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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man presents with a 5 month history of feeling generally unwell,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a 5 month history of feeling generally unwell, being more breathless and tired than usual, feeling feverish and having a dry cough. He had already been treated by the General Practitioner with 2 courses of antibiotics in the community with only temporary improvement. His past medical history includes previous myocardial infarction, permanent pacemaker (PPM) with box-change 6 months ago, hypertension, diabetes, anaemia and chronic kidney disease (stage 2). He is a lifelong smoker.

      On examination his heart sounds were normal with no murmurs, he had scattered crackles and his abdomen was soft and non-tender. There was mild leg oedema and a faint purpuric rash on his shins. His vital signs revealed heart rate = 80 beats per minute, blood pressure = 130/70 mmHg, T=37.8oC, SaO2 = 96% on air and respiratory rate = 20 breaths per minute. His chest X-ray did not show and consolidation and his urine was clear.

      The following blood tests have been obtained:

      Hb 10.5 g/dl
      MCV 95 fl
      Platelets 160 * 109/l
      WBC 13.4 * 109/l

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Urea 12 mmol/l
      Creatinine 150 µmol/l
      CRP 100 mg/l

      Blood cultures grow coagulase negative staphylococci and you notice that during his previous admission in the hospital he also had positive blood cultures for coagulase-negative staphylococci.

      What is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Repeat blood cultures

      Correct Answer: Urgent transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      It is important to recognize the significance of blood cultures positive for coagulase-negative staphylococci. While these organisms are often considered harmless skin contaminants, they can cause serious infections in the presence of prosthetic devices such as pacemakers, heart valves, and orthopedic prostheses. This is due to their ability to form biofilms on artificial surfaces.

      In the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of a chronic infection and blood cultures positive for coagulase-negative staphylococci, the presence of a pacemaker and purpuric rash suggest that the source of sepsis may be related to the medical device. Repeating blood cultures may not be helpful in identifying the source of sepsis, but a CT scan can be useful in identifying most sources of sepsis.

      However, in this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram is the best investigation to rule out pacemaker-wire related infections. While this requires expertise and may not be readily available, it is the most effective way to identify the source of sepsis in this scenario. It is important to be aware of the potential for coagulase-negative staphylococci to cause device-related infections and to take appropriate measures to prevent and treat these infections.

      Understanding Staphylococci: Common Bacteria with Different Types

      Staphylococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body. They are gram-positive cocci and are facultative anaerobes that produce catalase. While they are usually harmless, they can also cause invasive diseases. There are two main types of Staphylococci that are important to know: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.

      Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and is known to cause skin infections such as cellulitis, abscesses, osteomyelitis, and toxic shock syndrome. On the other hand, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative and is often the cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis.

      It is important to understand the different types of Staphylococci and their potential to cause disease in order to properly diagnose and treat infections. By identifying the type of Staphylococci present, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      142.5
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain for almost a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain for almost a year. He has unintentionally lost a significant amount of weight and has a history of arthralgia and fever for the past decade. He recalls mosquito bites from a trip to Gambia when he was 18 and has been experiencing lapses in memory and poor performance at work. On examination, he appears emaciated with mild polyarthralgia and an ataxic gait. His blood tests reveal low hemoglobin, low ferritin, and abnormal electrolyte levels. A small bowel biopsy is ordered. What histological abnormality is likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation with multiple lymphoid aggregates

      Correct Answer: Deposition of macrophages containing PAS-positive granules within villi

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of Whipple’s disease develop gradually, and it should be considered as a possible diagnosis in individuals experiencing abdominal issues, particularly malabsorption, along with neurological symptoms. It is important to note that acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) should also be considered in the differential diagnosis for abdominal complaints and neurological symptoms, but in this case, abdominal pain would be expected rather than malabsorption. The key takeaway from this question is to recognize three significant histological features that are often associated with specific conditions, including increased intraepithelial lymphocytes with villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia for coeliac disease, deposition of macrophages containing PAS-positive granules within villi for Whipple’s disease, and transmural inflammation with multiple lymphoid aggregates for Crohn’s disease.

      Understanding Whipple’s Disease

      Whipple’s disease is a rare condition that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by an infection from Tropheryma whippelii and is more commonly found in middle-aged men who are HLA-B27 positive. The symptoms of Whipple’s disease include malabsorption, which can lead to weight loss and diarrhea, large-joint arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, skin hyperpigmentation, and photosensitivity. In some cases, patients may also experience pleurisy, pericarditis, and neurological symptoms such as ophthalmoplegia, dementia, seizures, ataxia, and myoclonus.

