test. Health visitors perform a distraction test on infants between 6-9 months old. A speech discrimination test is administered after children reach 2.5 years of age.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 278 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WCC): 6.3 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 fl
- Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): 4.5% (< 3%)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemia major
Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait
Explanation:When a female presents with microcytic anaemia, it is important to consider potential causes such as gastrointestinal bleeding or menorrhagia. However, if there is no history of these conditions and the microcytosis is not proportional to the haemoglobin level, beta-thalassaemia trait should be considered as a possible diagnosis, especially if HbA2 levels are elevated.
Understanding Beta-Thalassaemia Trait
Beta-thalassaemia trait is a genetic disorder that affects the production rate of beta chains. It is an autosomal recessive condition that results in a mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia. This condition is usually asymptomatic, meaning that it does not show any noticeable symptoms. However, it is important to note that microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia. Additionally, individuals with beta-thalassaemia trait have raised levels of HbA2, which is typically greater than 3.5%. Understanding beta-thalassaemia trait is crucial for individuals who may be carriers of this genetic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 102
Correct
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A 7-week-old male infant was presented to the GP clinic by his anxious mother. She complains of a 2-week history of inadequate feeding and weight gain, accompanied by fast breathing, especially during feeding. The mother became extremely worried when she observed a bluish tint on her baby's skin this morning.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:TOF is the primary reason for cyanotic congenital heart disease, which usually manifests at 1-2 months of age. While transposition of the great arteries is also a significant cause of this condition, it typically presents within the first 24 hours of life. Ventricular septal defect and atrioventricular septal defect are not associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease.
Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
Which class of CKD does he belong to?Your Answer: CKD stage 2
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:
– CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption of shellfish at a Chinese eatery. What is the most suitable course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.3ml of 1 in 10,000
Correct Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.5ml of 1 in 1,000
Explanation:The recommended adult dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 500 mcg, which is equivalent to 0.5 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is prescribed a 7-day course of erythromycin for cellulitis. She is in good health and uses the progesterone-only pill for birth control. She is concerned about the potential interaction between her antibiotic and contraceptive pill. What advice should she be given regarding her contraception?
Your Answer: Advise ceasing the pill and using additional barrier contraceptives for the duration of the antibiotic course
Correct Answer: Reassurance that no additional precautions are needed
Explanation:It was once believed that taking antibiotics while on any form of contraceptive pill could reduce the pill’s effectiveness. However, it is now known that broad-spectrum antibiotics do not interact with the progesterone-only pill, and therefore no extra precautions are necessary. The only exception is enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin, which may affect the pill’s efficacy. Additionally, if an antibiotic causes vomiting or diarrhea, it may also affect the pill’s effectiveness, but this is true for any form of vomiting or diarrhea. Therefore, the correct advice is to reassure patients that no additional precautions are needed. Advising the use of barrier contraceptives or ceasing the pill is incorrect, as there is no evidence to support these actions.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Candidiasis
Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick. He reports that his GP had prescribed him antibiotics for a chest infection. Upon examination, an ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). What medication is he likely taking?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides, particularly clarithromycin, due to its potential to prolong the QT interval and trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. This risk is higher in patients with an underlying channelopathy. Long QT syndrome can be caused by genetic factors such as potassium or sodium channel mutations, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypokalaemia. Certain drugs, including antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, and psychotropic medications, can also cause long QT syndrome.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 108
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin
Explanation:Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin
When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.
In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.
Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
Which vaccines should be avoided in this individual?Your Answer: Rabies
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:Patients who are HIV positive should not receive live attenuated vaccines like BCG. Additionally, immunocompromised individuals should avoid other live attenuated vaccines such as yellow fever, oral polio, intranasal influenza, varicella, and measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 0.5 - 2%
Correct Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old type 2 diabetic man has an annual review; bloods show creatinine 109 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 64 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2). Urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) test = 37 mg/mmol (reference range <3 mg/mmol- 30 mg/mmol). The results are repeated 4 weeks later and the results are very similar.
Which class of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this fit?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate class from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: No CKD (stage 1, normal)
Correct Answer: CKD stage 2
Explanation:Understanding the Stages of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition in which the kidneys gradually lose function over time. To help diagnose and manage CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
The stages of CKD are as follows:
– Stage 1: GFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (normal or high)
– Stage 2: GFR 60–89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– Stage 3a: GFR 45–59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– Stage 3b: GFR 30–44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– Stage 4: GFR 15–29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– Stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) The 2008 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b, and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the stage of CKD can help healthcare professionals determine appropriate treatment and management strategies to slow the progression of the disease and prevent complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 112
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Telangiectasia
Explanation:Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of non-melanocytic skin carcinoma, typically found in sun-exposed areas of the skin such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. Symptoms of basal cell carcinomas include a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges, and crusted edges. Pigmentation is not a predominant feature, but bleeding may occur. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden changes in size should be referred to a dermatologist for further assessment and investigation. Diagnosis is confirmed with a biopsy, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. Recurrence is possible, but basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A senior citizen who is taking digoxin asks you about the toxic effects of digoxin therapy, having read about it on the internet.
Which of the following is associated with digoxin toxicity?Your Answer: Increased appetite
Correct Answer: Premature ventricular beats
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Digoxin toxicity can occur suddenly in cases of overdose or gradually during long-term treatment. It is a common issue among elderly patients and is often associated with risk factors such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypercalcemia. The most common and earliest dysrhythmia in digoxin toxicity is the finding of premature ventricular beats on an ECG, along with sinus bradycardia. Other ECG changes may include depressed conduction, bigeminal and trigeminal rhythms, ventricular bigeminy, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Hair loss is not associated with digoxin toxicity, but gum/gingival hypertrophy can be caused by other drugs. Loss of appetite, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue are common symptoms reported by patients. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with digoxin toxicity to ensure proper treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of vertigo and dizziness. These episodes are usually triggered by a change in head position and usually last for about 30 seconds. The examination of the cranial nerves and ears shows no abnormalities. His blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg while sitting and 118/76 mmHg while standing. Assuming that the diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, what is the most suitable course of action to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tilt table test
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 115
Incorrect
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Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer: A 57-year-old female smoker with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 23%
Correct Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 116
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being seen in clinic. She is currently in good health and has not reported any symptoms. She only takes paracetamol occasionally for headaches. Her recent blood tests show:
CD4 325 * 106/l
What is the recommended course of action for antiretroviral therapy?Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Entry inhibitors, NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, and integrase inhibitors are all used to manage HIV. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend starting ART as soon as a patient is diagnosed with HIV. Each drug has its own side effects, and some of the common ones include peripheral neuropathy, renal impairment, osteoporosis, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and P450 enzyme interaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman expecting her second child and who is 28 weeks pregnant is referred to the Obstetric Unit with symptoms of headache, blurred vision and nausea.
