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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.
Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The mother is concerned about potential complications besides fluid loss.
Your Answer: Microcephaly
Correct Answer: Heat loss
Explanation:Exposed bowel in babies with gastroschisis leads to a considerable loss of fluid and heat, which can pose a serious risk to their lives. Unlike exomphalos, gastroschisis is not associated with cardiac and renal issues. Additionally, there is no correlation between gastroschisis and microcephaly or macrocephaly.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with multiple congenital abnormalities such as an extra finger on each hand, microphthalmia, microcephaly, and cleft palate and lip. Which chromosome is most likely to be affected in this case?
Your Answer: 21
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:A newborn has been diagnosed with Patau syndrome, which is caused by an extra full copy of chromosome 13 (trisomy 13). This chromosomal abnormality often results in physical and mental disabilities, with distinguishing features including polydactyly, cleft lips and palates, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Unfortunately, many infants with Patau syndrome do not survive beyond their first year of life. Those who do survive often experience intellectual and motor disabilities.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is discovered collapsed and unresponsive. Upon examination, there are no apparent obstructions in her airway. There are no signs of life and no indication of any respiratory efforts being made. Emergency assistance has been summoned and is en route.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next in her treatment?Your Answer: Give 2 rescue breaths
Correct Answer: Give 5 rescue breaths
Explanation:The correct initial step for paediatric basic life support (BLS) is to give 5 rescue breaths immediately, even before checking for a pulse. This is because respiratory causes are the most common in children. Checking for a femoral pulse is not necessary to determine the need for chest compressions, as palpation of the pulse is not a reliable indicator of effective circulation. Giving 2 rescue breaths is incorrect for children, as they require 5 rescue breaths to mitigate hypoxia. The correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 15:2, but the first step in paediatric BLS is always to give 5 rescue breaths.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalised facial swelling. He recently recovered from viral pharyngitis. He is otherwise healthy and meeting developmental milestones.
Upon examination, he is alert and not experiencing any respiratory distress. There is pitting edema in his face and legs.
Urinalysis reveals 4+ protein and no hematuria. Blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 180 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180, females: 115-160), platelets at 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC at 8.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), bilirubin at 12 ”mol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP at 60 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT at 35 u/L (normal range: 3-40), γGT at 32 u/L (normal range: 8-60), and albumin at 10 g/L (normal range: 35-50).
What is the recommended first-line treatment option for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Albumin infusion
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment for minimal change glomerulonephritis, which is likely the cause of this patient’s facial edema, hypoalbuminemia, and proteinuria, is prednisolone. This medication is a corticosteroid and is considered the mainstay of therapy for this condition. Adrenaline, albumin infusion, and furosemide are not appropriate treatments for this patient’s condition. While albumin infusion may be used as adjunctive therapy, its effects will only be temporary. Adrenaline is used to treat anaphylaxis and would not be effective in treating minimal change disease. Furosemide may be used as adjunctive therapy, but its effects will also be temporary.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who presents with yellowing of the skin and eyes, fatigue, and intense itching, and has a history of coeliac disease? Her test results show elevated bilirubin, positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and normal kidney function.
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an inflammatory condition that affects middle-aged, overweight women. The most common symptoms are fatigue and pruritis, along with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for PBC as it slows disease progression. Cholestyramine can effectively control pruritis, but it does not affect overall mortality in PBC. Liver transplantation is reserved for cases where medical alternatives have failed. Loratadine is not indicated for PBC, and prednisolone is used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis, which is a different condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ÂșC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.
An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 4 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2.5 kilograms, which he attributes to a decreased appetite. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the interview, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Explanation:When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia along with weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as this is a common characteristic. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. Although achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, patients with oesophageal spasm usually experience pain when swallowing.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe otalgia, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhoea. She has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and no allergies. On examination, the left external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue are erythematous and tender. What is the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:For patients with diabetes who present with otitis externa, it is important to consider the possibility of malignant otitis externa, which is a severe bacterial infection that can spread to the bony ear canal and cause osteomyelitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of this condition, so treatment should involve coverage for this bacteria. Intravenous ciprofloxacin is the preferred antibiotic for this purpose. It is also important to note that diabetic patients with non-malignant otitis externa should also be treated with ciprofloxacin due to their increased risk of developing malignant otitis externa. Clarithromycin and flucloxacillin are not appropriate choices for this condition, and leaving the infection untreated can lead to serious complications.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
When diagnosing malignant otitis externa, doctors will typically perform a CT scan. Key features in a patient’s medical history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and unrelenting ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and/or facial nerve dysfunction.
If a patient presents with non-resolving otitis externa and worsening pain, they should be referred urgently to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.
Overall, while malignant otitis externa is rare, it is important to be aware of its symptoms and risk factors, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the infection from progressing and causing more serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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