      To diagnose Whipple’s disease, a jejunal biopsy is performed to check for the deposition of macrophages containing Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) granules. Treatment for Whipple’s disease varies, but oral co-trimoxazole for a year is thought to have the lowest relapse rate. In some cases, a course of IV penicillin may be given before starting co-trimoxazole. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for Whipple’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      81.8
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a three-month history of frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a three-month history of frequent loose stools and occasional episodes of facial flushing. She has no significant medical history, has not traveled recently, and is not taking any medications. On examination, she appears dehydrated and is referred to the hospital's AMU.
      Upon admission, blood tests reveal the following results:

      Arterial pH 7.33 7.35 - 7.45
      Arterial pCO2 4.5 kPa 4.7 - 6.0 kPa
      Arterial pO2 13.8 kPa > 10.5 kPa
      Arterial HCO3 17.8 mmol/l 22.0 - 26.0 mmol/l

      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.8 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 91 μmol/l 50 - 120 μmol/l
      Calcium (Ca2+) 2.72 mmol/l 2.2 - 2.7 mmol/l
      Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.47 mmol/l 0.6 - 1.1 mmol/l
      Further investigations reveal a negative stool culture for bacterial and fungal infections, and a CT scan shows a lesion on her pancreas.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VIPoma

      Explanation:

      VIPoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that causes hypersecretion of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP), resulting in watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and acidosis. This tumor is typically found in the pancreas, and more than half of cases are malignant. In addition to these symptoms, patients with VIPoma may also experience facial flushing.

      While laxative abuse could cause similar symptoms, it would not explain the presence of a pancreatic mass or facial flushing. Bacterial infections are also unlikely, as they typically present with fever and positive stool cultures. Insulinomas, which are tumors that secrete insulin, would explain the pancreatic mass but not the diarrhea and flushing. Pancreatitis, which causes inflammation of the pancreas, could explain the biochemical abnormalities but not the presence of a pancreatic mass or flushing.

      Overall, VIPoma is a rare but important diagnosis to consider in patients presenting with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, acidosis, facial flushing, and a pancreatic mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a four-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a four-day history of diffuse diarrhoea. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. The patient was recently treated with co-amoxiclav for a lower respiratory tract infection. On examination, there is mild generalized abdominal tenderness without peritonism. The patient's observations are heart rate 105 beats per minute, blood pressure 88/62 mmHg, respiratory rate 19/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, and temperature 38.2.

      The patient is started on intravenous fluids and the following results are obtained: Hb 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160), platelets 412 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 15.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Na+ 131 mmol/L (135-145), K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), creatinine 88 µmol/L (55-120), and CRP 44 mg/L (<5). A CT abdomen and pelvis is arranged, which shows severe colitis with a transverse colon diameter of 4cm. A stool sample demonstrates Clostridium difficile toxin.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for a life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection is a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole. This approach is appropriate for a patient with severe disease on CT imaging and hypotension. Bezlotoxumab, a human monoclonal antitoxin antibody, is not typically used to treat the acute infection. Oral fidaxomicin may be used for recurrent infections or as a second-line therapy, but it would not be sufficient for a life-threatening infection. Oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for a non-life-threatening initial presentation of Clostridium difficile infection.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of leg pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of leg pain. He has been experiencing a crampy uncomfortable feeling in the back of both of his calves when he walks to the shops over the last few months. The discomfort is so severe that he has to stop and rest for a few minutes, after which he notices an improvement in his symptoms. He also experiences these symptoms when he is shopping in the supermarket. He attributes this to overexertion and tries to rest on his shopping trolley while walking, but it does not seem to help. He has a 35-pack year smoking history and takes amlodipine for his blood pressure, and paracetamol and ibuprofen for lower back pain that has troubled him for years.

      During the physical examination, the doctor observes mild atrophy of his thigh and calf muscles bilaterally, in addition to shiny pale skin with significant hair loss throughout his lower limbs. His pedal pulses are bilaterally impalpable, and popliteal pulses are faint. Power in both lower limbs is normal throughout all movements, and he has normal patellar reflexes bilaterally and absent ankle reflexes. His Babinski reflex is downgoing on the left side and equivocal on the right side. A recently obtained ankle brachial pressure index test yielded a result of 0.70 on the right side and 0.95 on the left side. X-rays of his lumbar spine show evidence of joint space narrowing and osteophytes.

      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to vascular surgery for consideration of peripheral arterial stenting or bypass surgery

      Explanation:

      For patients who exhibit symptoms of claudication and have cardiovascular risk factors, an ankle brachial pressure index study may yield equivocal or borderline results. In such cases, the recommended next step is to conduct an ankle brachial pressure index after exercise.

      In the case of the gentleman in question, his symptoms suggest vascular claudication rather than neurogenic claudication, which is characterized by symptoms that improve with certain maneuvers. His physical exam reveals signs of peripheral arterial disease, including muscle atrophy, hair loss, and impalpable pedal pulses. While his lumbar spine x-ray shows evidence of degenerative joint disease, an MRI scan is not necessary as his clinical presentation is not consistent with neurogenic claudication.

      The patient’s symptoms require treatment, and referral to vascular surgery is the next best step. Treatment strategies may include percutaneous interventions with stenting and/or surgical bypass. While it is important to manage cardiovascular risk factors, this alone will not address the patient’s symptoms or disease course.

      The patient’s pain is most likely vascular claudication rather than neuropathic pain, and therefore, duloxetine is not an appropriate treatment. While individuals with peripheral arterial disease are at risk for concomitant coronary disease, screening for this is not necessary in the absence of symptoms. The focus should be on addressing and treating the patient’s symptoms related to peripheral arterial disease.

      Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.

      In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.