On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 160/110 mmHg; her antenatal diary shows consistent systolic readings of 115/125 mmHg and consistent diastolic readings of < 85 mmHg. Her urine dip shows proteinuria.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure, headaches, flashing lights, and vomiting. The following are treatment options for pre-eclampsia:
Labetalol: This beta-blocker is the first-line treatment for pre-eclampsia. According to NICE guidelines, patients should be admitted for monitoring if their blood pressure is above 140/90 mmHg. Labetalol should be used if their systolic blood pressure goes above 150 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. Nifedipine can be used as an alternative if labetalol is contraindicated or not tolerated.
Ramipril: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.
Hydralazine: This vasodilator is reserved for severe pre-eclampsia and requires specialist support.
Methyldopa: This medication is the third-line option if labetalol is ineffective and nifedipine is not tolerated or ineffective.
Nifedipine: This calcium channel blocker is the second-line treatment if labetalol is ineffective or not tolerated.
In conclusion, pre-eclampsia requires prompt treatment to prevent serious complications. Labetalol is the first-line treatment, and other medications can be used if necessary. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl was discovered to have increasing trouble getting up from the ground and climbing stairs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebral palsy
Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: A Brief Overview
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 3500 males. It is caused by the absence of the dystrophin gene, which leads to progressive muscle weakness and wasting.
Symptoms of DMD typically appear in early childhood and include delayed motor milestones, difficulty running, hypertrophy of calf muscles, and weakness in the lower extremities. One classic sign of DMD is a positive Gowers’ sign, where a child uses their upper extremities to help themselves stand up from the floor by first rising to stand on their arms and knees, then walking their hands up their legs to stand upright.
It is important to note that DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning that it primarily affects males. Females can be carriers of the gene mutation but are typically asymptomatic.
While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are treatments available to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Early diagnosis and intervention are crucial for maximizing outcomes and improving long-term prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 120
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Differentiating Coarctation of the Aorta from Other Congenital Heart Diseases
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart disease that can present in different forms and be associated with various genetic abnormalities. Preductal coarctation of the aorta, which is more common in Turner syndrome, is characterized by aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. On the other hand, post-ductal coarctation is the adult type of the disease and is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Patent ductus arteriosus, another congenital heart disease, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Tetralogy of Fallot, which is associated with di George syndrome, and transposition of the great vessels are also congenital heart diseases that can be differentiated from coarctation of the aorta. Understanding the different clinical features and associations of these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 121
Correct
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What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis
Explanation:Causes of Hypothyroidism in Children
Hypothyroidism in children, also known as juvenile hypothyroidism, is most commonly caused by autoimmune thyroiditis. This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to decreased production of thyroid hormones. However, there are other causes of hypothyroidism in children as well. For example, children who have undergone total-body irradiation as part of treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia may develop hypothyroidism as a side effect. Additionally, iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism in children in developing countries. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential causes in order to properly diagnose and treat hypothyroidism in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor on a night shift in the emergency department of a district general hospital, you receive a 59-year-old man via ambulance who is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. After performing an A-E assessment, you find that his airway is patent, he is tachypnoeic with equal chest expansion, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg, he is alert with normal blood glucose and apyrexial. An ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in the anterior chest leads. Due to the nearest PCI center being over 3 hours away, it is decided that he will receive fibrinolysis.
What is the medication that should be administered before this treatment?Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Fondaparinux
Explanation:When treating ST-elevation myocardial infarctions with fibrinolysis, it is recommended to also administer an antithrombin drug. This is especially important when percutaneous coronary intervention cannot be performed within 120 minutes, which is often the case in district general hospitals. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is not used in the acute management of acute coronary syndrome, but rather for hypertension, heart failure, and secondary prevention following a myocardial infarction. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) is not indicated for acute myocardial infarction, but rather for primary and secondary prevention. The recommended dose for STEMI management is 300 mg. Fondaparinux, an antithrombin medication, is used to prevent the clot from getting bigger by activating antithrombin 3, which causes the inactivation of factor Xa. It should be administered before fibrinolysis. Morphine, historically used for pain control in ACS, has been found to increase mortality and should only be used for severe pain control.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 124
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed with sickle cell disease following his routine heel-prick screening test. His mother contacts the General Practitioner to discuss the implications of this diagnosis and would like more information about treatment.
Which of the following is the best choice of management?Your Answer: Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Disease: Antibiotic Prophylaxis, B12 and Iron Supplementation, and Malaria Prophylaxis
Sickle cell disease is a condition that increases the risk of infections, particularly pneumococcal infections, respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and osteomyelitis. To prevent severe infections or sepsis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V or amoxicillin for people with sickle cell disease, starting ideally at three months of age. Pneumococcal vaccination every five years is also crucial. Co-amoxiclav is not the antibiotic of choice for prophylaxis. B12 supplementation is indicated only if a person with sickle cell disease has B12 deficiency. Folate supplementation is recommended for all people with sickle cell anaemia due to high folate turnover associated with haemolysis. Lifelong iron supplementation is not recommended unless there is proven iron deficiency that would require 3-month supplements rather than lifelong treatment. Finally, sickle cell disease does not protect against malaria, and people with sickle cell disease planning to travel to an area where malaria is endemic should take the standard recommended malaria prophylaxis for that area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test; the result is positive. Which of the following investigations will be most useful in estimating her risk of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?
Your Answer: Chest X-ray (CXR)
Correct Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:The CD4 count is a reliable way to measure the immune system’s response to HIV infection. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. However, without antiretroviral therapy, HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count over time. A CD4 count of less than 350 cells/µl increases the risk of opportunistic infections, while a count of less than 200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI within three years. Some patients may remain well despite having a low CD4 count, depending on viral load and host immunity factors. Different OIs are more likely at different CD4 counts. The World Health Organization now recommends starting ART in every HIV-positive individual, regardless of CD4 count.
