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Question 1
Correct
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A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness burns affecting 45% of his body surface area. On the fourth day of his admission, he experiences severe epigastric pain accompanied by haematemesis, melaena, and haemodynamic instability. What is the probable cause of these new symptoms?
Your Answer: Curling's ulcer
Explanation:Curling’s ulcer is a type of stress ulcer that may develop following severe burns. It is characterized by the necrosis of the gastric mucosa, which is often caused by hypovolemia. Curling’s ulcers are associated with a high risk of bleeding and mortality. In contrast, a Cushing’s ulcer is a stress ulcer that can occur after severe head trauma. While acute pancreatitis may develop after severe burns, it is not typically associated with significant gastrointestinal bleeding. Similarly, a Mallory-Weiss tear is an unlikely cause of the observed bleeding, as there is no history of vomiting and the volume of bleeding is too high.
Pathology of Extensive Burns
Extensive burns can cause a range of pathological effects on the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. Additionally, the loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in protein loss and hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and is characterized by decreased blood volume and increased haematocrit. Furthermore, the extravasation of fluids from the burn site can lead to secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, and increase the risk of acute peptic stress ulcers.
In addition to these effects, extensive burns can also lead to ARDS and compartment syndrome in extremities with full-thickness circumferential burns. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can be healed by the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. On the other hand, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage.
In summary, extensive burns can have a range of pathological effects on the body, including haemolysis, plasma leakage, protein loss, hypovolaemic shock, secondary infections, ARDS, and compartment syndrome. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn, with superficial burns being healed by keratinocyte migration and full-thickness burns requiring skin grafts for optimal coverage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A child is admitted with wheeze and an urticarial rash, which began 10 minutes after ingestion of amoxicillin for a chest infection.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?Your Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Mechanisms
Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses that can cause tissue damage and disease. There are five types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with a different mechanism and clinical presentation.
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell degranulation, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This type of reaction is responsible for allergies and anaphylaxis and is treated with antihistamines, epinephrine, and steroids.
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated and involve the interaction of antibodies with antigens on target cells. Examples include haemolytic anaemia of the newborn and Goodpasture Syndrome.
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and occur when immune complexes are deposited in tissues, leading to inflammation. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve the activation of sensitised T-helper cells, leading to the accumulation of macrophages and cytotoxic T-cells. Examples include chronic transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.
Type 5 hypersensitivity reactions are receptor-mediated or autoimmune and occur when antibodies bind to cell surface receptors. Examples include Grave’s disease and myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the mechanisms of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that has been ongoing for 2 months. She reports feeling more fatigued and weak towards the end of the day. Upon examination, anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are detected in her blood. A CT scan of her chest is ordered and reveals the presence of an anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most probable diagnosis for this mass?
Your Answer: Thymoma
Explanation:The most common causes of a mass in the anterior mediastinum are referred to as the 4 T’s: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass, and thyroid mass. The woman’s symptoms and positive anti-AChR suggest that she may have myasthenia gravis, which requires a CT chest to check for a thymoma. Other conditions that may show up on a CT chest, such as benign lung nodules, lung tumors, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis, are unlikely given her presentation. It is important to note that the mediastinum is not the same as the lungs, and therefore, all other answer options are incorrect as the question specifically asks for an anterior mediastinal mass.
The Mediastinum and its Regions
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is located between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5 and contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve.
The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area of the chest that contains many important structures and is divided into four distinct regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and is a current smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were conducted in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:
- Na+ 133 mmol/l
- K+ 3.3 mmol/l
- Urea 4.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine 90 µmol/l
What is the most likely cause of the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?Your Answer: His smoking history
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlortalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling out secondary causes. What is the best initial medication for treatment?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:For black African or African-Caribbean patients newly diagnosed with hypertension, a calcium channel blocker should be added as first-line treatment instead of ACE inhibitors, which have shown lower effectiveness in this population.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman is contemplating hormone replacement therapy but is concerned about the potential risk of developing breast cancer. She began menstruating at the age of 11 and experienced premature menopause at 45. She has three children, all of whom she breastfed, and has never used oral contraceptives. Apart from hormone replacement therapy, which of the following factors is most strongly linked to an elevated risk of breast cancer?
Your Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:Breast cancer risk is increased by HRT, early menarche, late menopause, and COCP, while it is reduced by multiple pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Breast Cancer Risk Factors: Understanding the Predisposing Factors
Breast cancer is a complex disease that can be influenced by various factors. Some of these factors are considered predisposing factors, which means they increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. One of the most well-known predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which can increase a person’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other predisposing factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation, p53 gene mutations, obesity, and previous surgery for benign disease.
To reduce the risk of developing breast cancer, it is important to understand these predisposing factors and take steps to minimize their impact. For example, women with a family history of breast cancer may choose to undergo genetic testing to determine if they carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Women who have not yet had children may consider having their first child before the age of 30, while those who have already had children may choose to breastfeed. Additionally, women who are considering hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider. By understanding these predisposing factors and taking proactive steps to reduce their impact, women can help protect themselves against breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?Your Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks
Explanation:Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection
Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.
One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.
Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.
It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.
Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.
Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness in her hips and shoulders, low mood, and loss of appetite. The pain and stiffness is worst first thing in the morning. Blood tests are shown below:
Hb 126 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 288 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 9.8 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
ESR 78 mm/hr
Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
CRP 56 mg/L
(< 5)
The patient is suspected to have polymyalgia rheumatica and is started on prednisolone. However, after 3 weeks, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis
Explanation:If a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. Typically, patients with this condition experience a dramatic improvement in symptoms within two weeks of starting steroid treatment. Therefore, if there is no response, it is unlikely that polymyalgia rheumatica is the correct diagnosis. Other conditions that may be considered include rheumatoid arthritis, hypothyroidism, fibromyalgia, and polymyositis. Continuing with the same dose of prednisolone or increasing the dose is not recommended, as there should have been some response to the initial dose if polymyalgia rheumatica was present. Similarly, replacing oral prednisolone with IV methylprednisolone is not appropriate if there has been no response to the oral medication. Methotrexate is a second-line treatment option for polymyalgia rheumatica, but it is not the most appropriate next step if the diagnosis is uncertain.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Potent topical steroids
Explanation:The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports a weight gain of approximately 10 kg during this time. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 141 g/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, Bilirubin 7 µmol/l, Platelets 331 * 109/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, ALP 71 u/l, WBC 4.6 * 109/l, Urea 3.9 mmol/l, ALT 31 u/l, Neuts 3.1 * 109/l, Creatinine 86 µmol/l, γGT 51 u/l, Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l, TSH 0.1 mu/l, Albumin 41 g/l, Eosin 0.2 * 109/l, free-T4 3 nmol/l, and CRP 4.1 mg/l. What would be the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of her fatigue?
Your Answer: MRI brain and pituitary
Explanation:When a patient has normal blood tests except for low thyroid function, which is indicated by low TSH and low free-T4, and presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism, it may be a case of secondary hypothyroidism caused by pituitary failure. This is a rare condition that requires imaging of the pituitary gland to rule out any anatomical or vascular causes, such as a tumor.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism.
On examination, the patient appears lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and demonstrable proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Random glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
A low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test are ordered.
Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?Your Answer: Iatrogenic
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. There are several different causes of Cushing syndrome, including iatrogenic, pituitary-dependent, ectopic ACTH secretion, primary adrenal disorder, and pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome.
The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is iatrogenic, which is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. This risk is higher in people who take oral corticosteroids, but it can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.
Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease is a much rarer cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from a pituitary tumour. Ectopic ACTH secretion is a very rare cause of Cushing syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumour.
Primary adrenal disorder is an unusual cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from primary hypercortisolism. Finally, pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing syndrome.
Understanding the different causes of Cushing syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to inquire about the whooping cough vaccine. She mentions that her friend, who also sees the same GP, received the vaccine at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She wants to know if she can get the vaccine at this stage of her pregnancy.
Your Answer: The pertussis vaccine is not offered to pregnant women
Correct Answer: She can have the vaccine now
Explanation:Pregnant women at 16-32 weeks are given the option to receive the pertussis vaccine.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). She initially complained of abdominal pain and itching, but is now asymptomatic except for significant fatigue. What medication should be prescribed for this patient? Choose the most likely option.
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a liver disease that can lead to cirrhosis if left untreated. Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) is the main treatment for PBC, as it can prevent or delay the development of cirrhosis. UDCA increases bile flow, inhibits toxic bile acid production, prevents hepatocyte apoptosis, and reduces the liver’s immune response. However, UDCA may cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and thinning hair.
Spironolactone is a diuretic that can be useful for end-stage liver disease with ascites, but it is not indicated for treating fatigue in PBC patients. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided by PBC patients, as they can worsen liver disease. Cholestyramine is used for cholestatic itching, but it should not be taken with UDCA as it can prevent UDCA absorption.
In summary, UDCA is the primary treatment for PBC, and other medications should be used with caution and only for specific symptoms or complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is scheduled for an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) to screen for oesophageal varices. The OGD reveals several high-risk varices, and medical prophylaxis is advised. What medication would be the best choice?
Your Answer: Terlipressin
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, is utilized for the prevention of oesophageal bleeding. Bisoprolol and metoprolol, both cardio-selective beta-blockers, are not as effective as propranolol for the extended management of varices. Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, is recommended for the immediate treatment of variceal bleeding.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports a strong odour but no itching, dysuria, dyspareunia, or post-coital bleeding. During the examination, you observe a watery discharge with an odour, but no erythema on the labia. The cervix appears healthy, and there is no cervical excitation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:To determine the cause of the watery vaginal discharge in this patient, further information about her sexual history would be necessary. However, based on the appearance of her cervix, a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea is unlikely. Gonorrhoea typically presents with a green and purulent discharge, and is not often associated with an odour. Similarly, Chlamydia would likely cause more problems with the cervix and a more mucopurulent discharge. Herpes simplex does not typically cause vaginal discharge, but instead presents with ulcers or tingling sensations around the vulva. Thrush, or candidiasis, would likely cause more itching and have a thicker, cottage cheese-like consistency. Bacterial vaginosis is the most likely diagnosis, as it often presents with a fishy odour and a thin, watery discharge that may be green or white. It can be asymptomatic and does not typically cause irritation or soreness. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a vaginal pH > 4.5 and the presence of clue cells on microscopy. These findings are in line with BASHH guidelines.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Ask the patient to come back and see you the next day.
Correct Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team
Explanation:This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.
The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation and epilepsy presents with a complaint of feeling generally unwell. He reports a blue tinge to his vision. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Drug-induced visual alterations
Viagra, also known as ‘the blue pill’, can cause blue-tinted vision. Digoxin, on the other hand, may result in yellow-green vision.Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Gouty arthritis
Explanation:Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral contraceptives?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:The Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives in Relation to Cancer
Oral contraceptives have been a topic of controversy when it comes to their association with cancer in women. However, various studies have shown that they can have both positive and negative effects on different types of cancer.
Breast Cancer:
The Collaborative Group on Hormonal Factors in Breast Cancer conducted a comprehensive analysis and found that current oral contraceptive users and those who had used them within the past 1-4 years had a slightly increased risk of breast cancer. However, the risk is small and resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.Dysmenorrhoea:
For women with primary dysmenorrhoea who do not wish to conceive, a 3-6 month trial of hormonal contraception is reasonable. Monophasic combined oral contraceptives containing 30-35 μg of ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate or levonorgestrel are usually the first choice.Ovarian Cancer:
Oral contraceptives have been noted to prevent epithelial ovarian carcinoma, with studies showing an approximately 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer. This protection lasts for at least 15 years after discontinuation of use and increases with duration of use.Endometrial Cancer:
Use of oral contraceptives is associated with a 50% reduction of risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma. Protection appears to persist for at least 15 years following discontinuation of use.Colorectal Cancer:
Women who take combined oral contraceptives are 19% less likely to develop colorectal cancer.In conclusion, while there are some risks associated with oral contraceptives, they also have benefits in reducing the risk of certain types of cancer. It is important for women to discuss their individual risks and benefits with their healthcare provider when considering the use of oral contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?
Your Answer: Creatine phosphokinase
Correct Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.
It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.
In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively he was taking aspirin and warfarin; intraoperatively he received unfractionated heparin prior to application of the aortic cross-clamp. His observation findings are heart rate 120 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 23/min, oxygen saturation 98% on air, temperature 38ºC. His blood results on admission to the critical care unit are as follows:
Hb 110 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 30 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 15 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
(2-4 g/L)
PT 20 seconds
(10-12 seconds)
APTT 60 seconds
(35-45 seconds)
FDP 60 ug/mL
(<10 ug/mL)
What is the most likely explanation for the blood abnormalities seen in this case?Your Answer: Heparin induced thrombocytopaenia
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s deranged vital signs after a major operation and suspected sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This is characterized by low platelets, increased clotting time, and raised fibrin degradation products (FDPs). DIC is often caused by the release of tissue factor (TF) in response to cytokines, tumor necrosis factor, and endotoxin. Anastomotic leak, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin use, and aspirin use are unlikely causes based on the patient’s history and blood results.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.