      The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old male patient arrived at the hospital complaining of palpitations and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient arrived at the hospital complaining of palpitations and shortness of breath while at rest for the past eight hours. The patient has no previous history of ischemic heart disease. Upon examination, the electrocardiogram revealed atrial fibrillation (AF) with a ventricular rate of 140 beats per minute, and the patient's blood pressure was 126/59 mmHg. What is the most effective pharmacological agent for cardioversion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral flecainide

      Explanation:

      Converting Atrial Fibrillation to Sinus Rhythm with Antiarrhythmic Drugs

      Haemodynamically stable patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) can be converted to sinus rhythm using either large doses of oral agents or intravenous agents. Oral agents such as class IA, class IC, and class III antiarrhythmic drugs have been used to convert AF of recent onset to sinus rhythm. However, the class IC agents flecainide and propafenone have the advantage of acting rapidly and have been shown to be effective in converting AF to sinus rhythm in several placebo-controlled trials.

      Large single doses of flecainide (300 mg) or propafenone (450-600 mg) given orally have been found to be effective in converting patients to sinus rhythm. However, these agents should not be used in individuals with known or suspected ischaemic heart disease, those who are already on antiarrhythmic therapy, or those with a prolonged QT interval due to their potential pro-arrhythmic effects (torsade de pointes). Overall, antiarrhythmic drugs can be a useful tool in converting AF to sinus rhythm, but careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and potential risks is necessary before administering these agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of high fevers and myalgia. She has recently returned to the US from the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Her medical history includes uterine fibroids and iron deficiency anemia, which she manages with regular ferrous sulfate.

      Her vital signs are as follows:
      - Temperature: 39.2ºC
      - Heart rate: 120 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min
      - Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air

      Upon examination, she is diaphoretic and reports a headache. Her lung sounds are clear and her heart sounds are regular. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. However, she has multiple enlarged and tender lymph nodes in her axillae and groin.

      What is the most likely infectious agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bubonic Plague

      Bubonic plague is the most common type of plague that affects humans. It is transmitted by fleas that carry the bacteria from rodents to humans through their bites. The disease can also spread from one infected person to another through aerosolized particles if it develops into pneumonic plague in the lungs. Bubonic plague is still present in many countries, and Yersinia pestis is the bacteria responsible for causing the disease.

      Symptoms of bubonic plague usually appear 3-7 days after exposure and include flu-like symptoms such as high fever, headache, and weakness. The lymph nodes in the affected area become inflamed, tense, and painful.

      Fortunately, treatment with antibiotics such as streptomycin can significantly reduce mortality rates from 60% to 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the Geriatric Ward after a fall at home. During her stay, she experiences another fall and sustains a 5-cm cut on her forehead. Her vital signs are taken after the fall and are all within normal limits. Apart from her wound, her examination is unremarkable, with no other apparent injuries.
      Her wound is cleaned, and 1% lidocaine is injected around the edges of the cut. A few minutes later, the woman complains of tingling around her mouth and numbness in her tongue. She begins to feel lightheaded and becomes increasingly agitated and restless, making it impossible to continue with suturing.
      What is the next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (CEP)

      Explanation:

      Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (CEP) is a rare respiratory condition that is characterized by pulmonary infiltrates and pulmonary eosinophilia. It can be caused by parasites, drugs, or systemic diseases such as vasculitis, or it can be idiopathic. The peripheral eosinophil count may not always be elevated, but the serum IgG is raised in two-thirds of cases, and the ESR is elevated. Sputum and bronchoalveolar lavage often show an eosinophilia. CEP typically presents over a period of months to years and is more common in women over 50 who have asthma and are non-smokers. Symptoms include cough, wheezing, fever, and constitutional symptoms. Chest X-rays show dense, bilateral peripheral infiltrates that are often opposite to pulmonary edema and are distributed in the outer two-thirds of the lung. Treatment involves the use of steroids. Other conditions that may present similarly include allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, amiodarone-induced fibrosis, treatment-resistant asthma, and acute eosinophilic pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a painful ulcer on her right lower limb....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a painful ulcer on her right lower limb. She reports developing a painful erythematous area that quickly progressed to an ulcer with purple discolored edges. She recently knocked the area while riding her bike to work. She has also been experiencing mild abdominal pain and opening her bowels around eight times a day with some mucous, which she attributes to irritable bowel syndrome. Her medical history includes migraines and a previous deep vein thrombosis. A biopsy of the ulcer showed heavy neutrophil infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition that is often associated with ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease, as well as other diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and malignancy. It is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The condition usually starts suddenly, often at the site of a minor injury, and can result in a painful ulcer with a purple, violaceous, and undermined edge. Diagnosis can be difficult and is often made based on appearance, associations with other diseases, and histology results. Treatment typically involves steroid therapy and immunosuppressants.

      Necrobiosis lipoidica is another skin disorder that can affect the shins, often in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes. It is characterized by yellowish-brown patches that appear slowly over a few months and can lead to ulceration if the area is injured.

      Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory disorder that affects subcutaneous fat and often presents as red lumps on the shins, forearms, and thighs. It is commonly associated with bacterial infections, streptococcal throat infections, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and inflammatory bowel disease. The nodules are often painful, warm, and red at first, but can evolve into a bruise-like color before subsiding. Patients may also experience fever, arthralgia, and malaise.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of sudden weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of sudden weakness in his left arm and leg for the past 30 minutes. He reports no significant medical history or family history of stroke or heart disease.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 72 bpm, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. The power of the left arm and leg is 0/5, while the right arm and leg have full strength. The bilateral plantar response is flexor.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and physical and cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition characterized by neurological symptoms that cannot be explained by a medical condition. The first line of management for this disorder is reassurance and education about the condition. Patients with motor complaints may benefit from physical therapy and cognitive behavioural therapy.