A CXR is usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may help diagnose an OI, but do not estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal FBC, but this does not help with risk assessment for OIs. TST is used to check for immunity to TB and diagnose LTBI. HIV-positive individuals are at higher risk of TB disease, but may have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing eligibility for isoniazid preventive therapy, but not in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 126
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to you after experiencing a heart attack 4 weeks ago. He has been prescribed ramipril, bisoprolol, aspirin, and clopidogrel following the event. Although he was offered a statin, he declined it at the time, feeling that he was being asked to take too many medications simultaneously. He has since read about the advantages of being on a statin and wishes to begin statin therapy. What is the appropriate statin for this patient to start on?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, a dosage of 20mg of atorvastatin is recommended. However, for secondary prevention, a higher dosage of 80 mg is recommended.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.
During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyositis
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents with a rash on the face. He first noticed this six months ago when he experienced episodes of flushing on the face. This has often occurred after he had alcohol or in situations where he felt stressful. A month ago, he started noticing a rash on his cheeks which came on intermittently until three weeks ago when the rash has become permanent. There has been no pain or itch associated with the rash. He is otherwise fit and well. He does not smoke.
On examination of the face, there is marked erythema with papules, pustules and telangiectasia. There are no comedones seen. The rash is distributed across the cheeks and nose. There is no per-oral or peri-orbital involvement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:The features described suggest acne rosacea, with episodic flushing, papules and pustules with telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks and forehead. Other conditions such as acne vulgaris, systemic lupus erythematosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis and shingles are unlikely based on the described symptoms.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 130
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.
Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.
Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 132
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What factor is most likely to increase her risk of developing digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Liver impairment
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to experience digoxin toxicity.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes, obesity, and smoking developed sudden pain in her left foot with a dusky colour change. On examination, in the Emergency Department, she had a cold, blue, painful foot with an absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulse.
Which of the following will be the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) scan of the abdomen
Correct Answer: Lower limb angiography
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Lower Limb Ischaemia
Lower limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Several diagnostic tests can be used to determine the cause and severity of the condition. Here are some of the most common tests:
1. Lower limb angiography: This test can identify the site of arterial occlusion and help plan the appropriate treatment, such as embolectomy or fasciotomy.
2. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) scan of the abdomen: This test is useful in cases of trauma or suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture.
3. Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI): This quick and easy test can provide an early indication of the severity of ischaemia. A value of 0.9-1.2 is considered normal, while values below 0.3 indicate critical ischaemia.
4. Echocardiogram: This test can rule out a cardiac source of embolisation, but lower limb angiography is the priority in cases of acute ischaemia.
5. Lower limb Doppler: This test can be used to assess arterial or venous flow, depending on the suspected cause of ischaemia.In summary, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help diagnose and treat lower limb ischaemia effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Electroencephalogram
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.
Understanding Brain Abscesses
Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.
To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.
Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports a six-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He withdrew from college soon after starting his course, and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his mother of trying to poison him. During the interview, he appears suspicious and hesitant to speak with you.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Amphetamine misuse
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in this vignette is schizophrenia. Early symptoms of schizophrenia can include social withdrawal and behavioral changes, which may go unnoticed before the onset of delusions and hallucinations. The patient’s belief that his mother is trying to poison him needs to be explored to confirm whether it is an actual delusion. While illicit drug use can cause psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia, the gradual onset and progression of symptoms in this case suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than amphetamine misuse. Depression can also cause delusions, but depressive delusions are usually congruent with the mood and tend to have themes of guilt or hopelessness. The combination of symptoms presented in this vignette cannot be safely explained by normal teenage behavior. While schizotypal disorder can resemble schizophrenia, it does not have the characteristic symptoms seen in this vignette.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?
Your Answer: Symptomatic treatment only (antihistamine & calamine lotion)
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a chest infection and undergoes a standard blood test in the emergency room. The results show his HbA1c level as follows:
HbA1c 48 mmol/mol (27-48 mmol/mol)
What medical condition could cause this reading to inaccurately reflect his blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Correct Answer: Splenectomy
Explanation:If a person has undergone a splenectomy, their HbA1c level may be falsely elevated due to the longer lifespan of their red blood cells. HbA1c testing is commonly used to determine diabetes, as it provides an average blood glucose level over a three-month period, which is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell. A higher HbA1c reading can be caused by either a higher average blood glucose concentration or a longer red cell lifespan. Therefore, only a splenectomy would result in an overestimation of blood sugar levels, as it increases the lifespan of red blood cells, while all other conditions would decrease their lifespan and lower the HbA1c reading.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 139
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 12-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should prompt you to consider alternative diagnoses?
Your Answer: Feeding difficulties
Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.7ºC
Explanation:When a child has bronchiolitis, it is common for them to have a low-grade fever. However, if the child has a high fever (over 39°C) and/or persistently focal crackles, it may indicate a diagnosis of pneumonia.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?Your Answer: Bumetanide
Correct Answer: Chlorothiazide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?
Your Answer: Potassium of the pleural fluid
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 142
Correct
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Sophie, 16, has come to her doctor's office to ask for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The FSRH uses a scale of 1 to 4 to categorize risk factors for contraceptive methods. A rating of 1 indicates no restrictions on use, while a rating of 4 indicates a condition that poses an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Migraine with aura is the only absolute contraindication among the answer options. Ratings of 2 and 3 indicate that the advantages and risks of the contraceptive method should be carefully considered and evaluated by a clinical expert.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain and fever that have persisted for two weeks. During the examination, it is discovered that he has weakness in his right lower limb. The patient has a history of stroke and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Although he has not traveled recently, discitis is suspected. What is the probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past two to three weeks and is now unbearable. She mentions having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem.
You notice an erythematous, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 80 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
You draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip. Rubbing off the excess reveals several burrows.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Folliculitis
Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Itching and Skin Lesions: Scabies, Atopic Dermatitis, Erythema Infectiosum, Folliculitis, and Keratosis Pilaris
A patient presents with itching between the web spaces and in the groin, which has been ongoing for three to four weeks. The patient reports sexual intercourse as a possible mode of transmission. The differential diagnosis includes scabies, atopic dermatitis, erythema infectiosum, folliculitis, and keratosis pilaris.