All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks
Explanation:If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of sudden vertigo, nausea, and vomiting that started this morning. He also mentions experiencing reduced hearing in his left ear. He has been recovering from a cold for the past week and has no other symptoms. During the examination, otoscopy shows no abnormalities. However, there is a spontaneous, uni-directional, and horizontal nystagmus. The head impulse test is impaired, and Rinne's and Weber's tests reveal a sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Correct Answer: Viral labyrinthitis
Explanation:Acute viral labyrinthitis presents with sudden horizontal nystagmus, hearing issues, nausea, vomiting, and vertigo. It is typically preceded by a viral infection and can cause hearing loss. Unlike BPPV, it is not associated with hearing loss. A central cause such as a stroke is less likely as the nystagmus is unidirectional and the head impulse test is impaired. Vestibular neuritis has similar symptoms to viral labyrinthitis but does not result in hearing loss.
Labyrinthitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the membranous labyrinth, which affects both the vestibular and cochlear end organs. This disorder can be caused by a viral, bacterial, or systemic disease, with viral labyrinthitis being the most common form. It is important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, as the latter only affects the vestibular nerve and does not result in hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, leading to vertigo and hearing loss.
The typical age range for presentation of labyrinthitis is between 40-70 years old. Patients usually experience an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo that is not triggered by movement but worsened by it, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss (which can be unilateral or bilateral), tinnitus, and preceding or concurrent upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Signs of labyrinthitis include spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, an abnormal head impulse test, and gait disturbance that may cause the patient to fall towards the affected side.
Diagnosis of labyrinthitis is primarily based on the patient’s history and physical examination. While episodes of labyrinthitis are typically self-limiting, medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Overall, it is important to accurately diagnose and manage labyrinthitis to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
What guidance would you provide to her?Your Answer: Only the triple test can be offered
Correct Answer: The combined test can still be offered
Explanation:Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling generally unwell. She reports experiencing hot flashes and sweating, as well as difficulty sleeping at night. Her husband has also noticed that she seems more agitated and on edge than usual. The patient has no significant medical history but reports having had flu-like symptoms six weeks ago that have since resolved. On examination, there is a tender goitre present. Thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of 0.5 mU/L (normal range 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 21 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-18). What is the first-line management for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conservative management with ibuprofen
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely cause of this patient’s hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by symptoms such as heat intolerance, insomnia, and agitation, as well as a normal TSH and high T4 level. The presence of a tender goitre and recent viral illness further support this diagnosis. Conservative management, including observation and NSAIDs for pain relief, is the most appropriate course of action as subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs such as carbimazole and propylthiouracil are not indicated for this condition, as they are used to treat chronic hyperthyroidism such as Grave’s disease. Radioactive iodine therapy is also not appropriate for subacute thyroiditis.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fungal keratitis
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer: Inflammatory breast cancer
Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)
Explanation:The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.
Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification
Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.
Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.
Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Maria is a 56-year-old Greek woman who has recently undergone an NHS health check and has contacted her GP for the results. The health check included a blood pressure check, routine blood test, and a urine dip. Her blood pressure is 125/78 mmHg, and her urine dip is negative. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 124 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
- Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 4.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 63 mL/min/1.73 m²
What is the correct stage of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) for this patient?Your Answer: 3a
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Diagnosing stages 1 and 2 of CKD should only be done if there is accompanying evidence to support the eGFR.
Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease: eGFR and Classification
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to filter waste products from the blood. Serum creatinine, a commonly used measure of kidney function, may not provide an accurate estimate due to differences in muscle mass. To address this, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation were developed to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account variables such as serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity.
It is important to note that certain factors may affect the accuracy of eGFR results, such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent consumption of red meat. CKD can be classified based on eGFR, with stage 1 indicating a GFR greater than 90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage on other tests. Stage 2 indicates a GFR of 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage, while stage 3a and 3b indicate a moderate reduction in kidney function with GFR ranges of 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively. Stage 4 indicates a severe reduction in kidney function with a GFR range of 15-29 ml/min, while stage 5 indicates established kidney failure with a GFR less than 15 ml/min, which may require dialysis or a kidney transplant. It is important to note that if all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a swelling on the left parietal region of the head. The swelling was not present immediately after birth and the baby is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the swelling does not cross suture lines and the fontanelles and sutures appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Explanation:A cephalohaematoma is a swelling caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, typically seen in the parietal region of newborns delivered with instruments. It usually appears 2-3 days after birth and does not cross suture lines, resolving over several weeks.
Caput succadeneum is a common condition in newborns immediately after birth, caused by generalised scalp oedema that crosses suture lines. It is associated with prolonged labour and resolves quickly within a few days.
Subaponeurotic haematoma is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where bleeding occurs outside the periosteum, causing a fluctuant scalp swelling that is not limited by suture lines.
Craniosynostosis is a rare condition where cranial sutures close prematurely, leading to skull deformities that may be evident at birth and associated with genetic syndromes. The shape of the skull depends on which sutures are involved, and other clinical features include early closure of the anterior fontanelle and a raised ridge along the fused suture.
A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He mentions being bitten by a tick during the trip. He explains that the rash is red, not itchy, and began at the site of the bite before spreading outward. The center of the rash has now cleared, resulting in a bulls-eye appearance. What is the name of this rash?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Erythema migrans
Explanation:Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.
In the later stages of Lyme disease, patients may experience cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis. Neurological symptoms may also occur, including cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Additionally, patients may develop polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur after a tick bite, as early treatment can prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Correct
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As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter a thirty-year-old patient complaining of right upper abdominal pain and anorexia. Upon examination, you find an overweight Caucasian female with a soft abdomen that is tender in the right upper quadrant. Her observations indicate fever and mild tachycardia. Blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin level (87 umol/L). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain is known as Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which indicates an infection of the bile ducts. This patient is likely suffering from ascending cholangitis. Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, can also cause right upper quadrant pain and may precede ascending cholangitis. While gallstones are a common cause of cholangitis, they can be asymptomatic and are not a diagnosis on their own. Pregnancy is not a likely cause of right upper quadrant pain. Gilbert’s syndrome typically causes mild jaundice only during times of stress and is usually asymptomatic.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
What would be your advice to the mother?Your Answer: She can go back to school once she gets a blood test to confirm that the virus has been cleared
Correct Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands
Explanation:If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine by her doctor for stage 2 hypertension. She is worried about the possible side-effects as she is already taking three other medications.
What is a common side-effect of amlodipine?Your Answer: Cough
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Headache is a frequent side-effect of calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine. Bradycardia, cough, and hyperhidrosis are not side-effects of calcium-channel blockers, but rather of beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium-channel blockers, respectively.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. Upon examination of the left eye, there are multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages with a swollen optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Occlusion of central retinal artery
Correct Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein
Explanation:Sudden painless vision loss and severe retinal hemorrhages observed on fundoscopy are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is brought to his general practitioner by his daughter because of haematuria. While taking the history, it becomes apparent that he has had blood in his urine for the past two months and it has gotten progressively worse. Now he also has left flank pain. He has lost 8 lb in the past month without trying. He denies dysuria, fever, nausea and chills. His family history is significant only for ‘diabetes’ in both parents. He has a 40-pack-year history, drinks an occasional glass of wine and denies any history of illicit drug use.
On examination, he is afebrile and his vital signs are stable. On deep palpation of his left upper quadrant, there is a firm, non-mobile mass.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prostate cancer with retroperitoneal metastases
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Haematuria, Flank Pain, and Palpable Mass
The patient in question presents with haematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass, which are indicative of renal cell carcinoma. This triad of symptoms is only seen in a small percentage of patients and is often referred to as the too late triad because it indicates a poor prognosis. Renal cell carcinoma arises from the epithelial lining of the proximal convoluted tubule and has a tendency to metastasize haematogenously.
Other potential diagnoses include chronic pyelonephritis with abscess formation, which is typically seen in patients with anatomical defects in the genitourinary tract. A partially obstructive renal calculus can also cause haematuria, but it is not associated with a palpable mass, and the history of insidious onset and unintentional weight loss are suggestive of malignancy.
Prostate cancer with retroperitoneal metastases is another potential diagnosis, but it does not typically cause haematuria. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is a possibility, given the patient’s smoking history and haematuria, but the flank pain and abdominal mass make renal cell carcinoma the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which factors affect water excretion in the kidneys?
Your Answer: Distal tubule
Correct Answer: Vasopressin
Explanation:The Renal Tubules: Functions and Regulation
The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance. This is achieved through the intricate workings of the renal tubules, which are responsible for filtering and reabsorbing various substances from the blood.
Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, regulates water excretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Its receptor, vasopressin 2, triggers the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels, allowing water to be reabsorbed down an osmotic gradient.
The distal convoluted tubule regulates pH by absorbing bicarbonate and secreting protons, as well as controlling sodium and potassium levels through aldosterone-mediated ion transport. It also participates in calcium regulation by reabsorbing it in response to parathyroid hormone.
The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs the majority of ions and water in the urinary space back into the body.
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water, but actively reabsorbs sodium, potassium, and chloride ions. This generates a positive electrochemical potential difference in the lumen, driving more paracellular reabsorption of sodium and other cations.
The collecting ducts continue the work of water reabsorption and electrolyte balance initiated in the collecting tubules. Progenitor cells within the collecting duct epithelium respond to tubular injury by proliferating and expanding the principal cell population to maintain epithelial integrity, or by committing to a myofibroblastic phenotype and forming peritubular collars in response to increased intraluminal pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has been administered low-molecular weight heparin for five days and has now been prescribed warfarin. The patient has a medical history of osteoporosis, breast cancer, type 2 diabetes, and depression. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.
It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting a Nexplanon implant. What adverse effect should she be informed about during counselling?
Your Answer: Increased risk of stroke
Correct Answer: Irregular menstrual bleeding
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman complains of experiencing multiple instances of sharp, shooting 'electric shock' like pain on the right side of her face over the last 8 months. These episodes usually occur while she is brushing her hair. What is the recommended treatment for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Typical symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia are present in this woman. The initial treatment recommended for this condition is carbamazepine, which should be initiated at a dosage of 100 mg twice daily and gradually increased until pain relief is achieved.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. Following angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention, his left anterior descending coronary artery is stented. The patient admits to avoiding doctors and not seeing his GP for more than two decades. He has been smoking 15 cigarettes daily since he was 18. What are the recommended medications for secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Aspirin + prasugrel + lisinopril + bisoprolol + atorvastatin
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A client is observed to have a missing biceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?
Your Answer: T7-T8
Correct Answer: C5-C6
Explanation:Understanding Common Reflexes
Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.
The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Explanation:Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management
Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.
Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.
Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.
Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.
In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
Which medication is the most probable cause of this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Medications and their potential to cause thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there is a low platelet count in the blood, which can lead to bleeding and bruising. Some medications have been known to cause immune-mediated, drug-induced thrombocytopenia. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is one such medication. It interacts with platelet membrane glycoprotein, resulting in the formation of drug-glycoprotein complexes that can trigger the production of antibodies. The mechanism behind this is not entirely clear. Paracetamol and bisoprolol have a low likelihood of causing thrombocytopenia, making them safer alternatives. Simvastatin also has a low risk of causing thrombocytopenia. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a potential side effect of bleeding but is not directly linked to causing thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with medications and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test
Explanation:The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient, 14 weeks pregnant, comes in for a routine scan and agrees to have her baby screened for chromosomal disorders using the 'combined test'. The scan and blood test are performed, and a few days later, she is informed that the results indicate a higher likelihood of her baby having Down's syndrome. She is asked to come to the hospital to discuss the results and what to do next.
What specific combination of results from the combined test would have indicated an increased risk of Down's syndrome for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thickened nuchal translucency, increased B-HCG, reduced PAPP-A
Explanation:To detect Down’s syndrome, doctors recommend the combined test which involves measuring the thickness of the nuchal translucency during the 12-week scan, as well as conducting blood tests for B-HCG and PAPP-A. This test can only be done between 11 and 13+6 weeks of pregnancy. If the nuchal translucency is thickened, B-HCG levels are high, and PAPP-A levels are low, there is an increased likelihood of Down’s syndrome. The other options listed are incorrect. If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she may be offered the triple or quadruple test between 15-20 weeks, which includes AFP as a marker for Down’s syndrome. Low levels of AFP indicate a higher risk of Down’s syndrome.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no postnatal issues. She is currently breastfeeding and has a history of frequent migraines. She is seeking treatment for a migraine today. Which of the following medications should be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking aspirin as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. High doses of aspirin can also affect platelet function and cause hypoprothrombinaemia in infants with low vitamin K stores. However, paracetamol is safe to use for pain relief during breastfeeding. Anti-emetics such as cyclizine and prochlorperazine are also safe to use while breastfeeding and are unlikely to cause any harm.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which had come on gradually over several months. The symptom was intermittent and seemed to get worse in the evening. She has also been on treatment for depression over the last two months. On examination, she has minimal weakness of shoulder abductors and slight weakness of eye closure bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are present and symmetrical throughout and plantar responses are flexor. You now have the results of the investigations: FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT - normal; chest radiograph and lung function tests - normal; ECG - normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. This results in muscular weakness that is characterized by fatigability, meaning that the muscles become increasingly weaker during their use. MG primarily affects the muscles of the face, the extrinsic ocular muscles (causing diplopia), and the muscles involved in deglutition. Respiratory and proximal lower limb muscles may also be involved early in the disease, which can cause breathlessness and even sudden death.