      Mechanical thrombectomy is not indicated in the management of conversion disorder. It is used in patients with acute ischaemic stroke presenting within the window period. Dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin infusion are also not useful in the management of conversion disorder.

      Thrombolysis with intravenous alteplase is not recommended for patients with conversion disorder, even if they present with unilateral weakness. The diagnosis of conversion disorder should be made after excluding other medical conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of lower abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia. She denies any lower urinary tract symptoms but has noticed occasional creamy vaginal discharge. She has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness and is guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bimanual examination elicits bilateral adnexal tenderness. Swabs are taken, and investigations reveal a raised CRP and +++ leucocytes in the urinalysis. What is the most likely causative organism contributing to this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common gynecological condition that can lead to serious complications if left untreated. The most common cause of PID is Chlamydia trachomatis, which is responsible for up to 35% of cases. Symptoms of deep dyspareunia, lower abdominal and adnexal tenderness are indicative of PID.

      While Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a causative organism of PID, it is less common than C. trachomatis. Chlamydia psittaci, which causes respiratory pneumonia in birds, is not a cause of PID. Escherichia coli, a common cause of urinary tract infections, does not explain the vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness associated with PID. Mycoplasma genitalium is another causative organism of PID, but it is less common than C. trachomatis.

      In summary, understanding the causes of PID is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. C. trachomatis is the most common cause, followed by N. gonorrhoeae and M. genitalium. Other organisms, such as C. psittaci and E. coli, are not typically associated with PID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with chest pain that sounded...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with chest pain that sounded cardiac in nature. Her body mass index was 34 kg/m2, and she had a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. After being treated for stable angina, she expressed interest in learning more about obesity and potential treatment options.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for her obesity at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle measures (dietary, exercise, and behavioural interventions)

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial approach for treating obesity, as per NICE guidelines, involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, exercise, and dietary interventions. Obesity and being overweight can lead to various health risks, including cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, diabetes, musculoskeletal problems, respiratory problems, fatty liver, gallstones, and an increased risk of certain cancers. If the first-line interventions fail, pharmacological therapy may be considered.

      Obesity can be managed through a step-wise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is urgently referred to the endocrinology...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is urgently referred to the endocrinology consultant from a Dose Adjustment For Normal Eating (DAFNE) course. The nurse in the course was concerned as the patient, who is in his mid-30s, has experienced three episodes of hypoglycaemia in the past nine months, requiring assistance from his wife to increase his blood glucose levels. He follows a basal bolus regimen of long acting insulin once a night and short acting insulin three times a day, and works in a restaurant. He is an ex-smoker and drinks very little alcohol. Besides adjusting the insulin dose, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and to not drive

      Explanation:

      If a patient with diabetes has experienced two hypoglycaemic episodes that required assistance, they must surrender their driving licence. Severe hypoglycaemia, which requires help to correct, is a cause for concern for the DVLA. If a patient experiences two or more episodes of severe hypoglycaemia, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving.

      Patients who take insulin must have their driving licence assessed annually. This assessment requires the submission of three months’ worth of blood glucose readings. Patients are advised to check their blood glucose levels before driving and to keep a snack in their vehicle at all times, not just during hypoglycaemic episodes.

      Patients should be encouraged to inform the DVLA themselves rather than breaching patient confidentiality. However, if a patient repeatedly fails to do so, the doctor should inform the DVLA after informing the patient of their intentions.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with worsening swelling of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with worsening swelling of his legs over the past few weeks. He has never had this problem before. He does not feel short of breath and has no chest pain. His past medical history includes asthma, hepatitis C and depression.

      The patient appears to have sunken cheeks and a number of depressions in his skin across his upper arms and chest. On auscultation his chest is clear, heart sounds I+II are present and there are no added sounds. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. He has pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally.

      Observations are as follows: temperature 36.3ºC, blood pressure 179/111 mmHg, heart rate 89/min, respiratory rate 16/min, saturations 97% on air

      Initial investigations are as follows:

      Hb 120 g/l
      Platelets 170 * 109/l
      WBC 9.2 * 109/l
      Neuts 4.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 144 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Urea 12.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 166 µmol/l
      Adjusted calcium 2.35 mmol/l
      Albumin 26 g/l

      Urine: blood ++, nitrites -ve, leucocytes -ve, protein +++

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis for this 38-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The patient, who has Hepatitis C, is experiencing nephrotic syndrome and hypertension. The most probable diagnosis is mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, which is linked to Hepatitis C. The presence of lipodystrophy, indicated by sunken cheeks and skin dimples, is a characteristic feature of mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis Type II. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is typically observed in individuals with HIV.

      Understanding Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis

      Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, also known as mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, is a kidney disease that can present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria, or proteinuria. Unfortunately, it has a poor prognosis. There are three types of this disease, with type 1 accounting for 90% of cases. It is caused by cryoglobulinaemia and hepatitis C, and can be diagnosed through a renal biopsy that shows subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a ‘tram-track’ appearance under electron microscopy.