Scabies is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with itching after a delay of three to four weeks following skin-to-skin contact. A washable felt-tip can be used to identify the burrows of the scabies mites, and treatment involves a typical topical agent such as permethrin cream.
Atopic dermatitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents with a rash/itch on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Erythema infectiosum is a doubtful diagnosis, as it primarily affects children and presents with a slapped cheek appearance and other symptoms such as fever and headache.
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it presents with pinpoint erythematous lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It is also unrelated to sexual activity.
In conclusion, scabies is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms, and treatment with a topical agent such as permethrin cream is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and creamy urethral discharge. He has never had urethral discharge before and is very concerned. His past medical history includes childhood asthma and he is otherwise well with no allergies. During the consultation, he discloses that he had unprotected sexual intercourse two weeks ago.
On examination, his observations are within normal limits. His abdomen is soft and nontender with no palpable lymphadenopathy. There are no visible rashes. High urethral swabs are taken which show the presence of Gram-negative diplococci.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Common Antibiotics Used in the Treatment of Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern worldwide. Antibiotics are often used in the treatment of STIs, but the choice of antibiotic depends on the specific infection. Here are some common antibiotics used in the treatment of STIs:
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic is used to treat gonorrhoea, a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include urethral or vaginal discharge and dysuria. The current British Society for Sexual Health and HIV guidelines recommend a single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone for the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Azithromycin: This antibiotic is used to treat chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Chlamydia may be asymptomatic or cause symptoms such as mucoid or mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria.
Benzylpenicillin: This antibiotic is used to treat syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. The disease has three stages of infection – primary, secondary and tertiary.
Doxycycline: This antibiotic is also used to treat chlamydia or syphilis, but it is not used in the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Metronidazole: This antibiotic is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis. Neither infection is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of a lump in his testicle. During the examination, the lump disappears when he lies down. The scrotum shows dilated veins, while the abdominal examination is unremarkable. He expresses concern about his inability to conceive despite trying. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular teratoma
Correct Answer: Varicocoele
Explanation:Common Causes of Testicular Lumps: Varicocele, Epididymitis, Hydrocele, Inguinal Hernia, and Testicular Teratoma
Testicular lumps can be a cause for concern and require medical attention. Here are some common causes of testicular lumps:
Varicocele: This is a painless swelling of the testes on the left side, which can be described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is rare in pre-pubertal boys. Varicoceles are associated with male infertility, and a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters will have a varicocele.
Epididymitis: This is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection such as chlamydia infection, gonorrhoea, mumps, bacterial coliforms or syphilis. It may present as acute testicular pain, swelling and tenderness, and associated symptoms include urethritis, increased urinary frequency and dysuria. Systemic symptoms may include fever and rigors.
Hydrocele: This is a non-tender, painless, cystic scrotal swelling below and anterior to the testes. It will normally transilluminate and does not tend to reduce on lying flat. Although hydroceles can fluctuate in size and are affected by movement, they are not usually a cause for concern.
Inguinal hernia: This is a condition where a part of the intestine or other tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles, causing a lump in the groin or scrotum. If reducible, the lump may disappear on lying flat.
Testicular teratoma: This is a solid testicular lump within the testis, which is suggestive of a tumour. Testicular cancers can be subdivided into seminomas, teratomas and yolk-sac tumours. Over 95% of testicular cancers arise from the germ cells. Teratomas typically present at age 20–30 years, whereas seminomas typically present at age 35–45 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? Choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Tramadol is the best for treating trigeminal pain
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sharp, shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. While the cause is unknown, it can be due to compression of the nerve as it exits the foramen. The pain is intermittent and often exacerbated by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, with an initial dose of 100 mg up to twice daily. The dosage can be increased in increments of 100-200 mg every 2 weeks until the pain is under control.
Contrary to popular belief, trigeminal neuralgia usually affects the face unilaterally, with only 3% of cases being bilateral. A CT scan of the head is not recommended for all patients with the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia, but may be necessary if red flag symptoms are present.
It is important to note that patients with trigeminal neuralgia do not typically experience constant pain, as the pain is episodic in frequency. Tramadol is not the first-line treatment for trigeminal pain, carbamazepine is.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash over his shins, which was dusky blue in appearance at first but has now faded to a bruise-like appearance. His past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, occasionally with blood. There is no other past history of note. On examination, there is minor tenderness on the left side of his abdomen, and proctoscopy reveals moderate inflammation of the rectum. Blood testing reveals a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) level and normochromic/normocytic anaemia.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer: Mycoplasma infection
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis (UC)
Explanation:Erythema Nodosum and its Association with Various Diseases
Erythema nodosum is a skin condition characterized by painful, red nodules on the legs. It can be associated with various underlying diseases. In patients with ulcerative colitis, erythema nodosum is a common extraintestinal manifestation, along with uveitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum. However, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and mycoplasma infection can also cause erythema nodosum. It is important to consider the patient’s clinical presentation and other symptoms to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s gastrointestinal symptoms suggest inflammatory bowel disease, specifically ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up on her Crohn's disease. She has been on budesonide for 3 months to induce remission and reports feeling well. She did not experience any acute episodes during treatment and her bowel habits are regular. The physician determines that she requires maintenance therapy. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Mesalazine
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Bone marrow suppression, which can be fatal, is a potential risk associated with the use of azathioprine as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. Budesonide, a corticosteroid medication primarily used for asthma prevention, may be considered as a second-line option for inducing remission in Crohn’s patients. Mesalazine, which acts locally on the colon’s mucous membrane and has various anti-inflammatory effects, is less effective than glucocorticoids but can be used as a second-line option to induce remission. Methotrexate, a folate derivative that inhibits enzymes responsible for nucleotide synthesis, is the second-line medication used to maintain remission in Crohn’s patients. However, in this case, there is no indication to use second-line management instead of first-line treatment.
Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.
To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following?