Diagnosing MG can be challenging, as weakness may not be apparent on a single examination. However, electrodiagnostic tests and detecting the autoantibodies can confirm the diagnosis. The Tensilon test, which involves injecting edrophonium chloride to reverse the symptoms of MG, is now used only when other tests are negative and clinical suspicion of MG is still high.
Treatment of MG involves anticholinesterase medications, but many patients also benefit from thymectomy. It is important to note that a thymoma may be present in up to 15% of patients with MG.
Other conditions, such as transient ischaemic attacks, angina, multiple sclerosis, and somatisation disorder, may cause weakness, but they do not typically present with the same symptoms as MG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider MG as a potential diagnosis when a patient presents with fatigable muscular weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Can you analyze the post-bronchodilator spirometry findings of a 54-year-old female who has been experiencing gradual breathlessness?
FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.60
FEV1 percentage predicted: 60%
What would be the suitable conclusion based on these outcomes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)
Explanation:Investigating and Diagnosing COPD
COPD is a condition that should be considered in patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. To confirm a diagnosis of COPD, several investigations are recommended. These include post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, a full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and a calculation of body mass index (BMI).
The severity of COPD is categorized based on the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio. If the ratio is less than 70%, the patient is diagnosed with COPD. The severity of the condition is then determined based on the FEV1 value. Stage 1 is considered mild, and symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients. Stage 2 is moderate, Stage 3 is severe, and Stage 4 is very severe.
It is important to note that measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. The grading system for COPD severity has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines. If the FEV1 is greater than 80% predicted but the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7, the patient is classified as Stage 1 – mild.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in both legs that started with leg pain a week ago. Upon examination, there is a decrease in patellar reflex bilaterally, and the patient has 3/5 strength throughout the neurological examination in the lower limbs bilaterally, but normal sensation. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. What is the most probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:The patient in this scenario is experiencing leg or back pain before the onset of weakness, which is a common symptom of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The ascending weakness of the legs, along with reduced reflexes and normal sensation, is a typical presentation of this disease.
Escherichia coli is a frequent cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and gastroenteritis, but it is not associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Coxsackievirus is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults, but it is not linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Herpes simplex virus causes genital and labial sores, but it does not play a role in the development of this disease.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.
Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old baby boy is experiencing cyanosis during feeding and crying, leading to suspicion of congenital heart disease. What could be the probable reason?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:When it comes to congenital heart disease, TGA and Fallot’s are the most common causes of cyanotic heart disease. However, TGA is more commonly seen in newborns, while Fallot’s typically presents a few months after a murmur is detected. VSD is the most common cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has recently undergone a partial abdominal hysterectomy and unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and is discussing hormone replacement therapy.
Which of the following pieces of advice may she be offered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The benefits of oestrogen therapy are maintained only so long as treatment is continued for the next 5-10 years at least
Explanation:Oestrogen therapy must be continued for at least 5-10 years to maintain its benefits, including a decreased risk of fragility fractures. Starting oestrogen therapy immediately can prevent osteoporotic fractures in old age. Bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for bone-sparing. HRT should not be prescribed solely for preventing osteoporosis, but a combination of oestrogen and progesterone should be used in women with a uterus. Patients who have a salpingo-oophorectomy should be monitored for hormone-related conditions. SSRIs, SNRIs, and clonidine should not be the first-line treatment for vasomotor symptoms alone. Vaginal oestrogen can be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, even if they are on systemic HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the paediatrician for evaluation of recurrent sinus infections, tonsillitis and urinary tract infections. Laboratory analysis of his blood revealed severe lymphopenia, and his lymphocytes did not respond to mitogens. His levels of serum antibodies were abnormally diminished, as were B-cell and T-cell functions.
What was the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
Explanation:Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a condition that affects both B- and T-cell immunity, making patients more susceptible to viral, bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal infections. It typically presents at a young age due to the severity of the immunodeficiency. SCID has two major forms: an X-linked recessive mutation in the γ-chain subunit of a cytokine receptor, which is more common in males, and an autosomal recessive mutation in the genes that encode the enzyme adenosine deaminase, which leads to toxic accumulation of nucleotides in differentiating lymphocytes, especially those in the T-cell lineage. Based on the patient’s female gender, young age at presentation, history of infections, and diminished B and T cells with low serum immunoglobulins, autosomal recessive SCID is the most likely diagnosis. Other conditions such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), di George syndrome (dGS), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) have different pathogenic mechanisms and are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is admitted to the Medical Admissions Unit with symptoms of neck stiffness, photophobia, and fever. No rash is present, and her GCS is 15. Upon lumbar puncture, her CSF shows increased opening pressure and turbidity, with a raised white cell count and low glucose. Ceftriaxone is initiated, but what additional treatment is necessary to enhance outcomes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:The patient’s presentation and CSF results strongly suggest bacterial meningitis, for which appropriate antibiotic therapy has been initiated. To improve neurological outcomes and reduce the risk of sequelae such as deafness, dexamethasone is the recommended additional treatment. However, it should be noted that dexamethasone is contraindicated in cases of septic shock or meningococcal septicaemia. Antivirals such as aciclovir are not indicated in bacterial meningitis, while fluconazole, an anti-fungal, is also not appropriate. Prednisolone has no role in the treatment of meningitis.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have just received a message from their son who is currently backpacking in Vietnam. He was bitten by a dog earlier in the day while staying in a rural community. Before embarking on his journey, he received a rabies vaccination as he planned to visit many rural areas. What advice should you give?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should urgently seek local medical attention for consideration of booster vaccination + antibiotic therapy
Explanation:If left untreated, rabies is almost always fatal. Although it may be difficult to recall all the countries with a high incidence of rabies, it is evident that being bitten by a dog in a rural area poses a risk. It is imperative that he seeks immediate medical attention as a booster vaccination is necessary to reduce the likelihood of contracting rabies. Delaying treatment by flying home is not advisable.
Understanding Rabies: A Deadly Viral Disease
Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis. It is caused by a bullet-shaped capsid RNA rhabdovirus, specifically a lyssavirus. The disease is primarily transmitted through dog bites, but it can also be transmitted through bites from bats, raccoons, and skunks. Once the virus enters the body, it travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion.
Rabies is a deadly disease that still kills around 25,000-50,000 people worldwide each year, with the majority of cases occurring in poor rural areas of Africa and Asia. Children are particularly at risk. The disease has several features, including a prodrome of headache, fever, and agitation, as well as hydrophobia, which causes water-provoking muscle spasms, and hypersalivation. Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons, are also a characteristic feature of the disease.
In developed countries like the UK, there is considered to be no risk of developing rabies following an animal bite. However, in at-risk countries, it is important to take immediate action following an animal bite. The wound should be washed, and if an individual is already immunized, then two further doses of vaccine should be given. If not previously immunized, then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If left untreated, the disease is nearly always fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in her upper legs, which is present after walking for more than 5 minutes. She used to enjoy walking regularly, but now finds it difficult to participate. However, she is still able to drive to her part-time job as a receptionist. She has a history of hypertension and was recently started on medication. She quit smoking 3 years ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg. Her pulse is 64 and regular. Her peripheral pulses are palpable, but the capillary return in her toes is slow. Neurological examination of her arms and legs is normal, except for diminished ankle jerks and reduced vibration sense distally.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Progressive Exertional Leg Pain: A Review of Possible Conditions
Progressive exertional leg pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions. In this article, we will review some of the possible differential diagnoses for this symptom.
Lumbar Canal Stenosis
Lumbar canal stenosis is a degenerative condition associated with the ageing spine, resulting in narrowing of the central spinal canal, lateral recess or neural foramina. It is usually due to progressive hypertrophy of the facet joints and disc degeneration. It is a syndrome of buttock or leg pain, with or without back pain, associated with a narrow space available for the neural and vascular elements in the lumbar spine.Metabolic Muscle Disease
This is a diverse group of hereditary muscle disorders caused by specific enzymatic defects due to defective genes. Disorders of muscle energy metabolism result in skeletal muscle dysfunction. Most metabolic myopathies are considered primary inborn errors of metabolism and are associated with enzymatic defects that affect the ability of muscle fibres to maintain energy and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) concentrations. These include abnormalities of glycogen, lipid, purine or mitochondrial biochemistry.Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease
Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD) commonly presents with tremor, stiffness, slowness and balance/gait issues. In addition, PD classically displays a unilateral onset. This patient has no resting symptoms suggestive of IPD.Hypothyroid Muscle Disease
Hypothyroidism is associated with proximal myopathy. There is commonly proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase (CK). Patients may suffer muscle cramping, proximal symmetrical muscle weakness, muscle stiffness and exercise intolerance. Reduced reflexes/ankle reflexes are commonly seen.Abdominal Aortic Stenosis
This refers to narrowing of the aorta during its course in the abdomen. This would produce bilateral vascular claudication symptoms, due to reduced blood flow distal to the stenosis. The progressive exertional leg pain described here could be in keeping with vascular claudication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.
Treatment for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.
According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.
The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.
In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Severe scoliosis
Explanation:Different Types of Lung Diseases and their Spirometry Patterns
Scoliosis and Lung Function
Severe scoliosis can affect the respiratory muscles and the natural movements of the thoracic cage, leading to a restrictive pattern in pulmonary function tests. This can prevent the lungs from expanding correctly, compromising their function.Cystic Fibrosis and Lung Function
In early stage cystic fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and thick secretions in the airways can cause an obstructive pattern in spirometry tests. As damage to the lung tissue occurs, a restrictive component can also develop, resulting in a combined obstructive and restrictive pattern.Emphysema and Lung Function
Emphysema is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by abnormal and irreversible enlargement of air spaces and alveolar wall destruction. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.Asthma and Lung Function
Asthma is an inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes hyperresponsiveness and constriction of the airways in response to various stimuli. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.Bronchiectasis and Lung Function
Bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal and irreversible dilatation of the bronchial walls, leading to accumulation of secretions and recurrent inflammation of the airways. This produces an obstructive pattern in pulmonary function tests.In summary, different types of lung diseases can affect lung function in various ways, leading to different spirometry patterns. Understanding these patterns can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A concerned father brings his 20-month-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. He is worried that she has not yet started combining two words and is only able to say single words. The father reports no other developmental concerns and there is no significant family history.
What would be the first step in managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that this is part of normal development
Explanation:By the age of 2, children should have the ability to combine two words, indicating normal development. Therefore, there is no need to seek consultation with a paediatric specialist or schedule a follow-up appointment in the near future.
Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.
Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard release isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A young patient presents with a painful red eye.
Which of the following findings is more suggestive of acute conjunctivitis than anterior uveitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Profuse discharge
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Acutely Painful Red Eye
A red eye can be a sign of various eye conditions, including conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, scleritis, and more. One of the most common symptoms of conjunctivitis is profuse discharge, which can cause the eyelids to stick together on waking. On the other hand, anterior uveitis can cause blurred vision, small pupil, and photophobia. Scleritis, an inflammatory disease that affects the sclera, can cause severe pain that worsens with eye movement and may radiate to the forehead or jaw. It’s essential to seek medical attention promptly if you experience any of these symptoms, as they can indicate a serious underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.
What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin
Explanation:Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper abdominal discomfort and distension. She has been taking aspirin regularly for the past 8 weeks due to a chronic back pain. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori and was negative so the aspirin has been discontinued. A gastroscopy is performed which reveals the presence of gastritis and a benign duodenal ulcer that is not actively bleeding.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start intravenous proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastric Ulcers
Gastric ulcers can be caused by long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can lead to severe symptoms requiring hospitalization. Treatment options for gastric ulcers include intravenous proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) followed by long-term oral PPIs. A repeat gastroscopy is usually carried out to ensure that the ulcer has healed. In cases where the ulcer has perforated or is malignant, a partial gastrectomy may be indicated. Retesting for H. pylori may be necessary if the patient had previously tested positive. Adrenalin injection is only indicated for bleeding gastric ulcers. Placing the patient nil by mouth is not necessary for healing the ulcer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive in his home. His medical records show that he had recently been prescribed doxycycline for an unknown reason. Upon assessment, he is breathing rapidly with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min and has bibasal crackles. His heart rate is 96 beats/min and his blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. His blood glucose is 4.1mmol/L, his temperature 38.9ºC and his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 9 (E3M4V2). He is given a fluid bolus and an arterial blood gas (ABG) on 4L/min of oxygen is taken, revealing an abnormal pH. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal pH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Acidosis and Anion Gap
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid or when the kidneys are not able to remove enough acid from the body. It is commonly classified according to the anion gap, which can be calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate levels from the sum of sodium and potassium levels. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question supplies the chloride level, it may be a clue that the anion gap should be calculated.