      Type 2, also known as ‘dense deposit disease’, is caused by partial lipodystrophy and factor H deficiency. It is characterized by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway, low circulating levels of C3, and the presence of C3b nephritic factor in 70% of cases. This factor is an antibody to alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb) that stabilizes C3 convertase. A renal biopsy for type 2 shows intramembranous immune complex deposits with ‘dense deposits’ under electron microscopy.

      Type 3 is caused by hepatitis B and C. While steroids may be effective in managing this disease, it is important to note that the prognosis for all types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is poor. Understanding the different types and their causes can help with diagnosis and management of this serious kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit late in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit late in the evening. Past medical history includes diabetes, glaucoma, hypertension, angina, transient ischaemic attacks and peripheral vascular disease.He had collapsed at home and, on arrival to hospital, was in complete heart block. After a few attempts, a transvenous pacing wire was inserted in the right internal jugular vein.During the night shift, the ward staff become concerned as his condition has deteriorated. He is complaining of a severe left frontal headache with associated nausea and vomiting. He also has blurring of vision in his left eye and has noted some flecks of bright red blood in his vomit.His temperature is 36.9 oC, pulse 90/min regular, blood pressure 180/94 mmHg, respiratory rate 22/min.Examination reveals a fixed dilated pupil on the left side. There is no other focal neurology. His abdomen is soft.What medication would be beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma and mountain sickness. However, in a patient with symptomatic complete heart block, atropine may have been administered until a temporary pacing wire could be placed. Atropine, an anti-muscarinic drug, can increase the risk of glaucoma and cause symptoms such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting. Treatment for acute glaucoma in this scenario includes topical beta-blockers, acetazolamide, and topical pilocarpine. It is important to note that acetazolamide can cause a normal anion gap acidosis and the patient will require monitoring of intraocular pressure by an ophthalmologist. Nitroprusside, a vasodilator, is not typically used in the treatment of acute glaucoma. Labetalol may worsen heart block when given too soon after a transient episode, and omeprazole and aspirin do not have significant impacts on acute glaucoma. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary in a patient with both acute glaucoma and complete heart block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medical Ophthalmology
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of increasing lethargy and weakness. She reports experiencing recurrent muscle cramps in her legs, which have been affecting her sleep. Additionally, she has been urinating up to ten times a day and feels constantly dehydrated. She also mentions that her periods, which were previously irregular, have ceased for the past 4 months.

      During the examination, the patient is noted to be underweight, with a body mass index of 17kg/m². Her heart rate is 88 bpm, and her blood pressure is 108/86 mmHg.

      The following laboratory results are obtained:

      - C Reactive protein: 2 mg/l
      - Haemoglobin: 158 g/l
      - White cell count: 7.6 x 10^9/L
      - Na+: 136 mmol/l
      - K+: 2.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 7.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 108 µmol/l
      - Corrected calcium: 2.42 mmol/l

      A venous blood gas test reveals:

      - pH: 7.532
      - Bicarbonate: 37 mmol/l

      What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine diuretic assay

      Explanation:

      When patients have hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and a normal to low blood pressure, several possible causes should be considered, including diuretic abuse, Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman’s syndrome. Diuretic abuse is the most common cause, particularly in young women, and can be ruled out with a urine diuretic assay.

      Bartter’s syndrome typically presents in early life and is characterized by triangular facies, polyuria, polydipsia, and renal failure. Despite a low or normal blood pressure, serum renin and aldosterone levels are high. Renal stones are a common feature, and urine calcium may be elevated. Gitelman’s syndrome, on the other hand, may present later in adulthood and is generally milder or asymptomatic compared to Bartter’s syndrome. Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalciuria are distinguishing features of Gitelman’s syndrome.

      While additional investigations such as a TVUS, early morning cortisol, and fasting blood glucose tests may be necessary to rule out other conditions, a urine diuretic assay would be the most useful next step in evaluating this patient’s biochemistry profile.

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Causes

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium and hydrogen ions are competitors, and as potassium levels decrease, more hydrogen ions enter the cells. Hypokalaemia can occur with either alkalosis or acidosis. In cases of alkalosis, hypokalaemia may be caused by vomiting, thiazide and loop diuretics, Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome. On the other hand, hypokalaemia with acidosis may be caused by diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, acetazolamide, or partially treated diabetic ketoacidosis.

      It is important to note that magnesium deficiency may also cause hypokalaemia. In such cases, normalizing potassium levels may be difficult until the magnesium deficiency has been corrected. Understanding the causes of hypokalaemia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old accountant presents with complaints of severe unilateral orbital and temporal headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old accountant presents with complaints of severe unilateral orbital and temporal headaches lasting around five minutes each and happening 15-25 times a day. The headaches have been occurring daily for over a year with no relief. The pain is described as constant and dull. Additionally, the patient experiences mild nasal congestion and increased tearing during these episodes. What is the preferred treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      Chronic Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache that shares similarities with cluster headaches but is characterized by shorter attacks that occur more frequently. The duration of each headache can range from 3-45 minutes, with 20-40 attacks happening per day. In comparison, episodic cluster headaches last between 15-180 minutes and occur one to three times daily for four to eight weeks, with several clusters happening each year. The good news is that chronic paroxysmal hemicrania typically responds well to indomethacin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman is seen in your pre-natal endocrinology clinic. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is seen in your pre-natal endocrinology clinic. She has been on a daily dose of 100 micrograms of levothyroxine for hypothyroidism and is currently 8 weeks pregnant. Her TSH level is 5.0 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and her free T4 level is 10.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What adjustments would you suggest for her levothyroxine dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine dose to 150 micrograms daily

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this does not affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimes should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks post-partum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man presented with acute dyspnoea.