Your Answer: 110 – 160 bpm
Correct Answer: 80 – 120 bpm
Explanation:Normal Heart Rate Range for Children
The normal heart rate for a 6-year-old child would be between 80-120 beats per minute (bpm). It’s important to note that the normal heart rate range varies depending on the child’s age. For instance, a heart rate of 110-160 bpm would be normal for a child aged less than 1 year, while a heart rate of 60-100 bpm would be normal for a child aged over 12 years. For children aged between 1 and 2 years, a heart rate of 100-150 bpm is considered normal, while for those aged between 2 and 5 years, a heart rate of 95-140 bpm is normal. For children aged between 5 and 12 years, a heart rate of 80-120 bpm is normal. Knowing the normal heart rate range for children is essential in monitoring their health and detecting any abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the ear, nose and throat clinic with a 4-month history of left-sided hearing loss. She reports occasional ringing in her left ear and feeling unsteady. She has a medical history of well-controlled type 1 diabetes and denies any recent infections.
During the examination, Rinne's test is positive in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. There is no evidence of nystagmus, and her coordination is normal. Other than an absent left-sided corneal reflex, her cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:If a patient presents with a loss of corneal reflex, an acoustic neuroma should be considered as a possible cause. This is a benign tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve and can lead to symptoms such as vertigo, tinnitus, and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. In some cases, the tumor can also invade the trigeminal nerve, resulting in an absent corneal reflex.
Other conditions that may cause hearing loss and vertigo include cholesteatoma, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. However, in this case, the patient’s hearing tests indicate a sensorineural hearing loss, which makes cholesteatoma less likely. Labyrinthitis typically causes acute vertigo that can persist for several days, but it would not be the cause of the loss of the corneal reflex. Meniere’s disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including tinnitus, vertigo, and sensorineural hearing loss, but the vertigo tends to be shorter in duration and follow a relapsing and remitting course.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?Your Answer: Profound hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent
When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 153
Correct
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You are a junior doctor working in pediatrics. You are preparing cases for the morbidity and mortality meeting. What is the time frame that defines infant mortality?
Your Answer: Any death in pregnancy, labour or in the six weeks post partum
Explanation:The investigation of maternal deaths in the UK is carried out by the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths, which encompasses deaths occurring during pregnancy, labour, and up to six weeks after delivery. Post partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a leading cause of maternal mortality. A stillbirth is defined as the loss of a fetus after twenty weeks gestation, while any loss prior to this is classified as a miscarriage.
Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics
Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.
Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.
These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 154
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?
Your Answer: Tramadol
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to see you by her daughter who complains that she has to repeat everything multiple times for her mother to understand. An audiogram confirms sensorineural hearing loss.
What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Presbyacusis
Explanation:Causes of Hearing Loss in Adults: Understanding the Differences
As we age, our hearing abilities may decline, leading to a condition known as presbyacusis. This age-related hearing loss affects high-frequency sounds and can be detected through an audiogram that shows reduced hearing for both air and bone conduction at higher frequencies in the affected ear.
Another cause of hearing loss is otosclerosis, which is a form of conductive hearing loss caused by problems with the ossicular chain. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap, indicating a gap between the hearing level for both air and bone conduction.
While multiple sclerosis can cause sensorineural hearing loss in adults, it is a rare occurrence and not the most likely option in most cases. Barotrauma, on the other hand, is a conductive cause of hearing loss that can lead to drum perforation. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap on the affected ear.
MĂ©nière’s disease is another cause of sensorineural hearing loss, but it is less common than presbyacusis. It typically presents with symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, and a fullness in the ear. Infections such as measles and mumps, or ototoxic medications, would usually present earlier. Barotrauma and otosclerosis are causes of conductive deafness.
In summary, understanding the differences between these various causes of hearing loss can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify the most likely cause and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer: Send three stool specimens 2–3 days apart
Correct Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?
Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:
Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.Colonoscopy
A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.Duodenal Biopsy
A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.Full Blood Count
A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 158
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l
What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mammary duct ectasia
Correct Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via caesarean section. The mother had an elective caesarean section at 38-weeks due to an active herpes infection. During examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. What would be your management plan for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Observation and supportive care
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn can be identified through a chest x-ray which may reveal hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. The appropriate management for this condition is observation and supportive care, including the administration of supplemental oxygen if necessary. Symptoms typically resolve on their own within a few days. The use of IV ceftriaxone, IV steroids, or urgent blood transfusion is not indicated in this case and therefore, incorrect.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?
Your Answer: Repeat urine dip
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 162
Incorrect
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An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:
Your Answer: Eczema
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.
Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.
It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ºC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Sputum culture
Correct Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.
An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 164
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum. He is feeling well otherwise. Upon examination, there is a soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum that is painless and illuminates brightly with a pen torch. The swelling is localized to the scrotum, and the rest of the scrotum can be palpated above the mass. The testicle is palpable with no apparent mass. The patient is particularly concerned about the possibility of having testicular cancer.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Scrotal swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as a hydrocele. This condition can be identified by its ability to transilluminate brightly with a pen torch and is confined to the scrotum. While epididymo-orchitis can also cause unilateral swelling, it is typically tender and accompanied by systemic symptoms. Testicular cancer may lead to a hydrocele, but if the testis is palpable and normal, it is less likely to be the cause of the swelling. In cases where the testis is not palpable, patients should be referred for a testicular ultrasound.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining of increased difficulty in breathing. The GP suspects that his lungs may be deteriorating and orders spirometry to aid in the diagnosis.
What spirometry results would be anticipated for a patient with this condition?Your Answer: FEV1= 40% FEV1/FVC = 1.0
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.65
Explanation:What spirometry result is expected in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency will result in an obstructive pattern on spirometry, similar to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The two important factors to consider in spirometry are the FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio. In obstructive disease, the FEV1 is reduced due to narrowed airways, while the FVC remains normal. This results in a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Therefore, in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, we would expect to see a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on spirometry.
Understanding Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver fails to produce enough of a protein called alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT). A1AT is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes that can cause damage, such as neutrophil elastase. This deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant fashion, with alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility as M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.
The classic manifestation of A1AT deficiency is emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. This condition is most commonly seen in young, non-smoking patients. However, the evidence base is conflicting regarding the risk of emphysema. Non-smokers with A1AT deficiency are at a lower risk of developing emphysema, but they may pass on the A1AT gene to their children. Patients with A1AT deficiency who manifest disease usually have the PiZZ genotype.