There are two types of metabolic acidosis based on anion gap levels. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Metabolic acidosis secondary to high lactate levels may be subdivided into two types: lactic acidosis type A and lactic acidosis type B. Lactic acidosis type A is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, while lactic acidosis type B is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types of metabolic acidosis and anion gap levels can help in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient complains of a painful bump on their eyelid. The lump has been there for about four days and is gradually getting bigger.
During the examination, a tender, smooth lump is observed, measuring roughly 2 mm in size, emerging from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. The eye is not inflamed, and there is no periorbital or orbital redness, and the patient's visual acuity is normal.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia
Explanation:Management of Stye or Hordeolum
A stye or hordeolum is an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid caused by inflammation in an eyelash follicle. It usually presents unilaterally and can take a few days to develop. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can cause watery eyes. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. However, if symptoms do not improve, referral to Eye Casualty for incision and drainage may be necessary. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis, and systemic antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Therefore, simple analgesia and warm compresses are the recommended management for a stye or hordeolum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with a facial droop. Upon examination, he displays a crooked smile that droops on the left side. He is unable to close his left eye or wrinkle the left side of his forehead. There are no signs of weakness or sensory changes in his upper or lower limbs. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion
Explanation:Bell’s palsy affects the lower motor neurons and results in weakness of the entire side of the face. A left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. However, lateral medullary syndrome, caused by ischemia to the lateral medulla oblongata, would present with vertigo, dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, nausea and vomiting, and dysphagia. A left cranial nerve VII upper motor neuron lesion would result in right-sided facial weakness with forehead sparing, while a right cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause right-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent negative outcome encountered by females who consume the progestin-only pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Pros and Cons of the Progestogen Only Pill
The progestogen only pill, also known as the mini-pill, is a highly effective form of contraception with a failure rate of only 1 per 100 woman years. One of its advantages is that it does not interfere with sex and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. It can also be used while breastfeeding and in situations where the combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated, such as in smokers over 35 years of age and women with a history of venous thromboembolic disease.
However, the progestogen only pill also has its disadvantages. One of the most common adverse effects is irregular periods, with some users not having periods while others may experience irregular or light periods. It also does not protect against sexually transmitted infections and has an increased incidence of functional ovarian cysts. Common side-effects include breast tenderness, weight gain, acne, and headaches, although these symptoms generally subside after the first few months. Despite its drawbacks, the progestogen only pill remains a popular choice for women seeking a reliable and convenient form of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 73
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in patients of all ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:The symptoms of keratoconjunctivitis sicca include a sensation of dryness, burning, and grittiness in the eyes, which is caused by a reduction in the production of tears.
Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of urinary hesitancy, urgency and terminal dribbling that have been bothering him for the past 4 months. During a digital rectal examination, the doctor finds an enlarged, soft prostate with a smooth surface that is not tender. The patient's PSA reading is within the normal range. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α-blocker
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH)
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a condition characterized by the proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate, which can lead to chronic bladder outlet obstruction and a range of urinary symptoms. Treatment options for BPH depend on the severity of the symptoms and the size of the prostate.
The first-line drug of choice for men with moderate-to-severe lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTSs) is an α-blocker, such as alfuzosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin or terazosin. For men with larger prostates or higher prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, 5α-reductase inhibitors (e.g. finasteride) may also be offered. However, it is important to note that it may take up to 6 months for the patient to see an effect from this medication.
If storage symptoms persist after treatment with an α-blocker alone, anticholinergics such as oxybutynin may be added to the treatment plan. Surgery should only be considered for men with severe voiding symptoms that have not responded to drug therapy. First-line surgical options include transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), monopolar transurethral vaporisation of the prostate (TUVP), or holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP). Open prostatectomy should be reserved for men with very large prostates.
It is important to seek medical attention if conservative management options have failed or are not appropriate, as untreated BPH can lead to serious complications such as urinary retention, renal insufficiency, recurrent urinary tract infections, gross haematuria, and bladder calculi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80 – 120 bpm
Explanation:Normal Heart Rate Range for Children
The normal heart rate for a 6-year-old child would be between 80-120 beats per minute (bpm). It’s important to note that the normal heart rate range varies depending on the child’s age. For instance, a heart rate of 110-160 bpm would be normal for a child aged less than 1 year, while a heart rate of 60-100 bpm would be normal for a child aged over 12 years. For children aged between 1 and 2 years, a heart rate of 100-150 bpm is considered normal, while for those aged between 2 and 5 years, a heart rate of 95-140 bpm is normal. For children aged between 5 and 12 years, a heart rate of 80-120 bpm is normal. Knowing the normal heart rate range for children is essential in monitoring their health and detecting any abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.
What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive behavior that has not improved with non-pharmacological interventions. What potential adverse effects do antipsychotics increase the likelihood of in older patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man, David, visits you after his 72-year-old father passed away due to a heart attack. David has a history of asthma, which he occasionally manages with his salbutamol inhaler, and was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at the age of 20. His diabetes is well-controlled, and his last cholesterol test, conducted three months ago, was within the normal range. David has been reading about the connection between cholesterol and heart attacks in the news and is curious if he should take medication to lower his cholesterol levels.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin 20mg today
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established risk factors should be prescribed atorvastatin 20mg if they are over 40 years old, have had diabetes for more than 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other risk factors such as obesity and hypertension. As this patient has had type 1 diabetes for over 10 years, they should be offered statins.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in the hearing from her right ear. On further questioning, she reports that occasionally she hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but denies any episodes of dizziness or vomiting. Otoscopy of her right ear only reveals a reddish tympanic membrane. Rinne’s test is negative on the right, Weber’s test lateralises to the right. Which of the following describes the best management option for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hearing aid
Explanation:The best option for managing the patient’s unilateral conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and pinkish tympanic membrane is either a hearing aid or stapedectomy. The tuning fork tests indicate left-sided conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis. This condition is characterized by the replacement of normal bone with vascular spongy bone, leading to progressive conductive hearing loss due to stapes fixation at the oval window. Amoxicillin, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, ear syringing, and prochlorperazine are not effective treatments for otosclerosis. Amoxicillin is used to manage acute otitis media, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises are used to prevent acute attacks in Ménière’s disease, ear syringing is used to remove impacted ear wax, and prochlorperazine is used to decrease dizziness in viral labyrinthitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group
Explanation:Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse
For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:
1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.
2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.
3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.
4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.
5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.
By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness for the past four weeks, lasting about 1 hour each time. He has also noticed a ‘fullness sensation and ringing’ in his right ear.
Select the SINGLE most probable diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Common Causes of Vertigo: Ménière’s Disease, BPPV, Acoustic Neuroma, Vestibular Neuritis, and Cholesteatoma
Vertigo is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is induced by specific movements and is accompanied by nausea, light-headedness, and imbalance. Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, presents with progressive ipsilateral tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, facial numbness, and giddiness. Vestibular neuritis, which follows a febrile illness, is characterized by sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration, while cholesteatoma tends to be asymptomatic in the early stages and is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Management of vertigo includes self-care advice, medication, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the condition and exclude sinister causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor for a check-up 3 weeks after commencing mirtazapine (15 mg once daily) for depression. He mentions that his mood, appetite and sleep are starting to improve. Nevertheless, he is struggling with heightened daytime drowsiness since initiating the mirtazapine and finds it challenging. He does not report any other adverse effects.
What alteration to his medication would be the most suitable?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose of mirtazapine
Explanation:The best course of action to reduce sedation in a patient taking mirtazapine at a low dose (e.g. 15mg) is to increase the dose (e.g. to 45mg). Adding an SSRI or advising the patient to take mirtazapine on alternate days would not be ideal options. Halving the dose of mirtazapine may even worsen daytime somnolence. Stopping mirtazapine and switching to another medication is not recommended if the patient has responded well to mirtazapine.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease is being evaluated in clinic and it has been determined that cabergoline is the appropriate medication to initiate. What is the most significant adverse effect that is commonly linked to this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.
For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.
If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.
Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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You are assessing an 80-year-old man who has a medical history of hypothyroidism, Parkinson's disease, and depression. His conditions are well-managed with levothyroxine, co-careldopa, and citalopram. He reports experiencing symptoms indicative of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What medication should be avoided to manage his symptoms effectively?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Patients with Parkinsonism should not take metoclopramide due to its dopamine antagonist properties, which can exacerbate their symptoms.
Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.
However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.
Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a 22-year-old female who is not expecting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is the recommended treatment for chlamydia.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination series and wants to verify her immunity status. What is the best test to confirm her status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg; anti-HBs)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding Their Significance
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers used to diagnose and monitor the disease, including antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg), anti-hepatitis B envelope antibody (anti-HBe), hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc).
Anti-HBs is produced after a resolved infection or effective vaccination and is the only HBV antibody marker present after vaccination. High-risk individuals should have their anti-HBs level checked after completing their primary course of vaccination.
HBeAg is a marker of infectivity and can serve as a marker of active replication in chronic hepatitis. It is not present following vaccination. Anti-HBe is a predictor of long-term clearance of HBV in patients undergoing antiviral therapy and indicates lower levels of HBV and, therefore, lower infectivity. Both HBeAg and anti-HBe remain negative following vaccination.
HBV DNA is used to quantify viral load in a patient with proven acute or chronic hepatitis B infection. A positive result suggests not only the likelihood of active hepatitis but also that the disease is much more infectious as the virus is actively replicating. HBV DNA remains negative following vaccination.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc is diagnostic of an acute or recently acquired infection. It remains negative following vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with one-sided visual loss. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. Fundoscopy reveals a 'cherry-red spot' with a red centre of the macula and a pale surrounding of the retina.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send patient to the Eye Hospital for immediate review by an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Central Retinal-Artery Occlusion: An Ocular Emergency
Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO) is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. It is diagnosed through a dilated eye examination that reveals a cherry-red spot in the center of the macula, surrounded by pale retina due to lack of blood flow. Other signs include segmentation of the blood column in the arteries and cattle-trucking.
CRAO is an ocular emergency because the retinal damage becomes irreversible with time, and urgent management is necessary to protect the other eye and the cardiovascular and cerebrovascular systems. The primary goal of management is to re-perfuse ischaemic tissue as quickly as possible and to institute secondary prevention early.
If giant-cell arteritis is suspected, immediate treatment is necessary, including intravenous steroids followed by oral steroids.
Referral under the 2-week-wait rule is necessary when there is a suspicion of cancer, but no signs of a tumor from history or fundoscopy findings.
It is crucial to refer the patient for urgent brain imaging and immediate review by an eye specialist. Starting the patient on topical antibiotics and anti-inflammatories would be inappropriate since there are no signs of an infection process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind her breastbone. The pain is not spreading to any other part of her body, and she denies feeling sweaty or experiencing nausea and vomiting. She reports that the pain worsens at night when she lies flat in bed and improves slightly when she sits up. She reveals that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for it. During auscultation, you hear scratchy, rubbing sounds that are most audible during systole. You decide to order an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings are you most likely to observe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saddle-shaped ST elevation
Explanation:The vignette describes classic symptoms of pericarditis, including a sharp central chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, but worsened by lying flat or taking deep breaths. The patient’s past medical history of systemic lupus also increases the likelihood of pericarditis. On auscultation, scratchy, rubbing S1 and S2 sounds can be heard. The most likely ECG finding in this case is saddle shaped ST elevation, which is a hallmark of pericarditis. Other potential causes of ST elevation include STEMI and left bundle branch block, but these can be ruled out based on the symptoms and examination findings. Narrow peaking T waves are often seen in hyperkalaemia, but this is not the most likely ECG finding in this case.
Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by her friends after a night out. Her friends report that she took an unknown substance while clubbing. What symptom would be most indicative of ecstasy use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC
Explanation:Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.
When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be used to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. With proper management, individuals can recover from ecstasy poisoning and avoid long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 92
Incorrect
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As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nose bleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30. A full blood count reveals Hb of 11.7 g/dl, platelets of 62 * 109/l, and WCC of 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work
Explanation:The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern of experiencing bleeding following sexual intercourse. What is the most frequently identifiable reason for postcoital bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical ectropion
Explanation:Postcoital bleeding is most commonly caused by cervical ectropion.
Understanding Postcoital Bleeding
Postcoital bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after sexual intercourse. In approximately 50% of cases, no identifiable pathology is found. However, cervical ectropion is the most common identifiable cause, accounting for around 33% of cases. This condition is more prevalent in women who are taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other potential causes of postcoital bleeding include cervicitis, which may be due to Chlamydia infection, cervical cancer, polyps, and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show the following results:
- Sodium: 145 mmol/L
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
- Bicarbonate: 33 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.6 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 80 µmol/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse. He is experiencing significant swelling of his tongue and lips, rendering him unable to speak. His wife reports that his symptoms have worsened during their wait, and she is unsure of the cause as he has no known allergies. However, she does mention that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his primary care physician.
Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Although it is possible for the man to have been prescribed any of the medications listed, it is evident that he is experiencing angioedema, as indicated by the swelling of his tongue and lips. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is the medication most commonly associated with this side effect. Even if the patient has no history of allergies or negative reactions to ACE inhibitors, angioedema can still occur. While the likelihood of this happening is low, it is important to keep in mind due to the large number of patients taking this type of medication and the potential complications associated with angioedema.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 101
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 10-month-old infant with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Despite being clinically stable, the mother inquires about the child's development towards the end of the consultation. The infant is observed to point and babble 'mama' and 'dada', but has not yet developed any other words. She appears to be timid and cries when being examined. The infant has an early pincer grip and can roll from front to back, but is unable to sit without support. How would you evaluate her developmental progress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isolated delay in gross motor skills
Explanation:A delay in gross motor skills is likely as most babies are able to sit without support by 7-8 months, but the other developmental features are normal for her age. If the delay persists at 12 months, referral to a paediatrician should be considered.
Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a 4-day history of a feeling of rectal fullness, tenesmus, diarrhoea with small, frequent stools and mucus, and rectal bleeding. He denies systemic symptoms. He is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable. The GP thinks a diagnosis of inflammatory exacerbation of proctitis is likely and contacts the local Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBM) specialist nurse for advice.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Per-rectal administration of aminosalicylate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Proctitis: Aminosalicylates, Topical Corticosteroids, and More
Proctitis, an inflammation of the rectal mucosa, can be caused by various factors such as radiation, infections, autoimmune diseases, and trauma. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, pain, and diarrhea. To manage proctitis, aminosalicylates in the form of enemas or suppositories are often used as first-line therapy to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are less effective but can be used in patients who cannot tolerate aminosalicylates. Oral prednisolone is a second-line therapy for ulcerative colitis. Ibuprofen is not recommended, and codeine phosphate and loperamide may aggravate symptoms. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of proctitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of right-sided abdominal discomfort during sexual intercourse, specifically during deep penetration, which has been ongoing for a month. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is scheduled, and it reveals a 5cm ovarian cyst filled with fluid and having regular borders. What type of ovarian cyst is most probable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Follicular cyst
Explanation:The most frequent type of ovarian cyst is the follicular cyst, which is often a physiological cyst in young women. A simple cyst in a young woman is likely to be a follicular cyst. The endometrioma is typically filled with old blood, earning it the nickname chocolate cyst. The dermoid cyst contains dermoid tissue, while the corpus luteum cyst is also a physiological cyst but is less common than follicular cysts.
Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts
Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.
Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.
Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a red left eye. She experiences a gritty sensation and feels the need to blink frequently to clear her vision. There is no pain or photophobia, and her pupil size is normal. She reports a significant amount of discharge from the affected eye and recently had a cold. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjunctivitis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is a common condition that can be identified by symptoms such as redness in the eye, a gritty sensation, swollen conjunctivae, and discharge that crusts the eyelashes. However, if a patient presents with severe eye pain, photophobia, a small or abnormal shaped pupil, or blurred vision, it may indicate iritis and require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Similarly, acute glaucoma can cause severe eye pain, halos, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting, while keratitis can cause a painful, red eye with tearing, discharge, and decreased vision, particularly in contact lens wearers.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is identified to have a notifiable disease. The nurses suggest that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control (CCDC).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis (recognised as a notifiable disease)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Notifiable Diseases in England
In England, Public Health England is responsible for detecting possible outbreaks of disease and epidemics as quickly as possible. The accuracy of diagnosis is not the primary concern, and since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is all that is required. Malaria, caused by various species of Plasmodium, is a notifiable disease. However, Mycoplasma pneumonia, HIV, necrotising fasciitis, and acute rheumatic fever are not notifiable diseases in England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 5.9
2 8.2
What is the interpretation of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing daily headaches for the past week. She is usually healthy but drinks three cups of coffee a day. She describes sudden onset of severe, unilateral periorbital pain and tearing of the eye. The attacks last around 30 minutes and have all occurred in the late afternoon.
What is the most suitable treatment to be administered to this patient during an acute episode of headache?
Select the MOST appropriate treatment from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal sumatriptan
Explanation:Treatment options for Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. The pain can last for a few minutes up to three hours and occurs every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period. Here are some treatment options for cluster headaches:
Intranasal Sumatriptan: People over the age of 18 with acute bouts of confirmed cluster headache may be given a subcutaneous or nasal triptan for acute attacks.
Verapamil: Verapamil may be prescribed as a preventative treatment for cluster headaches but is not used during an acute attack. It is usually only prescribed following a discussion with a neurologist or a GP with a special interest in headaches.
Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, which presents with sudden attacks of severe, shooting unilateral facial pain that feels like an ‘electric shock’. However, for cluster headaches, it is not the first-line treatment.
Codeine: Patients with cluster headaches should not be offered paracetamol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or opioids as acute treatment, as they are too slow to take effect.
Short-burst oxygen therapy (home oxygen): Short-burst oxygen therapy (12–15 l/min via a non-rebreathe mask) can be prescribed to reduce the length of an attack, unless it is contraindicated. However, home oxygen is contraindicated for smokers due to the risk of fire.
In conclusion, cluster headaches can be debilitating, but there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of severe right upper quadrant pain preceded by a 2-month history of intermittent ache in the right upper quadrant. His basic observations include heart rate 115 beats/minute, respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute, blood pressure 90/55 mmHg, temperature 38.9°C, oxygen saturation 93% on air. His past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
WCC 14 x 109cells/L
Bilirubin 80 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 377 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase 70 U/L
Amylase 300 U/L
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The three main symptoms of Charcot’s cholangitis are fever, jaundice, and pain in the upper right quadrant. This type of cholangitis is known for causing these three symptoms, which are collectively referred to as Charcot’s triad. When there is inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract, amylase levels may be slightly elevated. While cholecystitis can lead to jaundice, it is usually not severe. On the other hand, pancreatitis typically does not cause jaundice, and amylase levels are typically much higher.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department with facial swelling. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. Which type of adrenaline should be administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM
Explanation:Please find below the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS) in different scenarios:
– Anaphylaxis: 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline should be administered intramuscularly.
– Cardiac arrest: For intravenous administration, 1mg or 10ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline or 1ml of 1:1000 adrenaline is recommended.Understanding Adrenaline and Its Indications
Adrenaline is a type of sympathomimetic amine that has both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulating properties. It is commonly used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. For anaphylaxis, the recommended adult life support adrenaline dose is 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV.
Adrenaline is responsible for the fight or flight response and is released by the adrenal glands. It acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and causes vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, resulting in a narrow pulse pressure. It also increases cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, while causing vasodilation in skeletal muscle vessels.
When adrenaline acts on α adrenergic receptors, it inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle. On the other hand, when it acts on β adrenergic receptors, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, stimulates ACTH, and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue.
In case of accidental injection, the management involves local infiltration of phentolamine. Understanding the indications and actions of adrenaline is crucial in emergency situations, and proper administration can help save lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female comes to the surgery complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 weeks. Upon inspection of the perineum and rectal examination, there are no notable findings. However, proctoscopy reveals haemorrhoidal cushions located at the left lateral and right anterior position. What is the crucial aspect of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibre supplementation
Explanation:In certain studies, it has been demonstrated that fibre supplementation is equally effective to injection sclerotherapy.
Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is referred for an evaluation of dysphagia. On examination, she has bilateral ptosis, facial weakness and atrophy of the temporalis. She says that she has difficulties relaxing her grip, especially in cold weather, and that her father had similar problems.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonia dystrophica
Explanation:Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes muscle stiffness and wasting. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and typically presents between the ages of 15 and 40. The disease progresses slowly and can lead to cataracts, hypogonadism, frontal balding, and cardiac issues. Patients may experience weakness, wasting, and myotonia in affected muscles, particularly in the face and limbs. Other symptoms include hollowing of the cheeks, swan neck appearance, and difficulty releasing a handshake. This patient’s presentation is consistent with myotonic dystrophy and likely inherited from her father.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes weakness, particularly in the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Fatigue is a hallmark symptom, and dysphagia may occur in advanced cases. Temporalis atrophy is not a feature.
Motor neurone disease is a rare condition that typically presents with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs in the same limb. Symptoms may include weakness, wasting, cramps, stiffness, and problems with speech and swallowing. Dysphagia and speech problems become more common as the disease progresses. MND is unlikely in a woman of this age, and there is typically no familial link.
Multiple sclerosis is a more common condition in women that typically presents with transient episodes of optic neuritis or limb weakness/paraesthesiae. Only a small percentage of sufferers have a family history of MS.
Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes proximal muscle weakness and tenderness. Atrophy is a late feature, and patients may have difficulty rising from chairs. Dysphagia may occur in advanced cases, but ptosis and temporalis wasting are not features. Polymyositis is not typically inherited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months ago that his wife is having an affair. He seems upset and reports feeling fatigued and experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Depressive Symptoms
Depression is a common mental health condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. In this vignette, the patient shows signs of anhedonia, change in appetite, early morning awakening, psychomotor retardation, decreased sexual drive, poor concentration, ideas of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death and suicide. To diagnose and classify depression, various assessment tools are available, such as the PHQ-9, Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale, and Beck Depression Inventory.
Other possible diagnoses that need to be ruled out include acute alcohol withdrawal, acute psychosis, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Acute alcohol withdrawal typically manifests with psychomotor agitation, anxiety, tremor, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability. Delirium tremens is a severe complication of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Acute psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorder. Hypomania is a milder form of mania that features elated mood, pressure of speech, increased energy, activity, appetite, sexual desire, and pain threshold, but does not cause significant impairment. Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental disorder that involves a range of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and mental status is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Collaborating with a mental health specialist may also be beneficial in managing complex cases of depression or other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his urine for the past day. He reports no pain while urinating or abdominal pain. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He had a mild cold four days ago. Upon analysis, his urine shows positive for blood and trace amounts of protein, but negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:The classic presentation of IgA nephropathy is visible haematuria that occurs after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. This patient’s new-onset haematuria following a recent URTI is consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy, which is the most common cause of haematuria worldwide. IgA nephropathy typically presents acutely in young males, in contrast to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which presents after 2 weeks from an upper or lower respiratory tract infection. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and minimal change disease are unlikely diagnoses as they present with proteinuria rather than haematuria. While post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, it differs from this patient’s presentation as it typically presents with haematuria after 2 weeks following an acute infection.
Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria with no or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.
Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.
Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe labetalol
Explanation:Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids
COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.
Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.
It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:To diagnose diabetes mellitus, fasting blood glucose levels should be above 7.0 or random blood glucose levels should be above 11.1. If the patient is asymptomatic, two readings are required for confirmation.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 119
Incorrect
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What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if they ask what is the recommended amount of alcohol they can consume?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
Explanation:Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman attends her booking appointment with the community midwife. She is at 14 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy. She has no underlying medical conditions.
Which of the following haemodynamic changes is most likely to present in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 10 mmHg drop in diastolic blood pressure (BP) during the second trimester
Explanation:Physiological Changes in Cardiovascular System During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, the cardiovascular system undergoes significant changes to accommodate the growing fetus. These changes include a drop in diastolic blood pressure by 10 mmHg during the second trimester, circulating blood volume increases by approximately 50%, leading to a dilutional ‘physiological anaemia’ and cardiac output increases most sharply throughout the first trimester.
During pregnancy, heart rate progressively increases until reaching a peak in the third trimester. The overall change in heart rate represents approximately a 20–25% increase from baseline. However, a grade 2/6 diastolic murmur at the mitral area and pulsus alternans are not typical findings in a healthy pregnancy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these physiological changes to properly monitor and manage the health of pregnant individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant has been found to have a urinary tract infection through routine dipstick testing. The cause is identified as group B streptococcus and treated with a brief course of oral antibiotics. What is the appropriate management plan for delivering her baby in a few weeks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrapartum antibiotics
Explanation:GBS bacteriuria is linked to an increased risk of chorioamnionitis and neonatal sepsis, therefore, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends that women with GBS bacteriuria should receive intrapartum antibiotics along with appropriate treatment upon diagnosis. In cases where the patient is not allergic to penicillin, intravenous benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible after the onset of labor and then every 4 hours until delivery. Postnatal antibiotic treatment is not necessary unless there are indications of neonatal infection. Caesarean section is not recommended. [RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 36]
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 122
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful lesion on his ear that has been bothering him for a year. The lesion has remained the same for several months but is causing him significant discomfort when he lies down. He reports no other symptoms.