    His past medical history includes three...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presented with acute dyspnoea.

      His past medical history includes three vessel coronary artery bypass surgery for ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. Examination revealed widespread expiratory crackles with chest x ray confirming pulmonary oedema. He was treated with intravenous nitrates and furosemide with symptomatic improvement.

      Investigations at this stage revealed:

      - Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Serum potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea 8.7 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine 170 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L (<11.1)
      - Urinalysis Protein++

      The following day he was switched to oral furosemide at a dose of 80 mg daily and began captopril 12.5 mg twice daily, increased to 25 mg twice daily.

      Repeat investigations one week later revealed:

      - Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Serum potassium 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea 15.7 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine 220 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Fasting plasma glucose 6.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Which of the following is most likely to have caused the deterioration in renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Captopril

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACEI-Induced Renal Dysfunction

      Patients with coronary artery atheroma may also have renal artery stenosis due to the same underlying pathophysiological mechanism. Therefore, clinicians should be vigilant for signs of renal dysfunction when prescribing medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) that can affect renal function. If a patient experiences a rise in serum creatinine levels of more than 20% above their baseline after starting an ACEI, the clinician should temporarily discontinue the medication, monitor renal function, and investigate for renal artery stenosis.

      It is also important to note that this patient does not have diabetes, as evidenced by their fasting plasma glucose level of only 6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). This information can help guide the clinician’s decision-making process when considering treatment options for this patient. By being aware of the potential for renal artery stenosis and ACEI-induced renal dysfunction, clinicians can take proactive steps to ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman presents with three days of right-sided loin pain and two...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with three days of right-sided loin pain and two episodes of blood in her urine. She feels unwell and lethargic but denies any fevers or urinary dysuria.

      She has a history of two urinary tract infections and is currently being seen by the anticoagulants clinic due to several miscarriages. Her maternal aunt has a history of renal calculi. She is not taking any regular medication at present.

      On examination, she is tender in the right loin only. Her blood pressure is 180/105 mmHg, heart rate 85/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 37.0ºC.

      Lab results show Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.2 mmol/l, urea 5.6 mmol/l, creatinine 87 µmol/l, and positive anti-cardiolipin antibodies.

      A urine dip reveals +++ blood and no leukocytes. An ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder shows no hydronephrosis or renal lesion.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      In cases of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS), the occurrence of loin pain and haematuria is indicative of renal vein thrombosis due to the hypercoagulable state of the patient. The patient in question has not been formally diagnosed with APS, but her positive antibodies and history of multiple miscarriages suggest its presence. While a renal calculus could also cause loin pain, it is less likely to result in frank haematuria and there are no risk factors for it. A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an unlikely cause as there are no lower urinary tract symptoms present.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - According to NICE guidelines, what should be the initial approach for patients with...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidelines, what should be the initial approach for patients with a history of myocardial infarction and suspected heart failure management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography and specialist review within two weeks

      Explanation:

      BNP and its Role in Diagnosing Heart Failure

      BNP, or brain natriuretic peptide, is a marker of structural heart disease that is often used to diagnose heart failure. The NICE guidelines recommend that patients with suspected heart failure should be risk stratified using serum natriuretic peptides, such as BNP. Patients with raised and high BNP concentrations should be referred for an echocardiogram and specialist review within six weeks and two weeks respectively. On the other hand, patients with normal BNP concentrations should be investigated for other causes of their symptoms as a normal BNP makes heart failure unlikely.

      BNP is not only raised in heart failure but also in other conditions such as hypertension, atrial fibrillation, aortic stenosis, diastolic dysfunction, acute coronary syndromes, cor pulmonale, and stable angina. It is also elevated in conditions such as acute and chronic renal failure, liver cirrhosis, hyperaldosteronism, and Cushing’s syndrome. Therefore, BNP is a marker of structural heart disease rather than specifically a marker of systolic dysfunction.

      Approximately 40% of patients with raised BNP will turn out to have left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) on echocardiographic assessment. Many of the remaining patients with elevated BNP will be shown to have other significant cardiac abnormalities such as valvular heart disease, AF, LVH, or diastolic dysfunction. BNP levels also rise with age and are higher in women than men. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors and diuretics can reduce BNP levels, so ideally BNP testing should be carried out before instigating therapy with these drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a non-productive cough for the past two weeks and has been feeling unwell with muscle aches and malaise before that. He visited his GP and was prescribed amoxicillin, but it did not help, and now he feels more breathless and unwell. He has not traveled outside of the UK in the last year and has no medical history or regular medications. His cough comes in paroxysms, which worries him.