In addition to emphysema, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver problems such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children. Diagnosis is made by measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry, which typically shows an obstructive pattern. Management includes avoiding smoking, supportive measures such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy, and intravenous A1AT protein concentrates. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a 7-month history of abdominal bloating, pain and urgency to defecate in the morning. He has no history of nausea/vomiting, per rectum bleeding, mucus on stools or weight loss. He says that his symptoms become much worse, with worsening constipation, when he is stressed. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more likely to develop it than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology.
Diagnosis of IBS is based on the presence of symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit for at least 6 months. Physical examination and further investigations are necessary to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS primarily involves psychological support and dietary measures such as fiber supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Anti-spasmodics, anti-diarrheals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms.
It is important to note that symptoms not consistent with IBS, such as rectal bleeding, anorexia/weight loss, nocturnal symptoms, or fecal incontinence, should alert the clinician to the possibility of an organic pathology. Referral for psychological therapies should be considered for patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments after 12 months and who develop a continuing symptom profile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation:Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study
In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.
Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.
Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.
In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive malodorous vaginal discharge. Microscopy revealed the presence of clue cells, and she was diagnosed with Gardnerella vaginalis-induced bacterial vaginosis.
What would be the appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Common Antibiotics and Antifungals: Uses and Dosages
Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Co-amoxiclav, Fluconazole, and Nystatin are common antibiotics and antifungals used to treat various infections. Metronidazole is recommended for bacterial vaginosis and can be taken orally or applied topically. Azithromycin is used for Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and chancroid. Co-amoxiclav is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used for respiratory and urinary tract infections, among others. Fluconazole is an oral antifungal used for severe oral and vaginal candidiasis. Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis. Dosages and treatment durations vary depending on the specific infection being treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 169
Correct
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A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure (NYHA class II) presents for a check-up. Their diabetes is currently managed through diet, but their HbA1c has increased to 64 mmol/mol (8.0%). Which of the following medications should be avoided due to contraindication?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of anorexia and weight loss, excess pigmentation and dizziness on standing. He has a previous history of autoimmune hypothyroidism that is managed with thyroxine.
Examination reveals postural hypotension and skin discolouration. Initial investigations reveal hyponatraemia: Na+ 118 mmol/l (135-145 mmol/l) and hyperkalaemia: K+ 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.6-5.2 mmol/l).
Which of the following tests will be most useful to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: Short Synacthen® test
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Adrenal Failure: The Short Synacthen® Test
Adrenal failure is a condition characterized by multiple signs and symptoms and abnormal biochemistry. The diagnosis of adrenal failure is established by a failure of the plasma cortisol concentration to increase in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The short corticotropin test is the gold standard diagnostic tool for this condition. If this test is not possible, an initial screening procedure comprising the measurement of morning plasma ACTH and cortisol levels is recommended. Diagnosis of the underlying cause should include a validated assay of autoantibodies against 21-hydroxylase. Treatment involves once-daily fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone or prednisolone. Follow-up should aim at monitoring appropriate dosing of corticosteroids and associated autoimmune diseases, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Serum urea and ESR may not be diagnostic, while serum calcium and thyroid function tests can be abnormal in untreated Addison’s disease. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of adrenal failure, with a focus on the short Synacthen® test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is presented for surgery after the appearance of multiple small, umbilicated lesions on his right leg. He has no prior history of such lesions and is generally healthy, except for a history of allergies. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Trial of hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?
Your Answer: Erythema marginatum
Correct Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans
Explanation:Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ºC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?
Your Answer: Oxygen and fluids
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks
Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.
It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The chest radiograph reveals hyperinflation but clear lung fields.
What is the next step to assist in making a diagnosis?Your Answer: Trial of beclomethasone
Correct Answer: Spirometry
Explanation:Spirometry: The Best Diagnostic Tool for COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common respiratory condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. To diagnose COPD, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool. According to NICE guidelines, a diagnosis of COPD should be made based on symptoms and signs, but supported by spirometry results. Post-bronchodilator spirometry should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. Airflow obstruction is confirmed by a forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1):forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Other diagnostic tools, such as CT of the chest, serial peak flow readings, and trials of beclomethasone or salbutamol, may have a role in the management of COPD, but they are not used in the diagnosis of the condition. CT of the chest may be used to investigate symptoms that seem disproportionate to the spirometric impairment, to investigate abnormalities seen on a chest radiograph, or to assess suitability for surgery. Serial peak flow readings may be appropriate if there is some doubt about the diagnosis, in order to exclude asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids and short-acting beta agonists may be used in the management of COPD for breathlessness/exercise limitation, but they are not used in the diagnosis of COPD. In summary, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool for COPD, and other diagnostic tools may have a role in the management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 175
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent reason for recurrent spontaneous miscarriage in the first trimester?
Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The prevalence of aPL is significantly higher in women with recurrent miscarriage compared to those with a low risk obstetric history, with the former having a much higher incidence rate. In fact, the prevalence of aPL in the latter group is less than 2%.
Understanding Recurrent Miscarriage
Recurrent miscarriage is a condition that affects approximately 1% of women and is characterized by three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions. There are several potential causes of recurrent miscarriage, including antiphospholipid syndrome, endocrine disorders such as poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or thyroid disorders, polycystic ovarian syndrome, uterine abnormalities like a uterine septum, parental chromosomal abnormalities, and smoking.
It is important to note that while these factors may increase the risk of recurrent miscarriage, they do not necessarily guarantee that a woman will experience this condition. Additionally, there may be other underlying causes that have yet to be identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for one day. She noticed that the pain significantly worsened when she was brushing her hair. She also complains of pain in her jaw while talking.
