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Question 1
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A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself and reports no symptoms.
On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2 and there are some thickened folds of skin in his axilla and the nape of his neck. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. He is a non-smoker and does not drink.
A set of blood work is ordered. He demonstrated impaired fasting glucose in addition to the results below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
Cholesterol 5.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglyceride 3.9 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 30 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the next best investigation?Your Answer: Ultrasound liver
Explanation:Choosing the Best Investigation: A Case Study
In this case study, a patient presents with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), raised ALT, impaired glucose regulation, acanthosis nigricans, and a high BMI. The question is, what investigation should be done next?
Ultrasound liver is the best investigation in this case. It is quick, inexpensive, and can provide enough information to guide management at initial stages. Weight management and dietary modification can help abate symptoms.
Screening for hereditary haemochromatosis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient does not complain of arthritis, diabetes, or changes to the skin.
Haematinics are not necessary, as the Hb is normal.
A CT scan of the abdomen would be useful, but it is costly and would result in the patient receiving radiation. It should not be the next best investigation.
Serum ceruloplasmin is not necessary, as there is nothing in the history to suggest Wilson’s disease.
In conclusion, choosing the best investigation requires careful consideration of the patient’s history and symptoms. In this case, ultrasound liver is the most appropriate next step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a 36-year-old man who has been admitted with decompensated alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, you observe widespread stigmata of chronic liver disease with tense ascites and mild peripheral oedema. There is no indication of encephalopathy, and all vital signs are within acceptable limits. The most recent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (120-140), a white cell count of 5.6 ×109/L (4.0-11.0), and a platelet count of 79 ×109/L (150-400), among other things. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain. What is the safest analgesic agent to prescribe to this patient?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Special Considerations for Drug Prescribing in Patients with Advanced Liver Disease
Patients with advanced liver disease require special attention when it comes to drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. The liver’s poor synthetic function can lead to impaired enzyme formation, reducing the ability to excrete hepatically metabolized drugs. Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs can lead to the accumulation of toxic metabolites. Additionally, reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors by a damaged liver means that these patients can often auto-anticoagulate, and drugs that interfere with the clotting process are best avoided.
Aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and diclofenac should be avoided in liver disease patients. These drugs promote gastric irritation, increasing the likelihood of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is significantly increased if there are upper gastrointestinal varices present. NSAIDs can also promote fluid retention and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Morphine sulfate and tramadol hydrochloride are both opioid analgesics that should only be considered in patients with advanced liver disease by hepatologists as they can promote the development of hepatic encephalopathy. Paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients, even in severe liver disease, as long as the doses are halved.
In conclusion, patients with advanced liver disease require special care in drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. It is important to avoid drugs that interfere with the clotting process, promote gastric irritation, and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Opioid analgesics should only be considered by hepatologists, and paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a flare-up. He tells you that he is passing eight stools a day with blood and has severe nausea with abdominal pain at present. He normally takes oral mesalazine to control his condition. On examination, the patient is cool peripherally, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. Blood tests are done and relevant findings shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 32 mm/hour < 20 mm/hour
Albumin 34 g/l 35–50 g/l
Temperature 37.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous (IV) corticosteroids, fluids and monitoring
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Severe Ulcerative Colitis Flare-Ups
Severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis (UC) require prompt and appropriate treatment to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some treatment options that are appropriate for severe UC flare-ups:
Admit to Hospital for Intravenous (IV) Corticosteroids, Fluids, and Monitoring
For severe UC flare-ups with evidence of significant systemic upset, hospital admission is necessary. Treatment should involve nil by mouth, IV hydration, IV corticosteroids as first-line treatment, and close monitoring.
Avoid Topical Aminosalicylates and Analgesia
Topical aminosalicylates and analgesia are not indicated for severe UC flare-ups with systemic upset.
Inducing Remission with Topical Aminosalicylates is Inappropriate
For severe UC flare-ups, inducing remission with topical aminosalicylates is not appropriate. Admission and monitoring are necessary.
Azathioprine is Not Routinely Used for Severe Flare-Ups
Immunosuppression with azathioprine is not routinely used to induce remission in severe UC flare-ups. It should only be used in cases where steroids are ineffective or if prolonged use of steroids is required.
Medical Therapy Before Surgical Options
Surgical options should only be considered after medical therapy has been attempted for severe UC flare-ups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?
Your Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.
Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse complains of fatigue and general discomfort. Upon examination, his liver function tests are abnormal, and he is referred to a specialist who diagnoses him with alcohol-related cirrhosis. What is the main pathophysiological mechanism involved in alcoholic cirrhosis?
Your Answer: Increase in portal blood pressure
Correct Answer: Fibrosis resulting in disruption of normal liver architecture
Explanation:Alcoholic Liver Disease: Understanding the Pathophysiology
Alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of liver disease that can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Understanding the pathophysiology of this condition is crucial in managing and preventing its progression.
The primary pathological process in alcoholic liver disease is fibrosis, which results in the disruption of normal liver architecture. This leads to distortion of hepatic vasculature, increased intrahepatic resistance, and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis of the liver is an irreversible process and can lead to liver failure if the patient continues to drink alcohol.
Deposition of excess lipids in hepatocytes is another common feature of alcoholic liver disease. This causes steatohepatitis and is reversible. It is associated with metabolic syndrome.
Portal hypertension is a complication of alcoholic cirrhosis due to increased vascular resistance within the liver. It can result in oesophageal varices, which, if ruptured, can cause a large upper gastrointestinal bleed.
Contrary to popular belief, alcohol exposure does not cause cell death directly.
Sclerosis of the intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts is a pathophysiological process in primary sclerosing cholangitis. It causes inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts and has a strong association with ulcerative colitis.
In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of alcoholic liver disease is crucial in managing and preventing its progression. Fibrosis, lipid deposition, portal hypertension, and bile duct sclerosis are all important features of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of a slow onset of difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. An upper GI endoscopy shows no abnormalities, and there is no visible swelling in the neck. A preliminary psychiatric evaluation reveals no issues. The on-call junior doctor suspects a psychological or functional cause. What signs would indicate an organic origin for the dysphagia?
Your Answer: Globus pharyngeus (globus hystericus)
Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation:The relationship between Raynaud’s phenomenon and dysphagia is important in identifying potential underlying systemic diseases such as scleroderma. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a common symptom found in scleroderma, a systemic disease that can cause dysphagia and oesophageal dysmotility. While Raynaud’s phenomenon may be the only early manifestation of scleroderma, gastrointestinal involvement can also occur in the early stages. Therefore, the combination of Raynaud’s phenomenon with oesophageal symptoms should prompt further investigation for scleroderma.
Arthritis is not a specific cause of dysphagia-related illness, although it may occur in a variety of diseases. In scleroderma, arthralgia is more common than arthritis. Globus pharyngeus, the sensation of having something stuck in the throat, can cause severe distress, but despite extensive investigation, there is no known cause. Malar rash, found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is not associated with dysphagia. Weakness is a non-specific symptom that may be a manifestation of psychiatric illness or malnutrition as a consequence of dysphagia, and cannot guide further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
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A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?
Your Answer: Gluten-free diet
Explanation:Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer: Gluten-free diet
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?Your Answer: Diverticular disease
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production
Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.
It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.
Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.
In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses
Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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