Upon examination, the doctor observes a well-defined, 10mm, flesh-colored nodule on the superior helix of the ear. The nodule is firm, very tender to touch, and covered with some scales.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis
Explanation:Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a painful, non-cancerous nodule that commonly occurs on the ear, particularly in men. Based on the patient’s level of pain and the stable nature of the lesion, this is the most likely diagnosis. While squamous cell carcinoma is a possible differential, it typically progresses more rapidly than this lesion. Similarly, basal cell carcinoma usually develops gradually and is not typically associated with significant pain. Although actinic keratosis can cause a scaly lesion on the ear, it is usually not as painful as chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis and tends to progress slowly over time.
Understanding Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis
Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis (CNH) is a harmless condition that is characterized by the formation of a painful nodule on the ear. It is believed to be caused by various factors such as continuous pressure on the ear, trauma, or exposure to cold. This condition is more prevalent in men and tends to occur more frequently as one ages.
To manage CNH, it is essential to reduce pressure on the ear. This can be achieved by using foam ear protectors while sleeping. Other treatment options include cryotherapy, steroid injection, and collagen injection. However, surgical treatment may be necessary in some cases, although there is a high likelihood of recurrence.
Overall, understanding CNH is crucial in managing this condition effectively. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, individuals can alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with CNH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations
Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his back. He complains that it has become itchy and bleeding over the past two months. On examination, it appears black and blue in colour with a slightly irregular border.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant melanoma
Explanation:Common Skin Lesions and Malignancies: Types and Characteristics
Skin lesions and malignancies are common conditions that affect people of all ages. Among the most prevalent types are malignant melanoma, actinic keratosis, guttate psoriasis, lentigo maligna, and seborrhoeic keratosis. Each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help in their diagnosis and management.
Malignant Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes in the skin. It can present as a black or brown lesion with asymmetrical shape, irregular border, multiple colors, and diameter greater than 6mm. Any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding or itching should be evaluated promptly.
Actinic Keratosis: This is a sun-induced lesion that can become malignant. It appears as a scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion with a brown or hyperpigmented base. It commonly occurs on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.
Guttate Psoriasis: This is a skin condition that causes multiple lesions. It can present as scaly, hyperpigmented, or scaly lesions that are usually brown with a scaly base.
Lentigo Maligna: This is an early form of melanoma that is confined to the epidermis. It presents as a slowly growing or changing patch of discolored skin that resembles freckles or brown marks. It can grow to several centimeters over several years or decades.
Seborrhoeic Keratosis: This is a harmless, pigmented growth that commonly occurs with age. It appears as a raised, often pigmented lesion that rarely causes bleeding.
In summary, skin lesions and malignancies can have various presentations and characteristics. It is important to be aware of their features and seek medical attention if any changes or symptoms occur. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent and detect these conditions early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.
Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 126
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.
It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement
Explanation:Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis
When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.
The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
Fever PAIN score
Fever – 1
Pus – 1
Attenuates quickly – 1
Inflamed tonsils – 1
No cough – 1
A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility of conceiving. She is worried about the risk of spina bifida after a friend had a baby with the condition. The patient has no notable medical history and no family history of birth defects. What is the recommended dosage of the supplement used to prevent neural tube defects during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 400 micrograms
Explanation:To prevent neural tube defects in the foetus, it is crucial to consume folic acid. It is advised that women who are planning to conceive should take a supplement of 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This dose should be continued until the 12th week of pregnancy. If there is a family history or a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects, the recommended dose should be increased.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old visits her GP the day after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception to prevent pregnancy. After a negative pregnancy test, what is the next best course of action for the GP to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel
Explanation:When taken correctly, the pill is an effective method of preventing pregnancy, but it cannot prevent implantation if taken after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:
Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.
Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.
Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.
What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Estradiol
Explanation:The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 6-week-old newborn baby to see you. She reports that she has noticed that his belly button is always wet and leaks out yellow fluid. On examination, you note a small, red growth of tissue in the centre of the umbilicus, covered with clear mucus. The child is otherwise well, apyrexial and developing normally.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Umbilical granuloma
Explanation:An umbilical granuloma is a growth of tissue that can occur during the healing process of the umbilicus, typically within the first few weeks of life. It appears as a small, red growth in the center of the umbilicus that may leak clear or yellow fluid. Treatment involves applying salt to the wound or cauterizing the granuloma with silver nitrate if necessary.
Omphalitis, also known as umbilical cellulitis, is a bacterial infection that affects the umbilical stump. It typically presents as a superficial cellulitis a few days after birth.
Umbilical hernias are common in newborns, occurring in approximately 1 in 5 children. They usually resolve on their own by the age of 2.
The umbilicus has two arteries and one vein during development, which later dessicates and separates after birth. Umbilical hernias are common in neonates and may resolve spontaneously. Paraumbilical hernias have more defined edges and are less likely to resolve on their own. Omphalitis is a potentially serious infection of the umbilicus that requires antibiotics. Umbilical granulomas can be treated with silver nitrate. Persistent urachus and vitello-intestinal ducts are rare conditions that require imaging and surgical closure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 136
Incorrect
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As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is struggling with obesity. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should not be promoted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food products specifically targeted at diabetics
Explanation:According to NICE, it is not recommended to consume foods that are marketed exclusively for individuals with diabetes.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club when an ejection systolic murmur is found. He is sent for echocardiogram and subsequently diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Despite a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and regular pulse, which complication of this condition is most likely to result in sudden death for this athlete?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia
Explanation:Young athletes with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy are at risk of sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmia. This is believed to be caused by ventricular tachycardia resulting from ischaemia, which typically occurs during extreme exertion. Unlike myocardial infarction, which is commonly associated with atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries, it is unlikely for a young person to develop this condition. However, cocaine use may increase the risk of MI in young people. Although HOCM may cause a regurgitant mitral valve, valve rupture is not a known complication. While heart block may occur in some cases of HOCM, it is rare and is unlikely to cause sudden death.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right ankle. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.2 °C. Examination of her cardiovascular and respiratory systems is normal, and an abdominal examination is also normal. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw another doctor 4 days ago, who told her that she had an infected ear and prescribed antibiotics. Her right ankle is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Select the SINGLE most likely causative organism.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)
Explanation:Common Bacterial Infections and their Causes
Septic arthritis is a joint infection caused by pyogenic organisms, with S. aureus being the most common culprit. Other organisms responsible include streptococci, Neisseria species, and Gram-negative bacilli. The infection typically spreads to the joint via the bloodstream or from adjacent osteomyelitis or trauma. Symptoms include pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected joint. Diagnosis is established by aspirating and culturing the joint fluid. Immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction, and needle aspiration or surgical drainage may be necessary.
N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes meningococcaemia and meningococcal meningitis, particularly in children and young adults. It is spread via respiratory secretions and can be carried asymptomatically by 5-10% of adults, with higher rates in close communities. The disease carries significant morbidity and mortality.
S. viridans is commonly found in the mouth and can cause endocarditis if introduced into the bloodstream. It is the most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis.
S. epidermidis is a Gram-positive staphylococcus that normally resides on human skin and mucosa. It commonly causes infections on catheters and implants, and is a frequent cause of nosocomial infections, particularly in TPN and bone marrow transplant patients.
E. coli is commonly found in the large intestine and is a major cause of urinary tract infections, cholecystitis and cholangitis, and neonatal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 40 year old male is brought to the Emergency Department following a severe beating. Upon arrival, his eyes are shut and only open in response to pain. He emits a single groan and withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The GCS score for this patient is 654, which can be remembered as MoVE. This scoring system assesses the patient’s level of consciousness by evaluating their eye opening, verbal response, and motor function. In this case, the patient’s eyes are closed but will open in response to pain, earning a score of 2 out of 4. The patient is unable to speak but makes a groaning sound, earning a score of 2 out of 5. The patient also flexes in response to pain, earning a score of 4 out of 6. GCS scores are regularly monitored in patients with head injuries to detect any changes in their neurological status, which could indicate swelling or bleeding.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria, left flank pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals a mass in the left flank. Blood tests show hypochromic anaemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Common Kidney Disorders and Their Symptoms
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC), renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), renal amyloidosis, and reflux nephropathy are some of the common kidney disorders. RCC is the most prevalent type of kidney cancer in adults, and it may remain asymptomatic for most of its course. Renal tract calculi cause sudden onset of severe pain in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. ADPKD is a multisystemic disorder characterised by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Renal amyloidosis is caused by extracellular and/or intracellular deposition of insoluble abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Reflux nephropathy is characterised by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold for the past two months. She has become increasingly distressed by these symptoms and reports a recent weight gain of approximately 5kg. Which of her regular medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hypothyroidism can be caused by long-term use of lithium.
The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, and the only medication on the list that can lead to this condition is lithium. While the other drugs listed may cause individual side effects that could contribute to the patient’s presentation, none of them would produce all of the symptoms described.
Amlodipine may cause weight gain due to fluid retention, but it is unlikely to cause as much as 5 kg, and it would not cause mood changes or fatigue to the extent described. Bisoprolol can cause significant fatigue, but it would not cause weight gain. Citalopram may cause significant weight gain and mood changes, but it is unlikely to cause the patient to feel cold. Atorvastatin can also cause weight gain, but this is rare.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of the wrists. She is mainly bothered by the troublesome and persistent itching.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate
Explanation:Management of Lichen Planus: Topical Clobetasone Butyrate
Lichen planus is a skin condition that can be managed with daily potent topical steroids, such as clobetasone butyrate. As the lesions improve, the potency of the steroid can be decreased. It is important to advise patients to only treat the active, itchy lesions and not the post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation to minimize side effects. These treatments can also be used on the genital skin and scalp. Sedating antihistamines may help with itching at night, but should only be used periodically. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments for lichen planus. Referring for a punch biopsy is not necessary unless the presentation is atypical. The characteristic histological findings of lichen planus include irregular acanthosis of the epidermis, irregular thickening of the granular layer, and compact hyperkeratosis in the center of the papule. Topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments for lichen planus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following a fall and hitting his nose on a door. He has a medical history of hypertension managed with amlodipine, atrial fibrillation managed with apixaban, stroke, and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. On examination, he has active bleeding from the left anterior nasal septum and is spitting blood. Despite attempting to control the bleeding by squeezing his nose for 30 minutes and inserting a Rapid Rhino, the bleeding persists. What is an indication for surgical intervention in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Failure of nasal packing
Explanation:If all emergency measures fail to stop epistaxis, sphenopalatine ligation in a surgical setting may be necessary.
To manage epistaxis in an emergency, it is important to provide adequate first aid for at least 20 minutes by firmly squeezing both nasal ala and sitting forward. Ice in the mouth can also be helpful. Topical adrenaline and local anaesthetic, as well as topical tranexamic acid, can be applied. If these measures are unsuccessful, nasal packing with devices such as Rapid Rhino may be necessary. If the bleeding persists, a posterior pack or Foley catheter may be used. In cases where all of these measures fail, surgical intervention such as sphenopalatine artery ligation may be required.
Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management
Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.
Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, certain factors can exacerbate the condition, such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia. Other causes include the use of cocaine, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures. This involves asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid activities that increase the risk of re-bleeding.
In cases where emergency management fails, sphenopalatine ligation in theatre may be required. Patients with unknown or posterior sources of bleeding should be admitted to the hospital for observation and review. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presented to the eye clinic with swollen and red upper and lower eyelids on her right eye. Upon further examination, it was found that she had decreased visual acuity, conjunctival hyperaemia, mild proptosis, and pain during eye movements. The mother reported that the girl had a severe cold for a week before the onset of these symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis for this girl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis secondary to ethmoidal sinusitis
Explanation:The most common cause of orbital cellulitis in children is an infection of the ethmoidal sinus, which has a relatively thin medial wall that allows for easy spread of infection to the orbital cavity. In this case, the patient’s symptoms of proptosis, decreased visual acuity, and ocular motility indicate a diagnosis of orbital cellulitis rather than preseptal cellulitis. The patient’s history of a prolonged cold suggests that ethmoidal sinusitis is the likely cause of the infection. Otitis externa is not relevant to this case as there are no associated symptoms of earache or discharge, and there is no indication of atopy or seasonal predilection to suggest allergic rhinitis.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The parent reports that the child was violently shaken by the caregiver. The paediatricians on duty observe retinal haemorrhages and suspect encephalopathy. What was identified on the CT head to complete the triad of features of Shaken Baby Syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:The combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy is known as the triad of symptoms associated with Shaken Baby Syndrome. The tearing of fragile bridging cerebral veins in infants is believed to be the cause of subdural haematomas, which are the most common and typical intracranial manifestation of this syndrome.
Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome
Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.
Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset of difficulty breathing. During the examination, the patient displays an S3 gallop rhythm, bibasal crepitations, and pitting edema up to both knees. An ECG reveals indications of left ventricular hypertrophy, and a chest X-ray shows small bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomegaly, and upper lobe diversion.
Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following medications has been proven to enhance long-term survival?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:The patient exhibits symptoms of congestive heart failure, which can be managed with loop diuretics and nitrates in acute or decompensated cases. However, these medications do not improve long-term survival. To reduce mortality in patients with left ventricular failure, ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin receptor blockers, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine with nitrates have all been proven effective. Digoxin can reduce hospital admissions but not mortality, and is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to initial treatments or have co-existing atrial fibrillation.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements best describes bladder cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Survival correlates well with TNM staging at diagnosis.