Which of the following investigations is the gold standard test to confirm the suspected diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis (GCA) in this patient?Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible vision loss. The gold-standard test for GCA is temporal artery biopsy, which should be performed as soon as the disease is suspected. However, treatment with corticosteroids should not be delayed until the biopsy results are available. Investigating antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is not useful, as they are usually negative in GCA. A CT scan of the brain is not typically performed for suspected GCA, but a CT angiography may be used to evaluate other large arteries. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are commonly elevated in GCA and are part of the initial evaluation. A full blood count with peripheral smear may show normocytic normochromic anemia with or without thrombocytosis. Early recognition and appropriate management of GCA are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about it. He has a medical history of dyspepsia, hypertension, and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer. Which medication from his prescription list is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Goserelin
Explanation:The use of GnRH agonists (such as goserelin) for treating prostate cancer can lead to the development of gynaecomastia. This medication can also cause loss of libido and erectile dysfunction due to its mode of action. Bisoprolol does not have any known association with gynaecomastia. While metoclopramide can cause nipple discharge and hyperprolactinaemia, it is not linked to gynaecomastia. On the other hand, cimetidine (not omeprazole) is known to cause gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and swelling in both hands. She has had several episodes of vasospasm in her fingers, with pallor, cyanosis and subsequent redness caused by reactive hyperaemia. Blood tests reveal anti-double-stranded (ds)DNA antibodies and antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Autoimmune Connective Tissue Diseases: Characteristics and Differences
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren syndrome, Behçet’s disease, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic sclerosis are all autoimmune connective tissue diseases with distinct characteristics. SLE is most prevalent in African-American women and presents with arthralgia, rashes, and fever. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by dry eyes and mouth, while Behçet’s disease is primarily characterised by recurrent mouth ulcers, genital ulceration, eye lesions, and cutaneous manifestations. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis predominantly affects the small vessels and presents with lesions involving the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys. Systemic sclerosis is a multisystem disease characterised by Raynaud’s phenomenon and either limited or diffuse cutaneous scleroderma. Understanding the differences between these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 179
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
TSH 14.3 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer: Start carbimazole 10mg od
Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od
Explanation:The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol. He has come in 3 days after taking the overdose due to feeling extremely ill. What liver disease patterns are most probable to be observed?
Your Answer: Normal ALT. High ALP. ALT/ALP ratio low
Correct Answer: High ALT. Normal ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose leads to a liver disease characterized by hepatocellular symptoms. This type of liver disease is different from cholestatic (obstructive) or mixed liver diseases, which have distinct laboratory test results. Hepatocellular disease is indicated by raised ALT levels, while cholestatic disease is indicated by raised ALP levels. Mixed liver disease has raised levels of both ALT and ALP. AST and ALT are both produced by hepatocytes, and in hepatocellular disease, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing raised ALT levels. ALP, on the other hand, is produced by the cells lining the bile ducts, and its levels rise in obstructive liver disease.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 181
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
What guidance would you provide to her?Your Answer: The combined test can still be offered
Explanation:Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old teacher presents with bloody diarrhoea; he says that he has been passing up to 10 motions a day for the past 3–4 weeks. He now presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. On examination, he is dehydrated with a clearly distended, tender abdomen. There is anaemia with raised plasma viscosity; potassium level is mildly decreased at 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5–5.1 mmol/l), and urea level is raised, in keeping with dehydration. Liver function testing reveals a decreased albumin level. Autoantibody screen is positive for c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody). Colonoscopy shows friable mucosa with a uniform pattern of inflammation and loss of normal mucosa. Stool culture is negative.
Which one of these diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects only the large bowel. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge from the rectum. Diagnosis is confirmed through sigmoidoscopy, which reveals continuous inflammation with loss of normal mucosa and intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with various immune cells. The presence of p-ANCA is highly associated with UC. Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, ischaemic colitis, and diverticulitis have different clinical presentations and diagnostic criteria, which do not match the symptoms and test results of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the past 3 weeks, the girl has been experiencing discomfort while passing urine. She has a history of 3 previous urinary tract infections. During external examination, you notice thin semitranslucent adhesions that cover the vaginal opening between the labia minora but not the urethra opening. You prescribe a course of trimethoprim. What other treatment options would you consider initiating?
Your Answer: IV dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream
Explanation:Labial adhesions are typically caused by low levels of estrogen and are usually treated conservatively as they often resolve during puberty. However, if there are recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen creams may be considered as a treatment option. The use of trimethoprim pessary, IV dexamethasone, and oral prednisolone are not appropriate treatments for labial adhesions. It is important to address the adhesion as leaving it untreated can lead to complications.
Labial Adhesions: A Common Condition in Young Girls
Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.
Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.
Conservative management is typically appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.
In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can be managed conservatively. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being examined for persistent back pain. What symptom would strongly indicate a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain on straight leg raising
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by an early reduction in lateral flexion of the lumbar spine. Patients with this condition often experience a decrease in lumbar lordosis and an increase in thoracic kyphosis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is scheduled for elective surgery to repair an umbilical hernia. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and type two diabetes mellitus. He takes paracetamol 1 gram four times daily and metformin 500 mg once daily at breakfast. The surgery is expected to last for an hour and is scheduled for 11am. What is the appropriate management of his metformin on the day of surgery?
Your Answer: Omit breakfast dose
Correct Answer: Continue as normal
Explanation:When a patient is scheduled for surgery, it can be confusing to know how to manage their medications. However, it is important for junior doctors to be knowledgeable in this area. Time-critical medications, such as those used for Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, and diabetes, should be taken up to two hours before surgery with clear fluids. For patients taking metformin, the medication should be continued as normal if taken once or twice daily. If taken three times daily, the lunchtime dose should be skipped. This is because metformin can increase the risk of acute kidney injury if a meal is missed during surgery. If the patient’s eGFR falls below 60, metformin should be avoided for 48 hours after surgery. If the patient has poor diabetes control or a longer surgery, variable rate intravenous insulin infusion may be used. All other medications used for type two diabetes should be stopped.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 187
Incorrect
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At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?
Your Answer: Give up to 5 back-blows
Correct Answer: Encourage him to cough
Explanation:Dealing with Choking Emergencies
Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.
According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.
It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 188
Incorrect
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Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve survival in individuals with COPD?
Your Answer: Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:Long-term oxygen therapy is one of the few interventions that has been proven to enhance survival in COPD following smoking cessation.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted after a fall and a period of time on the floor. He has a long history of chronic illness and immobility, with medications for hypertension, cardiac failure and chronic chest disease.
On examination, he is obese, with a blood pressure of 110/75 mmHg, a pulse of 100 beats per minute and a temperature of 38.5°C. Respiratory examination reveals evidence of right lower lobe consolidation. He has no signs of traumatic bone injury.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Right lower lobe pneumonia
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 312 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 312 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Creatine kinase (CK) 1524 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Catheter specimen of urine: Red/brown in colour.
+++ for blood.