      During the examination, a few bilateral crepitations are present, but otherwise, the examination is normal. His vital signs indicate fever and mild hypoxia. Blood tests reveal mild anemia and elevated inflammatory markers. A chest X-ray shows bilateral consolidation, but he responds well to IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin over a few days.

      What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is Mycoplasma pneumoniae. There are several indications in the patient’s history and test results that point towards this conclusion. Firstly, the patient is young and healthy, and reports a dry cough that started after flu-like symptoms and did not improve with penicillin treatment. Additionally, the patient has anemia, which could be caused by hemolysis, and a chest X-ray shows bilateral consolidation. Klebsiella pneumoniae is more commonly found in individuals who abuse alcohol, Legionella pneumophila is associated with travel to foreign countries, Chlamydia psittaci is linked to exposure to birds, and therefore, they are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old from Cameroon has recently moved to the UK to pursue nursing....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old from Cameroon has recently moved to the UK to pursue nursing. She has been experiencing diarrhoea for the past month and noticed a brief rash on her torso. Her GP ordered a blood test which revealed a significant eosinophilia. She has not lost weight and is worried about gaining weight since moving to the UK. She has no history of allergies or medication. Her brother had an eye worm last year. A stool sample was sent for ova cysts and parasites and microscopy and culture. The results showed multiple Strongyloides stercoralis larvae on charcoal culture. She was started on a seven-day course of Ivermectin. However, four days later, she was brought to the Emergency Department with a GCS of 6. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-infection with Loa

      Explanation:

      The clue in this story is the familial background of ‘eye worm’, indicating that she resides in a region with a high prevalence of Loa Loa.

      Understanding Loiasis: A Filariasis Infection Caused by Loa Loa

      Loiasis is a type of filarial infection that is caused by the Loa Loa parasite. This infection is transmitted by the Chrysops deerfly and is commonly found in the rainforest regions of Western and Central Africa. The clinical features of loiasis include pruritus, urticaria, and Calabar swellings, which are hot and non-erythematous swellings of soft tissue around joints. Another dramatic presentation of this infection is the subconjunctival migration of the adult worm, also known as the eye worm.

      Compared to other microfilarial infections like Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis, loiasis has fewer pathological features. However, high loa loa microfilaraemia can lead to encephalopathy following treatment with Ivermectin or DEC. This is due to the death of a large number of blood microfilaria. It is important to note that both of these drugs are contraindicated if loa loa microfilaraemia exceeds 2500 mf/ml. This has significant public health implications as Ivermectin is currently the drug of choice for controlling Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis in Africa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old female patient presents to you with a complaint of tiredness that...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old female patient presents to you with a complaint of tiredness that has been ongoing for three years. During the examination, you find an elevated calcium concentration in her blood. She has been feeling depressed since the death of her elderly parents. Her elder brother and his son were diagnosed with a calcium problem six years ago, but they have not received any treatment. She takes only atenolol for hypertension and does not take any supplements. Her blood pressure is 148/96 mmHg, and no other abnormalities are noted during the examination.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Serum sodium: 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Serum potassium: 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea: 7.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum calcium: 2.76 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      - Serum phosphate: 1.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 100 U/L (45-105)
      - PTH concentration: 4.4 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)
      - Urine calcium: 1.2 mmol/24 hrs (2-10)

      What treatment plan would you recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment is required

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcaemia: A Benign Condition

      Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH) is an autosomal dominant condition that is often misdiagnosed as primary hyperparathyroidism. However, FHH can be distinguished from the latter by the positive family history and markedly low urine calcium excretion. This condition is a consequence of down regulation of the calcium receptor, resulting in compensatory hypercalcaemia. Patients with FHH may present with mild hypercalcaemia, normal parathyroid hormone (PTH), alkaline phosphatase, and reduced urine calcium.

      Unlike hyperparathyroidism, FHH is not associated with any specific abnormality and is a benign condition that requires no treatment. Patients with a family history of calcium problems should be evaluated for FHH to avoid unnecessary treatment for hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man presents with confusion, constipation, and nausea. He has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with confusion, constipation, and nausea. He has a history of malignancy and his serum calcium levels are elevated. Treatment with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate improves his symptoms. What is the probable location of his primary cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is a serious metabolic disorder associated with malignancy, with 10% of cancer patients developing it. The most common cancers associated with hypercalcaemia are breast cancer, lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, and myeloma. The disorder is caused by osteolytic metastases, tumour secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, and tumour production of calcitriol. Treatment involves intravenous fluid rehydration and bisphosphonate administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found by...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found by her roommate having ingested a quantity of Paraquat and an unknown quantity of benzodiazepines. It is suspected that she took the overdose approximately 4 hours ago.

      On examination in the department, her BP is 118/82 mmHg, pulse is 88/min and regular, and she is drowsy due to having taken the benzodiazepines.