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Prognostic Factors, Staging, and Treatment Options
Bladder cancer is a common malignancy that affects the urinary system. Survival rates are closely linked to the TNM staging at diagnosis, with non-muscle invasive bladder cancer having a good prognosis and decreasing survival rates with increasing stage. The most significant prognostic factors for bladder cancer are grade, depth of invasion, and the presence of carcinoma in situ. Chemotherapy for metastatic disease is seldom used and has limited effectiveness. Cisplatin-based chemotherapy regimens are the standard treatment for metastatic bladder cancer, with a median overall patient survival of 13-15 months and a 2-year survival rate of 15-20%. Careful follow-up is necessary for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer due to the high rate of disease recurrence and progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's office after a child at her workplace daycare tested positive for whooping cough. She has been experiencing an on-and-off cough with occasional vomiting for the past 18 days. Assuming the patient has no allergies, what is the best course of treatment for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin or clarithromycin are recommended as first-line antibiotics for non-pregnant adults with whooping cough if the cough onset is within 21 days. Erythromycin can be used for pregnant adults. Co-amoxiclav and doxycycline are not recommended, and co-trimoxazole can be used off-label if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated. Antibiotics are preferred over supportive treatment within 21 days of presentation.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for cognitive impairment with concerns about a movement disorder. As part of his evaluation, he undergoes cross-sectional brain imaging and a dopamine Transporter Scan (DaTscan). The results show reduced dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra bilaterally on the DaTscan and age-related changes on the MRI head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Neurodegenerative Disorders: A Comparison of Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, Huntington’s Disease, and Vascular Dementia
Neurodegenerative disorders can be difficult to differentiate due to overlapping symptoms. Parkinson’s disease, for example, involves the death of neurones in the substantia nigra and is often confirmed through the use of DaTscan, which visualises dopamine transporter levels in the brain. Dementia is a common complication of Parkinson’s disease, affecting 20-40% of patients and causing cognitive, mood, and behavioural changes.
Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is characterised by cortical atrophy visible on CT and MRI scans and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects behaviour and language and is also not typically associated with movement disorders.
Huntington’s disease is another basal ganglia disorder, but it primarily involves cell loss in the striatum, leading to chorea – uncontrollable limb movements. CT and MRI scans can show loss of striatal volume in moderate-to-severe cases, but early scans may appear normal.
Vascular dementia, the second most common cause of dementia after Alzheimer’s, often has a history of cerebral vascular disease and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Understanding the unique characteristics of each neurodegenerative disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past 2 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, a heart attack 3 years ago, heart failure, and a recent chest infection that was successfully treated with antibiotics. During the examination, the patient has bibasal crepitations and an elevated JVP. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation is 95% on air, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 129/86 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV furosemide
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute pulmonary oedema in this patient is IV loop diuretic, specifically furosemide. This is because the patient is experiencing acute decompensated heart failure, which causes pulmonary oedema. IV loop diuretic has a prompt diuretic effect, reducing ventricular filling pressures and improving symptoms within 30 minutes.
IV dobutamine is not necessary for this patient as they are not in shock and dobutamine is typically reserved for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who have potentially reversible cardiogenic shock.
IV morphine is not recommended for acute heart failure as it may increase morbidity in patients with acute pulmonary oedema.
Oral furosemide is not the preferred route of administration for this patient as IV furosemide has a faster onset of diuresis.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.
In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents for review. What indicates an elevated risk of suicide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of arm cutting
Explanation:Arm cutting may be seen as attention-seeking or a way to release pain, but studies indicate that it increases the risk of suicide for those with a history of deliberate self harm. Employment is a protective factor.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal Hb of 66 g/L and reticulocytes of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis
Explanation:An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.
Explanation:Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies
Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.
The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.
Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering the x-linked recessive pattern of inheritance for this condition, what is the likelihood that his son will also exhibit the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No increased risk
Explanation:Conditions that are X-linked recessive do not show transmission from male to male.
Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines
Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.
Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.
It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of dyspareunia, dysuria, and dysmenorrhoea. During a bimanual examination, the GP observes generalised tenderness, a fixed, retroverted uterus, and uterosacral ligament nodules. The GP suspects endometriosis and refers the patient for laparoscopy to confirm the diagnosis. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatments for endometriosis are NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. Ibuprofen is the most suitable option for managing pain, and it should be tried first. If the pain is not relieved with one medication, a combination of paracetamol and NSAIDs can be used. If these options are not effective, hormonal treatment can be considered. Codeine is not the first-line treatment and should only be used after other options have been tried. The combined oral contraceptive pill and Mirena coil are also not the initial interventions and should only be considered if analgesia and hormonal treatments are unsuccessful.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria, suprapubic pain and back pain. The symptoms have been getting worse over the past 48 hours. During examination, she is febrile and tachycardic. She has no history of urinary infections.
What is the most suitable investigation to arrange for this patient next?
Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary microscopy and culture
Explanation:The most appropriate investigation to arrange for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis is urinary microscopy and culture. It is important to obtain a sample before starting empirical antibiotics to guide subsequent antibiotic choice if the initial course is ineffective. While genital swabs may be useful if there is a history of sexually transmitted infection, they are not as important as urine culture in this situation. Cystoscopy and ultrasound scans of the abdomen may be useful in other situations, but are not urgently indicated in this case. Similarly, a CTKUB would not be useful in investigating the cause of the infection, which can be determined through urine culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old lady with hypertension managed on ramipril undergoes annual review.
Her bloods are shown below:
Last year This year Reference range
Sodium (Na+) 134 133 135-145 mEq/l
Potassium (K+) 3.7 4.1 3.5-5.0 mEq/l
Creatinine (Cr) 84 96 44-97 μmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) >90 79 >90 ml/min/1.73 m2
Based on these results, what should be the next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue current dose
Explanation:Management of Renal Function Changes in Patients on Renin-Angiotensin System Antagonists
When a patient on renin-angiotensin system antagonists, such as ramipril, experiences a slight decrease in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) or an increase in serum creatinine, current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend continuing the current dose and repeating the test in 1-2 weeks if the change is <25% in eGFR or <30% in serum creatinine at baseline. Referral to a renal specialist is not necessary unless there are specific indications. It is not recommended to reduce or stop the dose of ramipril in this situation as it may lead to poorly controlled hypertension and increased cardiovascular risk. Renal ultrasound is only indicated for selected groups of patients with chronic kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
As a GPST on a psychiatry placement, you encounter a 75-year-old patient who has been brought in by the police under Section 136. The patient is displaying confusion and aggression towards the nursing team, making it difficult to provide care. Despite attempts to offer oral medication, the patient has refused all treatment and has also declined an ECG. What is the most appropriate medication to administer in order to quickly calm this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:When it comes to quickly calming down patients who are exhibiting disruptive behavior, oral lorazepam is typically the first choice. According to NICE guidelines, either intramuscular lorazepam or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be used for rapid tranquilization in patients with acute behavioral disturbances. However, lorazepam is recommended for patients who have not previously taken antipsychotic medication and for those whose heart health is uncertain.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of painful menstrual bleeding. She reports having a regular 28-day cycle and bleeding for 5-6 days each month without passing clots or experiencing heavy bleeding. However, the pain is severe and often requires her to take at least 2 days off work every month. Her medical history includes a DVT after giving birth to her child 2 years ago. She has no allergies and takes no regular medications.
What is the first step in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Primary dysmenorrhoea is best treated with NSAIDs like mefenamic acid, which are the first line of treatment according to NICE guidelines. Paracetamol can be used if NSAIDs are not suitable, and a combination of both can be tried if NSAIDs alone are not effective. Hormonal options like the combined oral contraceptive pill can also be considered, but contraindications must be ruled out. The intrauterine device or copper coil is not recommended for this patient due to the risk of heavier bleeding. Instead, the intrauterine system or Mirena coil can be offered as an alternative option. While the IUS is the first-line treatment for menorrhagia, NSAIDs are the initial choice for primary dysmenorrhoea. It is important to consider the patient’s plans for conception when deciding on treatment options.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on one diabetes medication (500mg metformin BD). He reports no adverse effects from this treatment. His most recent retinopathy screening was unremarkable. You draw blood to assess his HbA1c levels.
What is the recommended target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The recommended HbA1c goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. According to NICE guidelines, this target is appropriate for patients who are managing their condition through lifestyle changes or a single antidiabetic medication. However, if a patient is prescribed a second medication or is taking a medication that increases the risk of hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), the target may be adjusted to 53 mmol/mol. It is important to note that the HbA1c threshold for changing medications may differ from the target HbA1c level.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.
What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle and is incidentally found to be in atrial fibrillation. He denies any symptoms of palpitations or shortness of breath. Despite discussing treatment options, he declines cardioversion. Cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal, with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. As per the most recent NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this patient if he remains in chronic atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to you with progressive numbness in his right hand and entire right side, indicating a possible stroke. You promptly arrange for an ambulance and he returns 6 weeks later to express his gratitude and discuss medication. If there are no contraindications, what antiplatelet regimen is recommended after an acute ischemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily long-term
Explanation:When a patient shows symptoms of acute stroke, it is crucial to immediately send them to the nearest stroke center. Treatment should not be administered until a diagnosis of ischemic stroke is confirmed. Once confirmed, the patient should be prescribed aspirin 300 mg daily for two weeks, followed by long-term use of clopidogrel 75 mg daily. Additionally, if the patient is not already taking a statin, it should be offered as a treatment option.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) comes in with photophobia and a painful red eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions Associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the sacroiliac joints and axial skeleton. However, it can also lead to various eye conditions. Uveitis, also known as iritis or iridocyclitis, is the most common extra-articular manifestation of AS, occurring in 20-30% of patients. Acute anterior uveitis is often unilateral and presents with symptoms such as a painful red eye, photophobia, and blurred vision. Patients with uveitis may also have or develop other spondyloarthropathies, including reactive arthritis, undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy, and psoriatic arthritis.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, is not associated with AS. It is a medical emergency that needs immediate treatment to prevent vision loss. Conjunctivitis, which is responsible for approximately 30% of all eye complaints, is usually benign and self-limited. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus and keratoconus are also not associated with AS.
It is important for patients with AS to be aware of these potential eye conditions and seek urgent ophthalmological assessment if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent vision loss and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia and mild, lower abdominal discomfort.
On examination, she looks well. She is afebrile, while her abdomen is soft and nontender. A urine dipstick is performed. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate was normal: > 90 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 three months ago.
Urinalysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Leukocytes +++
Nitrates +
Blood +
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice a day for seven days
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs is nitrofurantoin, with trimethoprim as an alternative if resistance is low. Painless haematuria warrants investigation of the renal tract, and this should also be considered in men with confirmed UTIs. Amoxicillin is not typically recommended for UTIs due to its inactivation by penicillinase produced by E. coli, but it may be appropriate if the causative organism is sensitive to it. While waiting for MSU results, empirical antibiotic treatment should be started immediately if a UTI is suspected. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for acute prostatitis or pyelonephritis, not uncomplicated lower UTIs, and caution is needed when prescribing quinolones to the elderly due to the risk of tendon rupture. Trimethoprim is an appropriate first-line antibiotic for lower UTIs in men, with a 7-day course recommended, while a 3-day course is suitable for non-pregnant women under 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 174
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight ahead, the patient's left eye deviates inward. When looking to the right, there is no apparent squint. However, when looking to the left, the patient cannot move the left eye outward, and double vision becomes more severe. What is the probable underlying issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy
Explanation:Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions
The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.
Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).
In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery as his father is worried about his weight. This has been a concern for more than three years and dad believes it is affecting his son's performance in school. What is the best way to determine the extent of his obesity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body mass index percentile adjusted to age and gender
Explanation:Understanding Obesity in Children
Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment and management. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is more challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To accurately assess BMI, percentile charts are needed. According to recent guidelines by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the UK 1990 BMI charts should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.
NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other factors such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome can also contribute to obesity in children.
Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphyses and Blount’s disease, musculoskeletal pains, psychological consequences like poor self-esteem and bullying, sleep apnoea, and benign intracranial hypertension. Moreover, obesity in childhood can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease in the long run. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and manage obesity in children to prevent these adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A woman in her early thirties visits your GP clinic with a plan to conceive a baby in a year's time. She has barrister exams scheduled for this year and prefers not to get pregnant before that. However, she desires to conceive soon after her exams. Which contraceptive method is commonly linked with a prolonged delay in fertility restoration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old woman presents with lethargy and pruritus. She reports having a normal appetite and no weight loss. Upon examination, there is no clinical jaundice or organomegaly. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hb: 12.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 188 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.7 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 68 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 30 µmol/l
- ALP: 231 u/l
- ALT: 38 u/l
- γGT: 367 u/l
- Albumin: 39 g/l
What additional test is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry cough and chest tightness. She was diagnosed with asthma 8-months ago and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, she has noticed an increase in shortness of breath over the past month and has been using her inhaler up to 12 times per day.