No red cells on microscopy
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis due to hypotension
Correct Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:The patient’s elevated CK levels and urine test indicating blood without cells strongly suggest rhabdomyolysis as the cause of their kidney failure, likely due to their fall and prolonged time on the floor. Treatment should focus on managing hyperkalemia and ensuring proper hydration. While acute myocardial infarction cannot be ruled out entirely, the absence of discolored urine and other symptoms make rhabdomyolysis a more likely diagnosis. Acute tubular necrosis is also unlikely, as there are no epithelial cells present on urinalysis. While sepsis should be considered, the presence of red-colored urine and a history of a fall make rhabdomyolysis the most probable cause. Polymyositis, a type of inflammatory myopathy, typically presents with proximal myopathy and is more commonly seen in middle-aged women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Riedel thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)
Explanation:Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 191
Incorrect
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The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have HIV. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to GUM for immediate p24 HIV test of phlebotomist to determine treatment
Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure.
For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used.
For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine.
For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given.
For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 192
Incorrect
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You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down syndrome. The mother mentions 'white speckles on his eyes'. Upon examination, you find a bilateral red reflex and no abnormalities. What is the mother describing?
Your Answer: Squint
Correct Answer: Brushfield spots
Explanation:Brushfield spots, which are small grey or brown spots found on the outer edge of the iris, are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. Cataracts, on the other hand, involve clouding of the lens and are not likely present in this patient as their red reflex appears normal. Coloboma, a congenital defect that causes a gap in the lens, iris, or retina, is associated with Patau syndrome rather than Down syndrome. While there have been links between Down syndrome and congenital glaucoma, the patient’s history does not suggest this condition. A squint, or deviation in the gaze of an eye, is a separate issue altogether.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is recommended bupropion to aid in smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?
Your Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist
Explanation:NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise adults against influenza is accurate?
Your Answer: Two doses 4 weeks apart are required
Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine
Explanation:Influenza Vaccination: Who Should Get It and What to Expect
Seasonal influenza remains a significant health concern in the UK, with the flu season typically starting in November. To prevent the spread of the virus, it is recommended that individuals receive the influenza vaccine between September and early November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B causing the majority of clinical disease.
Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013. The children’s vaccine is given intranasally, with the first dose administered at 2-3 years and subsequent doses given annually. It is a live vaccine and is more effective than the injectable vaccine.
Adults and at-risk groups are also recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually. This includes individuals over 65 years old, those with chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic kidney or liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, pregnant women, and those with a body mass index of 40 kg/m² or higher. Health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person may also be eligible for the vaccine.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine and cannot cause influenza. It is around 75% effective in adults, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels. The vaccine should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light. Contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. While a minority of patients may experience fever and malaise after receiving the vaccine, it is generally well-tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A three-year-old child with uncontrolled asthma visits the GP clinic with his mother as his asthma exacerbations are becoming more frequent. The child is currently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed and a beclometasone inhaler 200mcg/day with a spacer, and his inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?
Your Answer: Add in a long acting beta agonist (LABA)
Correct Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder, which is well controlled with lithium, presents with a 2-day history of confusion, diarrhoea and tremors. He takes regular analgesia for chronic back pain and has been feeling unwell recently.
A blood test shows:
Value Reference
Lithium (serum) 4.2 mmol/L (0.6 - 1)
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Cranberry juice
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:NSAIDs can cause lithium toxicity by reducing renal excretion of lithium and increasing plasma levels. Therefore, routine monitoring of serum lithium levels is necessary, especially after initiation and dose changes. ACE-I and diuretics should not be used with lithium due to the risk of renal dysfunction. Abruptly stopping lithium does not cause toxicity, but reducing caffeine intake can lead to toxicity by reducing lithium clearance. Cranberry juice does not interact with lithium, but it increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when taken with statins. Dehydration, not excessive water intake, increases the risk of lithium toxicity by reducing lithium excretion.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of haemodialysis (HD). He visits his general practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. He also complains of stiffness in his shoulders, hips and knees.
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis
Explanation:Differentiating between potential causes of joint pain: A brief overview
Joint pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here, we will briefly discuss some of the conditions that may cause joint pain and their distinguishing features.
Dialysis amyloidosis, also known as beta-2-microglobulin (β-2m) amyloidosis, is a rare condition that affects patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis or continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. It is characterized by the accumulation of β-2m, a major constituent of amyloid fibrils, which can invade synovial membranes and osteoarticular sites, causing destructive osteoarthropathies. Symptomatic relief can be provided with medication, therapy, and surgical procedures, but renal transplantation is the treatment of choice.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic inflammatory disease that is generally accepted to be triggered by an external factor, leading to synovial hypertrophy and chronic joint inflammation. Persistent symmetrical polyarthritis of the hands and feet is the hallmark feature of the disease.
Diabetic neuropathy is the most common complication of diabetes mellitus, affecting up to 50% of patients with type 1 and type 2 disease. It involves symptoms or signs of peripheral nerve dysfunction in people with diabetes, after other possible causes have been excluded.
Seronegative arthritis is characterized by joint pain and inflammation in the absence of serum rheumatoid factor (RF), which is present in approximately 60-80% of patients with RA.
Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, which is strongly correlated with the severity of renal insufficiency. Typical symptoms include a tingling and pricking sensation in the lower extremities.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these conditions, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat joint pain in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old diabetic patient visits your clinic with a complaint of painless difficulty in swallowing that has been ongoing for the past two months. The patient reports that the difficulty has been getting worse, but is unsure if there has been any weight loss. On examination, there are no notable findings.
What would be your next course of action considering the possible diagnoses?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for gastroscopy
Explanation:If a patient experiences new-onset dysphagia, urgent endoscopy is necessary regardless of age or other symptoms. In the case of progressive dysphagia, it is crucial to rule out oesophageal or stomach cancer with a two week wait referral for gastroscopy. Gastroparesis, a delay in gastric emptying associated with diabetes, can be treated with metoclopramide. Plummer-vinson syndrome, which is characterized by iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs, can also cause dysphagia along with glossitis and stomatitis. Gaviscon is not a suitable treatment for dysphagia as it only helps with dyspepsia. While a stroke can cause difficulties in initiating swallowing, it is typically sudden onset rather than progressive.
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor IX activity level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.
Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.
Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.
Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.
von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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