      What is a crucial step in managing a Paraquat overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated charcoal

      Explanation:

      Paraquat poisoning is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. Activated charcoal is an effective treatment when given within the first 2 hours of ingestion, with potential benefits up to 12 hours later. However, plasma levels of paraquat greater than 0.1 mg/l at 24 hours are associated with a poor prognosis, and ingestion of more than 10 g is associated with a 100% mortality rate. Death is typically caused by progressive pulmonary fibrosis, which begins during the second week after ingestion. Fuller’s earth is an alternative to activated charcoal but is less widely available. Pralidoxime chloride is used to treat organophosphate poisoning but has no role in paraquat poisoning. Dexamethasone may have modest benefits when combined with hemoperfusion. Hemodialysis or hemofiltration can enhance elimination of paraquat, and concomitant use of hemodialysis and hemoperfusion may be even more effective. N-acetylcysteine is not recommended for the treatment of paraquat overdose. It is important to consult the national poison service in cases of poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent heartburn and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent heartburn and indigestion for the past year. He is worried as his father was diagnosed with oesophageal cancer at a young age. You schedule him for an upper GI endoscopy.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 140 g/l 130–170 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 60–110 µmol/l
      Endoscopy Helicobacter gastritis
      He undergoes successful eradication therapy. What advice would you give him regarding his future risk of cancer and the possibility of needing retreatment for Helicobacter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The eradication of H. pylori can significantly reduce the risk of gastric cancer by preventing the progression of premalignant conditions such as atrophic gastritis and intestinal metaplasia. Even in patients with established intestinal metaplasia, H. pylori eradication has been shown to prevent the progression to gastric cancer. However, eradication therapy is not necessary for recurrence prevention in developed countries, and regular eradication has no evidence to support it.

      On the other hand, H. pylori eradication is the first-line treatment for low-grade gastric marginal zone (MALT) lymphoma, curing 60-80% of cases. However, eradication therapy has no effect on symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease or its sequelae, such as the development of Barrett’s or oesophageal carcinoma.

      In terms of alcohol consumption, it is one of the environmental factors that can significantly increase the risk of gastric cancer. However, consuming 5 units (40g) of alcohol per week has not been shown to be statistically significant in increasing this risk.

      Overall, understanding the effects of H. pylori eradication and alcohol consumption on gastric cancer risk can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and reduce their risk of developing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man with a history of COPD presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of COPD presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent breathlessness during physical activity. He denies any significant coughing. Upon pulmonary function testing, his SpO2 is at 90%, FVC is at 2.8L, FEV1 is at 1.47 (40% predicted), and FEV1/FVC ratio is at 53%. His medical records indicate that there has been significant diurnal variation (>20%) in his peak flows. Currently, he is taking a short-acting beta-2 agonist and a combination inhaler containing a long-acting beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid. What would be the most appropriate additional medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled tiotropium

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is experiencing breathlessness even after using SABA/SAMA and a LABA + ICS, it is recommended to include a LAMA in their treatment plan.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a fever of 38.0°C, 90 minutes after starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a fever of 38.0°C, 90 minutes after starting a red cell transfusion three days post allogeneic bone marrow transplant. Prior to the transfusion, her temperature was 37.6°C. On examination, she appears flushed, breathless, and complains of dizziness and a tight chest. Her heart rate is 110 beats per minute and regular, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and auscultation of the chest reveals widespread wheeze. The staff nurse stops the transfusion and checks a full blood count, which shows abnormal results. The patient's haemoglobin, white cell count, neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and platelet count are all outside of the normal range. What other action should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give paracetamol, hydrocortisone and chlopheniramine

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reaction to Blood Transfusion

      A hypersensitivity reaction to blood transfusion is an immediate-type reaction that can cause a combination of symptoms such as urticaria, erythema, maculopapular rash, periorbital edema, bronchospasm, and hypotension. The appropriate treatment for this reaction is to stop the transfusion, maintain blood pressure with colloids, administer hydrocortisone, antihistamines, paracetamol, and adrenaline if necessary. The antibody causing the reaction is often unknown, but in some cases, it is directed against IgA in recipients who have become sensitized.

      It is important to note that all red cell components in the United Kingdom have been leucodepleted since 1999 to reduce the chances of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease transmission. This has also reduced the number of febrile transfusion reactions, which are due to anti-HLA antibodies in the recipient serum or granulocyte-specific antibodies. Simply giving paracetamol is not an effective treatment for the allergic nature of this reaction.

      In addition to a hypersensitivity reaction, the patient may also have febrile neutropenia. However, the chest symptoms suggest that the hypersensitivity reaction is the first priority in treating this patient. If the patient is not already on intravenous antibiotics, they should be started at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing difficulty in urination...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing difficulty in urination that has been worsening for several months. The doctor observes a decline in his kidney function and schedules a renal ultrasound scan, which reveals bilateral hydronephrosis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Obstruction

      Lower urinary tract obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including prostate cancer, urethral stricture, bladder stones, and benign prostatic hypertrophy. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest that the most likely cause of the obstruction is benign prostatic hypertrophy. However, it is important to consider referral to a urologist for further evaluation to rule out other potential causes.

      To relieve the urinary obstruction, the patient requires catheterisation. This procedure involves inserting a thin tube through the urethra and into the bladder to allow urine to drain out. While catheterisation can provide immediate relief, it is not a long-term solution and further treatment may be necessary depending on the underlying cause of the obstruction.

      In summary, lower urinary tract obstruction can be caused by various factors, and a proper diagnosis is essential for effective treatment. In this case, benign prostatic hypertrophy is the most likely cause, and catheterisation is necessary to relieve the obstruction. However, referral to a urologist is recommended for further evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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