During the examination, her vital signs are normal. Her peak expiratory flow rate is 290L/min (best 400 L/min).
What is the next course of action in managing this patient's asthma symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:For an adult with asthma that is not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist, the appropriate next step is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines. The addition of a combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist is not recommended until symptoms cannot be controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Similarly, a leukotriene receptor antagonist or long-acting beta-agonist should not be introduced until symptoms are not controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is on a flupentixol depot for schizophrenia. The patient presents to his General Practitioner with severe restlessness.
Which of the following side-effects of antipsychotic medication is present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Extrapyramidal Side-Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
One common extrapyramidal side-effect of antipsychotic medications is akathisia, which is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness and an inability to sit still. This is often seen in the legs and can be caused by first-generation typical antipsychotics like flupentixol. Treatment involves reducing or switching the medication dose.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another potential side-effect that occurs within days of starting antipsychotic medication. It presents with symptoms such as pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and confusion. Rapid diagnosis and treatment with fluids, cooling, benzodiazepines, and dantrolene are necessary.
Acute dystonic reactions, such as torticollis, oculogyric crises, and trismus, can occur within hours to days of taking antipsychotic medications. These extrapyramidal side-effects are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics due to their increased anti-dopaminergic activity. Treatment may involve anticholinergic drugs like procyclidine.
Parkinsonism refers to features associated with antipsychotic medication that are essentially the same as iatrogenic Parkinsonism, including joint rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. These symptoms are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics.
Finally, tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotics. It presents with involuntary movements such as lip-smacking and grimacing. While this patient may have been on flupentixol for a long time, they do not present with these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate canthotomy
Explanation:In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.
A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.
B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.
Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.
Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.
Ocular Trauma and Hyphema
Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.
To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle for the past 4-5 weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her left sole and swelling in her right toes. Additionally, she has developed low back pain over the last 2 weeks. Upon further inquiry, she mentions having painless oral ulcers that heal on their own. She recently had chlamydial urethritis. Her full blood count, kidney, and liver function tests are all normal, and an autoimmune screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthritic Conditions
Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It is characterized by an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, with common symptoms including enthesitis, sacroiliitis, and spondylosis. Patients may also experience mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, and cutaneous features such as circinate balanitis and keratoderma blenorrhagia. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthritic conditions such as disseminated bacterial arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and hypersensitivity vasculitis. Understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He reports experiencing constant shortness of breath during physical activity, which has remained stable over the past year. He has a history of asbestos exposure and is currently under the care of a respiratory physician. During the examination, no abnormalities are detected, but a chest X-ray reveals the presence of pleural plaques. The patient expresses concern that these plaques may develop into cancer. What advice do you offer this patient regarding his test results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign and do not require follow-up
Explanation:Pleural plaques are benign and do not develop into cancerous growths, so there is no need for any follow-up. These plaques are the most common form of lung disease caused by asbestos exposure, but they do not increase the risk of lung cancer or mesothelioma. While ongoing monitoring of the patient’s lung disease is recommended, there is no need to specifically monitor the pleural plaques. It is important to note that pleural plaques are a sign of past asbestos exposure, which could increase the risk of mesothelioma, but the plaques themselves are not a cause for concern. Therefore, the patient does not require a specialist referral for the pleural plaques alone. However, if the patient experiences worsening shortness of breath or frequent exacerbations, a specialist referral may be necessary to assess for disease progression or malignancy.
Asbestos-Related Lung Diseases
Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to malignant mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, but they are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and typically appear after a latent period of 20-40 years. Asbestos exposure may also cause diffuse pleural thickening, which is similar to the pattern seen after an empyema or haemothorax, but the underlying pathophysiology is not fully understood.
Asbestosis is a lung disease that is related to the length of exposure to asbestos. It causes lower lobe fibrosis and is typically characterized by dyspnea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer on lung function tests. Asbestosis is treated conservatively, as no interventions offer significant benefits. The latent period for asbestosis is typically 15-30 years.
Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. Possible features of mesothelioma include progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy, and there is a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.
Although mesothelioma is often associated with asbestos exposure, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer related to asbestos exposure. It has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more prominent before her period. There is no family history of breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffuse cystic mastopathy
Explanation:Breast Masses: Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Features
Breast masses are a common concern for women, and it is important to differentiate between benign and malignant causes. Here, we discuss the clinical features and differential diagnosis of various breast masses.
Diffuse cystic mastopathy is a benign condition that affects a significant proportion of women. It is characterized by the formation of cysts in the breast lobules due to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. The lumps are smooth, mobile, and tend to peak in size before each period. Diagnosis is primarily based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Fat necrosis is another benign condition that can occur due to direct trauma or surgery. It is characterized by the formation of firm, round, and painless masses in the breast. The skin around the lump may be red or bruised, and a biopsy may be needed to differentiate it from breast cancer.
Breast abscesses are characterized by local inflammation, pain, and fever. They may be associated with previous breast infections and may require drainage. However, there is no evidence of an infectious process in this patient.
Breast cancer is a concern in any patient with a breast mass, but early breast cancer is often asymptomatic. Physical findings that may indicate the possible presence of breast cancer include changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or changes, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lumps. However, none of these symptoms are present in this patient.
Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years of age. It is characterized by a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, and mobile mass. However, this patient reports multiple lumps, making a diagnosis of fibroadenoma less likely.
In conclusion, the cyclic nature of this patient’s breast masses makes diffuse cystic mastopathy the most likely diagnosis. However, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 187
Incorrect
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After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with swollen face and lips, along with wheezing. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and his blood pressure is 83/45 mmHg as per manual reading.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1 000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline
Explanation:Administering Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route
Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline is crucial in managing anaphylactic shock. However, the dosage and route of administration depend on the severity of the symptoms.
For mild symptoms, such as skin rash or itching, the administration of iv hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine is sufficient. But if the symptoms progress to involve the airways or circulation, adrenaline should be given as soon as possible. The recommended dosage for intramuscular (im) adrenaline is 1:1000.
It’s important to note that the dosage for cardiac arrest is different, and it’s given intravenously (iv) at a concentration of 1:10,000. However, routine use of iv adrenaline is not recommended unless the healthcare provider is skilled and experienced in its use.
Hydrocortisone, even by an iv route, takes several hours to have an effect and is no longer deemed to be part of emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it’s not an appropriate course of action for rapidly life-threatening situations.
In summary, administering adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires careful consideration of the dosage and route of administration. It’s crucial to act quickly and seek emergency medical attention to prevent fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 188
Incorrect
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You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing on a nearby object but fail to narrow when exposed to bright light. What is the most frequent reason for this pupillary response in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:In the UK, diabetes mellitus is now the most frequent cause of Argyll-Robertson pupil, as neurosyphilis is no longer commonly observed due to effective antibiotic treatment. This condition is not caused by sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea, nor is it associated with optic neuritis, which instead causes a Marcus Gunn pupil or Relative afferent pupillary defect.
Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome
The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).
The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man undergoing evaluation in the Medical Outpatient Department for complaints of joint pain is found to have weakly positive serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). All his other blood tests are within normal limits.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's ANA positivity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age related
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship Between ANAs and Various Medical Conditions
As individuals age, the level of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) in their blood tends to increase, particularly in those over 65 years old. Therefore, a weakly positive ANA sample in an older patient with normal blood results is likely due to age-related factors.
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is not associated with ANA positivity. This diagnosis is made only after ruling out all other possibilities and finding no biochemical evidence to support it.
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is not linked to any known antibodies. While patients with AS may have elevated levels of non-specific inflammatory markers, such as C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, genetic testing for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27 may aid in diagnosis.
Primary antiphospholipid (APL) antibody syndrome does not typically involve ANA positivity. If ANAs are present in a patient with APL syndrome, it suggests a secondary form of the condition associated with a connective tissue disorder. APL syndrome is usually characterized by anti-cardiolipin antibodies and abnormal clotting studies.
Myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by fatiguability and weakness induced by repeated actions, is not related to ANAs. Instead, it is caused by antibodies targeting the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 190
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some blood results and notice that a 32-year-old man admitted earlier has hyperkalaemia. You go back and review the drugs he is taking to see if any of them could be contributing to the newly diagnosed hyperkalaemia.
Which of the following would contribute to the patient’s hyperkalaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Drugs and their Effects on Serum Potassium Levels
Serum potassium levels can be affected by various drugs. Digoxin toxicity, especially in patients with renal impairment, can cause hyperkalaemia. Theophylline can lead to hypokalaemia, which can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with corticosteroids and diuretics. Loop and thiazide diuretics can also cause hypokalaemia due to increased sodium reabsorption at the expense of potassium and hydrogen ions. β-agonists such as bronchodilators can cause hypokalaemia, while β-blockade can lead to hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Lithium use is not associated with changes in serum potassium levels. It is important to monitor serum potassium concentrations when using these drugs to prevent adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wash hands with soap and water
Explanation:Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.
Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.
Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.
Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with burning pain on the lateral aspect of his left thigh for the past two weeks. His body mass index is 30 kg/m² and he has no other significant past medical history. He does not recall any trauma before the onset of the pain.
On examination, the pain is reproduced with extension of the hip but there is no weakness and the examination is otherwise normal. All lower limb reflexes are intact.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Common Nerve Conditions: Symptoms and Causes
Meralgia paraesthetica, Sciatica, Common peroneal nerve palsy, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and L1/L2 disc herniation are all nerve conditions that can cause various symptoms. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by an impingement of the lateral cutaneous femoral nerve and is often seen in obese individuals, pregnant women, and those with diabetes. Sciatica is caused by a herniated disc or other spinal issues and presents with pain radiating down the leg. Common peroneal nerve palsy causes foot drop and sensory loss in the lower leg. Guillain–Barré syndrome is an acute, inflammatory, post-infectious polyneuropathy that causes progressive, bilateral, ascending weakness. L1/L2 disc herniation is rare and can cause non-specific symptoms such as weakness in the psoas muscle and pain in the lumbar spine. It is more likely to occur in individuals who have suffered trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract infection. Despite treatment with antibiotics, environmental changes, and reassurance, she continues to be agitated. You are contemplating prescribing haloperidol. What is one condition that may be significantly exacerbated by the use of haloperidol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:If possible, antipsychotics should be avoided as they can exacerbate Parkinson’s disease symptoms. Instead, a low dose of oral lorazepam may be considered as an alternative.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been taking warfarin for 2 years due to paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent DC cardioversion and is now in sinus rhythm after consulting with his cardiologist. His CHAD-VASC score is 4. Assuming he remains in sinus rhythm, what is the best course of action for his anticoagulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation lifelong
Explanation:Anticoagulation should be continued long-term, even if sinus rhythm is maintained, following elective DC cardioversion for AF in high-risk patients. The correct answer is to continue anticoagulation lifelong, with regular evaluation of bleeding risk. The options of continuing anticoagulation for 4 weeks or 6 months then stopping are incorrect for this patient who has a high CHAD-VASC score. One week of low molecular weight heparin is not the appropriate answer in this case, although it may be used for thromboprophylaxis in some post-surgical patients.
Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.
According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.
NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 199
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor working in the Emergency Department. A 54-year-old man is brought in by his wife. He looks unwell and is sweating profusely. He tells you he has abruptly stopped drinking alcohol and used to drink heavily. What is the neurotransmitter mechanism responsible for alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased inhibitory GABA and increased excitatory glutamate
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs due to a decrease in the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and an increase in the excitatory neurotransmitter NMDA glutamate. GABA typically reduces brain activity and induces a calming effect when levels are high, which is heightened during alcohol consumption. On the other hand, glutamate increases brain activity and acts as a natural stimulant, which is reduced during alcohol consumption, leading to a physiological slowdown.
When a person drinks alcohol, the brain assumes that there is an excess of GABA and a shortage of glutamate. However, if the person continues to drink excessively, the brain produces less GABA and more glutamate to restore normal brain chemistry. If the person then stops drinking, the brain experiences a rebound effect, where it still produces less GABA and more glutamate than required without alcohol. As a result, the brain acts as if there is a deficiency of GABA and an excess of glutamate, leading to withdrawal symptoms.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss (her BMI is now 18.5 kg/m2, down from 21 kg/m2 one year ago). You are familiar with the patient and have ruled out any physical causes for her weight loss. When you inquire about purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, she appears hesitant to answer, but you notice that her tooth enamel is eroded. She expresses feeling extremely overweight and has been experiencing low mood for several months, finding little pleasure in anything except for when she indulges in too much chocolate and bread. However, afterwards, she feels even more disgusted with herself.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, laxative abuse, excessive exercise, and drug use. Individuals with bulimia often experience feelings of loss of control and intense guilt during binge episodes. Pitting of tooth enamel caused by stomach acid is a common sign of regular vomiting. Unlike anorexia nervosa, bulimia is not usually associated with severe weight loss. The condition is ten times more common in women. It is important to recognize the symptoms of bulimia and seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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